| 1 | In classical control terminology, reset rate is typically measured in? |
| 2 | What is meant by a reverse-acting controller? |
| 3 | If error remains small but constant, which term grows over time? |
| 4 | What is the primary function of integral action in PID control? |
| 5 | Why does proportional-only control typically result in offset? |
| 6 | What is a disturbance in process control? |
| 7 | What is meant by PID controller output saturation? |
| 8 | Why is on-off control not suitable for continuous process control? |
| 9 | How does proportional controller generate its output? |
| 10 | Which PID term depends on past accumulated error? |
| 11 | In a PID controller, What happens to derivative output when error is constant? |
| 12 | What is meant by a direct-acting controller? |
| 13 | What occurs when proportional gain is extremely low? |
| 14 | If error is zero, what is proportional output? |
| 15 | In direct-acting control, output increases when? |
| 16 | What is bumpless transfer in PID control? |
| 17 | Which control structure uses two PID controllers in series? |
| 18 | In PID, what does “setpoint tracking†in manual mode mean? |
| 19 | What is the effect of valve stiction on PID performance? |
| 20 | What is the effect of large process dead time on PID stability? |
| 21 | What is the purpose of anti-windup protection in a PID controller? |
| 22 | In cascade control, where is the PID controller typically used? |
| 23 | What happens to offset if only PD control is used? |
| 24 | What does dead time in a process cause in control response? |
| 25 | What is the main disadvantage of excessive proportional gain? |
| 26 | In a PID controller, what happens if derivative time is set to zero? |
| 27 | What is the primary trade-off in PID tuning? |
| 28 | Which PID mode accumulates error over time? |
| 29 | In reverse-acting control, output increases when? |
| 30 | Which PID mode has no direct effect when error is constant? |
| 31 | In a PID controller, Derivative action responds to? |
| 32 | What happens if derivative action is applied to a noisy signal? |
| 33 | In steady-state condition with correct tuning, the error in a PID loop is ideally? |
| 34 | Which parameter mainly influences damping in a PID controller? |
| 35 | What is integral windup in a PID controller? |
| 36 | What is a final control element in a control loop? |
| 37 | What is auto mode in a PID controller? |
| 38 | How is error calculated in a PID controller? |
| 39 | What is meant by “manipulated variable†in PID control? |
| 40 | In a PID loop, what is the setpoint (SP)? |
| 41 | What is the process variable (PV) in a control loop? |
| 42 | What is a feedback control system? |
| 43 | What is manual mode in a PID controller? |
| 44 | What is open-loop control? |
| 45 | What is meant by closed-loop control? |
| 46 | Which PID term directly influences the speed of initial response? |
| 47 | Which PID term depends on how fast the error is changing? |
| 48 | Which PID term depends on the history of error over time? |
| 49 | Which PID term depends only on the present value of error? |
| 50 | In a basic feedback loop, what compares SP and PV? |
| 51 | What is the effect of excessive integral action in a PID control loop? |
| 52 | Design a logic circuit that triggers an alarm if motion is detected or if the door is opened |
| 53 | A direct-acting proportional controller is being used with a direct-acting transmitter to control the temperature of lube oil exiting a heat exchanger. The controllers proportional band is 80°F to 130°F ___ |
| 54 | The bistable turns off to extinguish the warning light when the temperature increases to 5°F above the low setpoint ___ |
| 55 | The temperature controller is a direct-acting proportional-integral controller with a gain of 1.0 ___ |
| 56 | An outside water storage tank is equipped with submerged heaters ___ |
| 57 | The temperature controller is a direct-acting proportional controller ___ |
| 58 | The temperature controller is a direct-acting proportional controller with a gain of 1.0 ___ |
| 59 | The temperature of the water in a storage tank is monitored by a bistable alarm circuit ___ |
| 60 | A reverse-acting proportional controller is being used with a direct-acting transmitter to control the temperature of lube oil exiting a heat exchanger ___ |
| 61 | A direct-acting proportional controller is being used with a direct-acting transmitter to control the temperature of lube oil exiting a heat exchanger ___ |
| 62 | The temperature controller is a direct-acting proportional controller with a gain of 1.0. Which one of the following describes the effect of changing the gain to 2.0 ___ |
| 63 | The bistable turns on to actuate an alarm at a temperature of 130°F. The bistable has a 5°F deadband, or neutral zone ___ |
| 64 | A temperature controller uses a bistable that turns on to actuate a warning light when the controlled temperature reaches a high setpoint ___ |
| 65 | The bistable turns on to actuate an alarm at a system pressure of 100 psig ___ |
| 66 | A temperature controller uses a bistable that turns on to actuate a warning light when the controlled temperature reaches a low setpoint ___ |
| 67 | The orientation of the bistable symbol indicates the characteristics of the bistable, as is normal for a control circuit diagram. The bistable turns on to actuate an alarm at a system pressure of 100 psig ___ |
| 68 | The orientation of the bistable symbol indicates the characteristics of the bistable, as is normal for a control circuit diagram ___ |
| 69 | The temperature of the water in a small outside storage tank is controlled by a set of heaters submerged in the tank ___ |
| 70 | The level in a tank is controlled by an automatic control system. Level is initially at its setpoint ___ |
| 71 | A proportional-derivative controller senses an increase in the controlled parameter above the controller setpoint ___ |
| 72 | A direct-acting proportional-integral controller receives input from a direct-acting transmitter ___ |
| 73 | Refer to the drawing of a 30-foot water storage tank and its level control system ___ |
| 74 | Refer to the drawing of a water storage tank with an automatic level control system. The level control system has the following characteristics ___ |
| 75 | Refer to the drawing of a water storage tank with an automatic level control system. The level control system uses a reverse-acting level sensor and a direct-acting controller ___ |
| 76 | Refer to the logic diagram for a valve controller. Which one of the following combinations of flow rate (F), level (L), pressure (P), and temperature (T) input conditions will result in the valve receiving a CLOSE signal ___ |
| 77 | Refer to the drawing of a flow control valve (see figure below) located in the makeup water supply line to a water storage tank ___ |
| 78 | Refer to the drawing of a water storage tank and level control system (see figure below) that have just been returned to service following replacement of the drain valve actuator ___ |
| 79 | Given; A reverse-acting proportional pneumatic controller will be used to maintain level in a water storage tank by positioning an air-operated flow control valve in the tanks drain line ___ |
| 80 | Refer to the logic diagram for a valve controller ___ |
| 81 | Which one of the following is a characteristic that applies to a proportional-only controller, but not to a proportional-integral controller ___ |
| 82 | A proportional controller is being used to control the water level in a tank. Initially, the controller input and output signals are both stable at 50 percent of their full range ___ |
| 83 | A proportional controller is being used to control the water level in a tank |
| 84 | The water level in a tank is being controlled by an automatic level controller using proportional-only control as shown in the figure below ___ |
| 85 | Refer to the drawing of a flow control valve that is located in the makeup water supply line to a water storage tank ___ |
| 86 | A proportional controller is being used to control the water level in a tank ___ |
| 87 | The level in a condensate collection tank is being controlled by an automatic level controller using proportional-only control ___ |
| 88 | Given a direct-acting proportional pneumatic controller will be used to maintain level in a water storage tank by positioning an air-operated flow control valve in the tanks makeup water supply line ___ |
| 89 | Refer to the drawing of a lube oil temperature control system. A direct-acting proportional temperature controller is being used to control the heat exchanger lube oil outlet temperature ___ |
| 90 | Refer to the logic diagram for a valve controller. Which one of the following combinations of inputs will result in the valve receiving a CLOSE signal ___ |
| 91 | Which pair of flow control valves shown below will be compatible with the controller in the above application ___ |
| 92 | A reverse-acting proportional controller will be used to maintain level in a water storage tank by positioning an air-operated makeup water flow control valve ___ |
| 93 | Refer to the valve controller logic diagram. Which one of the following combinations of inputs will result in the valve receiving an OPEN signal ___ |
| 94 | Refer to the valve controller logic diagram. Which one of the following combinations of inputs will result in the valve receiving a CLOSE signal ___ |
| 95 | The water level in a water storage tank is being controlled by an automatic bistable ___ |
| 96 | Refer to the valve controller logic diagram ___ |
| 97 | The water level in a water storage tank is being controlled by an automatic bistable level controller ___ |
| 98 | Refer to the drawing of a water storage tank with an automatic level control ___ |
| 99 | Refer to the drawing of a water storage tank with a level control system. The tank water level is being automatically controlled by a proportional-only controller with a ___ |
| 100 | Refer to the drawing of a water storage tank with an automatic level control system ___ |
| 101 | Refer to the drawing of a water storage tank with a level control system. The tank water level is being automatically controlled by a proportional-only controller with a setpoint of 50 percent ___ |
| 102 | Refer to the drawing of a water storage tank with a level control system ___ |
| 103 | The level in a drain collection tank is being controlled by an automatic level controller, and is initially stable at the controller setpoint ___ |
| 104 | The level in a water collection tank is being controlled by an automatic level controller that positions a tank drain valve ___ |
| 105 | The level in a drain collection tank is being controlled by an automatic level controller and level is initially at the controller setpoint ___ |
| 106 | The level in a drain collection tank is being controlled by an automatic level controller and is initially stable at the controller setpoint ___ |
| 107 | Which one of the following controller types is designed to control the measured parameter at the controller setpoint ___ |
| 108 | The water level in a tank is being controlled by an automatic level controller and is initially at the controller setpoint ___ |
| 109 | An emergency diesel generator (DG) is operating as the only power source connected to an emergency bus ___ |
| 110 | Consider a direct-acting proportional flow controller that is maintaining flow rate at a value that is offset from the controller’s setpoint ___ |
| 111 | Consider a direct-acting proportional flow controller that is maintaining flow rate at a value that is offset from the controller setpoint ___ |
| 112 | A flow controller has proportional, integral, and derivative control features ___ |
| 113 | In a proportional controller, the term “offset” refers to the difference between the ___ |
| 114 | An automatic flow controller is being used to position a valve in a cooling water system. The controller develops a flow error signal and then increases the magnitude of the ___ |
| 115 | Which one of the following terms is used to describe the delay between a process parameter change and the sensing of that change by the process controller ___ |
| 116 | The level in a tank is controlled by an automatic level controller ___ |
| 117 | The difference between the setpoint in an automatic controller and the steady-state value of the controlled parameter is called ___ |
| 118 | An automatic flow controller is being used to position a valve in a cooling water system ___ |
| 119 | The range of values around the setpoint of a measured variable where no action occurs in an automatic flow controller is called ___ |
| 120 | The difference between the setpoint and the measured parameter in an automatic flow controller is called ___ |
| 121 | A limit switch at-rest in a control circuit can be configured as ___ |
| 122 | Exclusive-OR gates are hybrid gates that are used to check for ___ of the inputs |
| 123 | When a binary-logic ___ gate is employed in a circuit, the logic output is HI only when all the logic inputs are LO |
| 124 | When a binary-logic Exclusive-NOR gate is employed in a circuit, When both the logic inputs are HI, the logic output is ___ |
| 125 | All control circuits are basic logic functions or combinations of logic functions. ___ logic occurs in a control line of a ladder diagram when two (or more) NC PB switches or pilot devices are connected in parallel |
| 126 | When a binary-logic Bubbled-AND gate is employed in a circuit, The logic output is LO when any logic input is ___ |
| 127 | The opening or closing of one or more pushbutton (PB) switches can be used to create ___ logic |
| 128 | When a binary-logic Exclusive-NOR gate is employed in a circuit, When either logic input is HI, the logic output is ___ |
| 129 | All control circuits are basic logic functions or combinations of logic functions. ___ logic occurs in a control line of a ladder diagram when two (or more) NO PB switches or pilot devices are connected in parallel |
| 130 | The digital NAND gate symbol is the standard digital logic ___ gate symbol |
| 131 | When a binary-logic Bubbled-AND gate is employed in a circuit, The unique logic HI output occurs only when all the logic inputs are ___ |
| 132 | When a relay-logic Wired-NAND gate utilizing only two relays is employed in a motor control circuit; The relay-logic output, taken on the common load side of the parallel-connected NC relay contacts, is ___ |
| 133 | The opening or closing of one or more control-relay contacts can be used to create ___ logic (also referred to as ___ logic) in a ladder diagram |
| 134 | When a binary-logic ___ gate is employed in a circuit, the logic output is HI when the single-logic input is LO |
| 135 | The unique switch-logic output of 120 volts, taken on the load side of the last set of series-connected NO switch contacts, occurs only when all of the switching contacts are ___ |
| 136 | When a binary-logic AND gate is employed in a circuit, The logic output is LO when any logic input is ___ |
| 137 | When a binary-logic ___ gate is employed in a circuit and when both the logic inputs are LO, or when both the logic inputs are HI, the logic output is HI |
| 138 | When a PB-switch-logic Wired-Exclusive-OR gate is employed in a motor control circuit, When either switch is activated, the PB-switch-logic output, taken at the common node forming the ___ |
| 139 | When a binary-logic ___ gate is employed in a circuit, the logic output is HI when any logic input is LO |
| 140 | When a PB-switch-logic Wired-Exclusive-NOR gate is employed in a motor control circuit, When both switches are activated, the PB-switch-logic output, taken at the common node forming the OR gate of the ___ |
| 141 | All control circuits are basic logic functions or combinations of logic functions. ___ logic occurs in a control line of a ladder diagram when two (or more) NC PB switches or pilot devices are connected in series |
| 142 | When a binary-logic ___ gate is employed in a circuit, the logic output is HI only when all the logic inputs are HI |
| 143 | When a PB-switch-logic Wired-NOT gate (wired-inverter gate) is employed in a circuit, The PB-switch-logic output, taken on the load side of the NC switch contacts, is zero volts when the switch is ___ |
| 144 | When a binary-logic ___ gate is employed in a circuit, the logic output is LO only when all the logic inputs are LO |
| 145 | The digital Exclusive-OR gate symbol is the standard digital logic ___ -gate symbol with a single chevron drawn in front of all of its inputs |
| 146 | In digital or binary logic (2-state logic), logic gates are used to decide the order or sequence of events in a control circuit ___ |
| 147 | When a binary-logic Bubbled-OR gate is employed in a circuit, The unique logic LO output occurs only when all the logic inputs are ___ |
| 148 | When a binary-logic OR gate is employed in a circuit, The logic output is HI when any logic input is ___ |
| 149 | When a binary-logic ___ gate is employed in a circuit, and when either logic input is HI, the logic output is LO |
| 150 | When a relay-logic Wired-OR gate is employed in a motor control circuit, the: The relay-logic output is 120 volts when any of the parallel switching or relay contacts are held ___ |
| 151 | When a binary-logic NAND gate is employed in a circuit, The logic output is HI when any logic input is ___ |
| 152 | The three principal types of control logic are ___ logic, as used in solid-state control such as processors or variable-speed drive controllers ___ |
| 153 | ___ volts represents either a logic-LO (low) input or a logic-LO output, while ___ volts (more common) represents a logic-HI (high) input or a logic-HI output |
| 154 | When a binary-logic ___ gate is employed in a circuit, the logic output is LO when any logic input is LO |
| 155 | Relay-contact NOR gates can be formed using either just two control relays, or with three control relays ___ |
| 156 | When a binary-logic Exclusive-OR gate is employed in a circuit, When both the logic inputs are HI, the logic output is ___ |
| 157 | The digital Bubbled-OR gate symbol is the standard digital logic ___ -gate symbol with an ___ or ___ drawn on all of its inputs |
| 158 | When a binary-logic ___ gate is employed in a circuit and when either logic input is HI, the logic output is HI |
| 159 | The digital Exclusive-NOR gate symbol is the standard digital logic ___ gate symbol with a single chevron drawn in front of all of its inputs, and an ___ drawn on the output |
| 160 | A bubbled-OR gate (inputs inverted) is logically equivalent to a ___ gate |
| 161 | When a binary-logic NOT gate (inverter gate) is employed in a circuit, The logic output is ___ when the logic input is LO |
| 162 | When two (or more) ___ relay contacts are wired in parallel in separate rungs of a ladder diagram that converge or connect to a common rung on their load side, a wired-OR gate is formed |
| 163 | When a binary-logic ___ gate is employed in a circuit and when both the logic inputs are LO, or when both the logic inputs are HI, the logic output is LO |
| 164 | All control circuits are basic logic functions or combinations of logic functions. ___ logic occurs in a control line of a ladder diagram when two (or more) NC PB switches or pilot devices are connected |
| 165 | All control circuits are basic logic functions or combinations of logic functions. ___ logic occurs in a control line of a ladder diagram when two (or more) NO PB switches or pilot devices are connected |
| 166 | When two (or more) ___ relay contacts are wired in series in the same rung (control line) of a ladder diagram, a Wired-AND gate is formed |
| 167 | Inverter relay-logic requires two control lines or rungs of a ladder diagram ___ |
| 168 | Digital logic gates work on the principle of two or more voltage inputs controlling a ___ voltage output |
| 169 | When a binary-logic NAND gate is employed in a circuit, The unique logic-LO output will occur only when all the logic inputs are ___ |
| 170 | When a binary-logic OR gate is employed in a circuit ___ |
| 171 | The switch-logic output, taken on the load side of the last set of series-connected NO switch contacts, is zero volts when any of the switching contacts are ___ |
| 172 | When a relay-logic Wired-NOT gate (wired-inverter gate) is employed in a circuit ___ |
| 173 | When a relay-logic Wired-NAND gate that utilizes three relays is employed in a motor control circuit ___ |
| 174 | A bubbled-AND gate (inputs inverted) is logically equivalent to a ___ gate |
| 175 | The digital NOR gate symbol is the standard digital logic ___ gate symbol with an ___drawn on the output |
| 176 | Relay-contact Exclusive-NOR gates can be formed using either just two control relays, or with three control relays ___ |
| 177 | More than one pushbutton station (operator’s control station) can be installed for a given control line in control circuit ___ |
| 178 | In terms of motor control, digital (or ___) logic is found in programmable controllers, variable-speed electric-motor drives, and just about all solid-state (___) control equipment |
| 179 | All control circuits are basic logic functions or combinations of logic functions ___ |
| 180 | When a relay-logic Wired-Exclusive-NOR gate, formed with the combination NC & NO contacts of two relays, is employed in a motor control circuit ___ |
| 181 | When a binary-logic NOR gate is employed in a circuit, The logic output is LO when any logic input is ___ |
| 182 | When a binary-logic NOR gate is employed in a circuit ___ |
| 183 | The acronym NAND is a contraction of the two terms ___ |
| 184 | When a binary-logic AND gate is employed in a circuit ___ |
| 185 | When a PB-switch-logic Wired-NAND gate is employed in a motor control circuit ___ |
| 186 | When a binary-logic Bubbled-OR gate is employed in a circuit ___ |
| 187 | When a relay-logic Wired-AND gate is employed in a motor control circuit ___ |
| 188 | When a binary-logic NOR gate is employed in a circuit, The unique logic-HI output will occur only when all the logic inputs are ___ |
| 189 | When a relay-logic Wired-AND gate is employed in a motor control circuit, the ___ |
| 190 | The acronym NOR is a contraction of the two terms ___ |
| 191 | When a relay-logic Wired-Exclusive-OR gate, formed with the combination NC & NO contacts of two relays, is employed in a motor control circuit, and when either controlling relay is activated, the relay-logic output ___ |
| 192 | The digital Bubbled-AND gate symbol is the standard digital logic ___ gate symbol with an ___ |
| 193 | The control contacts on a SPDT relay can be used in separate lines or rungs of the ladder diagram to control two individual functions simultaneously ___ |
| 194 | Regarding grounded or ungrounded circuit conductors, individual wires in a control circuit must colour-coded ___ |
| 195 | The acronym SPDT identifies a ___-___, ___ switch |
| 196 | In troubleshooting a motor control circuit and taking resistance measurements of a motor-starter solenoid coil. If the coil reads zero ohms, the winding is probably ___ |
| 197 | The two motors are controlled with a 3-position selector switch, the control or run status of the two motors are interlocked with the single switch ___ |
| 198 | In the basic 3-wire control circuit of a 3-phase AC induction motor that uses a full-voltage motor -starter, two individual PB switches are required; The two individual PB switches must be wired in ___ |
| 199 | The use of the ___ circuit in a 3-wire control circuit is referred to as auxiliary interlock |
| 200 | In the basic 3-wire control circuit of a 3-phase AC motor using a 3-pole electromagnetic motor -starter, two individual PB switches are required |
| 201 | When a 3-wire control consists of two PB switches wired in series, the ___ momentary PB switch is used as the interrupt or stop switch |
| 202 | The use of momentary-type selector or pushbutton switches in a ladder diagram is normally limited to ___ control |
| 203 | When wire numbering a ladder diagram, a point is a line is a point ___ |
| 204 | When the NC Stop PB switch is released and then returns to its normally-closed at-rest position, the 3-phase AC motor will remain stopped ___ |
| 205 | The ON/OFF control of an electric motor is the same as for any connected electrical load: either a switch or a set of switching contacts are used to either ___ or ___ the current flow to the motor circuit |
| 206 | When not connected to an energized circuit, the test leads of a digital multimeter act as ___ for stray voltages |
| 207 | Batteries are used in a PLC’s processor to ___ |
| 208 | Electronic components found in PLC modules ___ |
| 209 | The most commonly used programming device is a ___ |
| 210 | When placed in the ___ mode, the processor does not scan/execute the ladder program |
| 211 | For the processor module shown, Block 1 represents the ___ |
| 212 | The processor module of the PLC is where the ___ |
| 213 | The ___ of an analog I/O module specifies how accurately an analog value can be represented digitally |
| 214 | Which of the following specifications defines the number of field inputs or ___ |
| 215 | Discrete I/O modules can be classified as ___ |
| 216 | High-density I/O modules ___ |
| 217 | A ___ module is used to establish connections for the exchange of data |
| 218 | Which of the following special I/O modules would be used to ___ |
| 219 | For the PLC analog I/O control system shown, the fluid flow is controlled by ___ |
| 220 | The main element of an analog output module is ___ |
| 221 | The thermocouple shown is a ___ |
| 222 | For the thermocouple analog input module shown, shielded cable is used to ___ |
| 223 | For the block diagram of the analog PLC control shown, which part has ___ |
| 224 | Typical analog inputs and outputs can vary from ___ |
| 225 | Which of the following devices can be used for switching the ___ |
| 226 | The schematic diagram is an example of how a PLC output module is connected to ___ |
| 227 | An inductive proximity sensor is actuated by conductive and ___ |
| 228 | A small current flows through a solid-state proximity sensor even when the output is turned OFF |
| 229 | Proximity switches usually sense the presence or absence of a target by ___ |
| 230 | A selector switch is rotated to open and close contacts |
| 231 | In a magnetic motor starter, the control circuit is required to handle the full load current of the motor |
| 232 | In general, PLC output modules are designed to switch high current loads directly |
| 233 | In general, control relay contacts are designed to handle higher currents than contactors |
| 234 | A relay usually will have only one coil but a number of different contacts |
| 235 | A normally closed (NC) relay contact is closed when current flows through the coil.a |
| 236 | An electromechanical relay uses electromagnetism to operate contacts |
| 237 | Coils are output instructions |
| 238 | Ladder logic is a symbolic language |
| 239 | Contacts are output instructions |
| 240 | An internal output does not directly control an output field device |
| 241 | When there is a True logic rung path, all parallel outputs in the rung become True |
| 242 | The addressing format for inputs and outputs is standard for all PLC models |
| 243 | The rung condition and OTE instruction are false if no logical continuity path has been established |
| 244 | Both normally open and normally closed pushbuttons can be ___ |
| 245 | It takes the processor exactly the same amount of time to examine ___ |
| 246 | Misunderstanding the way the PLC scans a program can cause programming bugs |
| 247 | If any input signal changes state very quickly, it is possible that the controller may ___ |
| 248 | Scan time varies with program content and length |
| 249 | Most instructions require one word of memory |
| 250 | The user program contains the logic that controls the machine operation |
| 251 | The memory organization of a PLC is often called a memory map |
| 252 | Gear Box is used to decrease the speed and to increase the torque |
| 253 | The function block that is used to start an action after a certain time is ___ |
| 254 | A PLC consists of: inputs, CPU, and outputs |
| 255 | The logic function which produces an opposite output to its input is ___ |
| 256 | PC interface unit is used to connect PLC to computer |
| 257 | A level transmitter that checks the level of liquid in the tank is ___ |
| 258 | Soft comfort is programming software for the ___ |
| 259 | PLC stands for Programmable LOGO Controller |
| 260 | The figure shown is ___ |
| 261 | Fiber optic barrier is used to detect metal parts only |
| 262 | In the Edu Trainer all the pushbuttons are normally open ___ |
| 263 | PLC stores information in the form of bits (ON/OFF) ___ |
| 264 | An input cannot be connected to several outputs ___ |
| 265 | Which of the following is considered to be Advantage for PLC over microcontroller ___ |
| 266 | The total number of inputs for the basic is ___ |
| 267 | Solenoids, contactor coils and lamps are usually connected to ___ |
| 268 | The part that monitors the inputs and makes decisions in PLC is ___ |
| 269 | One of the following is an input device: |
| 270 | One of the following is NOT PLC manufacturer ___ |
| 271 | DM 8 expansion module provides ___ |
| 272 | Actuator is an input device that senses a physical condition |
| 273 | In PLC, “I” is used for input and “O” is used for output |
| 274 | During normal operation of the program, the accumulated value of ___ |
| 275 | Suppose the accumulated count is 60 before the Enter switch input is ___ |
| 276 | Which instruction, when true, will preset the counter to a count of zero? |
| 277 | Which instruction will cause the counter to adecrement? |
| 278 | The output Lot Full Light will be energized when the accumulated count is ___ |
| 279 | The field device that will cause the counter to increment is ___ |
| 280 | Output PL1 will be energized ___ |
| 281 | Output PL2 will be energized ___ |
| 282 | A counter is to be programmed to keep track of the number of ___ |
| 283 | The accumulated count of a CTU counter ___ |
| 284 | The accumulated count of a CTD counter ___ |
| 285 | A PLC down-counter (CTD) counter counts ___ |
| 286 | A one-shot, or transitional, contact ___ |
| 287 | Normally counters are ___ |
| 288 | For the PLC counter to reset, the counter reset rung must ___ |
| 289 | The counter RES instruction ___ |
| 290 | When the accumulated count exceeds the preset count, the ___ |
| 291 | In an up-counter, when the accumulated count exceeds ___ |
| 292 | For the counter table shown, word level addressing is ___ |
| 293 | When the up-counter reset is set to true, the following happens ___ |
| 294 | A PLC up-counter (CTU) counter counts ___ |
| 295 | Which of the following is not usually associated with a PLC counter instruction? |
| 296 | The output of a PLC counter is energized when ___ |
| 297 | The PLC counter instruction is similar to ___ |
| 298 | The counter instruction is found on ___ |
| 299 | Programmed counters can ___ |
| 300 | RES instructions are used with ___ |
| 301 | When the timing of a device is not reset on a loss of power, the timing is ___ |
| 302 | The amount of time for which a timer is programmed is ___ |
| 303 | Which instruction can best be used to turn an output coil on or ___ |
| 304 | For the programmed timers shown, the output of ___ |
| 305 | The interconnecting of timers is commonly called ___ |
| 306 | To reset a retentive timer, the ___ |
| 307 | For the program shown, the timer accumulated time is ___ |
| 308 | For the program shown, the timer starts timing when ___ |
| 309 | The type of timer program shown is ___ |
| 310 | When addressing an RES instruction, it must be addressed to: |
| 311 | Unlike the TON timer, the RTO timer requires a(n): |
| 312 | The main difference between a PLC retentive and non-retentive timer is ___ |
| 313 | The operation of a PLC retentive timer is similar to that of an: |
| 314 | The main difference between a TON and TOF timer is that the: |
| 315 | For the programmed timer circuit shown, assume the switch is ___ |
| 316 | For the programmed timer circuit shown, when the switch is initially ___ |
| 317 | For the programmed timer circuit shown, the pilot light should come on: |
| 318 | The off-delay timer (TOF) starts timing when the timer’s: |
| 319 | The on-delay timer (TON) starts timing when the timer’s: |
| 320 | For the programmed timer circuit shown, the ___ |
| 321 | For the programmed timer circuit shown the ___ |
| 322 | For the hardwired timer circuit shown, contact TD-1 is ___ |
| 323 | For the timer table shown, bit level addressing is used for: |
| 324 | For the timer circuit shown, the timer accumulated value will reset to zero whenever: |
| 325 | For the timer program shown, output D is switched ON when: |
| 326 | For the timer program shown, output C is switched ON when: |
| 327 | For the timer program shown, output B is switched ON when: |
| 328 | The on-delay timed period for the timer shown would be: |
| 329 | For the on-delay timer instruction shown the ___ |
| 330 | The timer file for SLC 500 controllers is ___ |
| 331 | Which one of the following timer parameters determines the accuracy of the timer? |
| 332 | Which one of the following timer parameters represents the value that increments ___ |
| 333 | Which one of the following timer parameters determines the time duration for the timing circuit? |
| 334 | In the hardwired circuit shown, the light will stay on ___ |
| 335 | The relay contact drawn is designed to operate so ___ |
| 336 | Certain contacts of a mechanical timing relay are designed to ___ |
| 337 | Counters can count past their preset values |
| 338 | Up and down counters may be programmed together to count up and down |
| 339 | A counter’s input signal can come from an external device such as a sensor |
| 340 | A counter instruction is an input instruction |
| 341 | Encoder pulses can be counted to measure distance |
| 342 | The counter number C5:4 represents counter file 5, counter 4 in that file |
| 343 | The counter accumulated value is the current count based on the ___ |
| 344 | The counter enable bit is true whenever the counter instruction is false |
| 345 | The counter reset (RES) instruction, it is always given the same address as ___ |
| 346 | All up-counters count only to their preset values, and additional counts ___ |
| 347 | In normal use, the down-counter is used in conjunction with the up-counter to ___ |
| 348 | A down-counter output instruction will decrement by 1 each time the ___ |
| 349 | A transitional off-to-on contact will allow logic continuity for one scan and ___ |
| 350 | All PLC manufacturers require the reset rung or line to be ___ |
| 351 | Some PLC counters operate on the leading edge of the input signal |
| 352 | PLC counters are normally non-retentive |
| 353 | The output of the counter is energized whenever the accumulated count is ___ |
| 354 | Counters are similar to timers, except that they do not operate on an internal clock |
| 355 | Every PLC model offers some form of ___ |
| 356 | Programmed counters can serve the same function as ___ |
| 357 | A TOF timer starts to accumulate time when the rung makes ___ |
| 358 | A TOF timer starts to accumulate time when the rung becomes ___ |
| 359 | An RTO timer retains the present accumulated value when ___ |
| 360 | Timers can be retentive or non-retentive ___ |
| 361 | A timer’s delay time equals the value in the ACC multiplied by ___ |
| 362 | A RES (reset) instruction must be used to ___ |
| 363 | The accumulated time of a TOF timer is reset by causing ___ |
| 364 | The instantaneous contacts of a timer have no ___ |
| 365 | Retentive timers lose the accumulated time every time ___ |
| 366 | A retentive timer must be completely timed out to ___ |
| 367 | Normally, the reset input to a timer will override the control input of ___ |
| 368 | When a time-delay period longer than the maximum preset time allowed for ___ |
| 369 | A lamp is to be switched off 10 s after a switch has been switched from ___ |
| 370 | An alarm is to be switched on whenever a piping system has ___ |
| 371 | The retentive timer reset (RES) instruction is always given the same address ___ |
| 372 | Timer instructions are found on all PLCs manufactured ___ |
| 373 | PLC timers are input instructions that provide the same functions as ___ |
| 374 | For the timer relay contact shown, when the relay coil is energized, there is a time ___ |
| 375 | For the timer relay contact shown, when the relay coil is de-energized, there is a ___ |
| 376 | For the timer relay contact shown, when the relay coil is de-energized, there is ___ |
| 377 | For the timer relay contact shown, when the relay coil is ___ |
| 378 | In predictive maintenance of DCS, maintenance is ___ |
| 379 | In preventative maintenance of DCS, maintenance is ___ |
| 380 | In reactive maintenance of DCS, maintenance is ___ |
| 381 | Graphics builder can be used to create ___ |
| 382 | Which is false regarding Graphics Builder? |
| 383 | DCS is suitable for ___ |
| 384 | A tree in control builder can be of ___ |
| 385 | Which of these layers is present in AS INTERFACE? |
| 386 | Which of these layers is not present in Device net? |
| 387 | Devicenet has ___ |
| 388 | AS Interface has ___ |
| 389 | In Devicenet, the communication is ___ |
| 390 | In AS Interface, the communication is ___ |
| 391 | In AS Interface, AS stands for ___ |
| 392 | When the triac is in the OFF state ___ |
| 393 | The purpose of the triac switch is to ___ |
| 394 | The input signal to the module comes from ___ |
| 395 | The schematic diagram shown is of a(n) ___ |
| 396 | For the block diagram of the output module shown, the input comes from ___ |
| 397 | The purpose of the optical isolator is to ___ |
| 398 | The purpose of the LED indicator is to ___ |
| 399 | The purpose of the zener diode is to ___ |
| 400 | The schematic diagram shown is that of a(n) ___ |
| 401 | For the block diagram of the input module ___ |
| 402 | For the I/O module shown, the arrows point to the ___ |
| 403 | The Allen-Bradley SLC-500 address O:3/0 refers to an ___ |
| 404 | The Allen-Bradley SLC-500 address I:2/4 refers to an ___ |
| 405 | The PLC chassis comes in different sizes according to the ___ |
| 406 | The I/O system provides an interface between ___ |
| 407 | Status indicators are provided on each output of an output module to indicate that the ___ |
| 408 | Which of the following is not a function of a PLC programming device? |
| 409 | In event of a power interruption, a ___ |
| 410 | The most common form of memory used to store, back up, or transfer PLC ___ |
| 411 | ___ is a type of memory commonly used for temporary storage of data |
| 412 | ___ memory is used by the PLC’s operating system |
| 413 | Volatile memory elements can be classified as those that ___ |
| 414 | The “ON state input voltage range” specification refers to ___ |
| 415 | Which of the following input field devices would most likely be used with ___ |
| 416 | Individual outputs of a typical AC output interface module usually have ___ |
| 417 | The following statement that does not apply to the optical isolator circuit used in ___ |
| 418 | A discrete output interface module is designed to provide ___ |
| 419 | The location of a specific input or output field device is identified by ___ |
| 420 | One function of a PLC input interface module is to ___ |
| 421 | A/An ___ input or output is a continuously variable signal within a designated range |
| 422 | A ___ is an example of an actuator that could be controlled by a discrete output from a PLC |
| 423 | A ____ is an example of a device that could be used to provide a discrete input to a PLC |
| 424 | Which of the following is not a factor effecting the memory size needed for a particular PLC installation? |
| 425 | A control management PLC application normally requires a ___ |
| 426 | PLC software that runs on a personal computer can be used to ___ |
| 427 | I/Os are typical of small PLCs that come in one package with no ___ |
| 428 | Which module of the PLC connects directly to field devices such as ___ |
| 429 | Which module of the PLC is responsible for performing logical operations? |
| 430 | The PLC power supply module normally is rated to provide the power for ___ |
| 431 | For there to be is a continuous logic path from left to right across the rung ___ |
| 432 | The diagram below is that of a ___ |
| 433 | In order to energize the starter coil ___ |
| 434 | The diagram shown is that of a ___ |
| 435 | The devices connected to the terminals would be classified as ___ |
| 436 | Voltage that would be present between the DC common and terminal 4 with ___ |
| 437 | The diagram shown is a ___ |
| 438 | Block No. 6 of the PLC block diagram represents the ___ |
| 439 | Block No. 4 of the PLC block diagram represents the ___ |
| 440 | Block No. 3 of the PLC block diagram represents the ___ |
| 441 | Block No. 2 of the PLC block diagram represents the ___ |
| 442 | Block No.1 of the PLC block diagram represents the ___ |
| 443 | Programmable logic controllers are categorized according to ___ |
| 444 | A human machine interface ___ |
| 445 | Unlike personal computers, PLCs are ___ |
| 446 | The scan time is the time required ___ |
| 447 | At the start of the PLC scan the ___ |
| 448 | When a field device contact connected to the input module closes ___ |
| 449 | The symbol in a ladder logic diagram represents a ___ |
| 450 | The symbol in a ladder logic diagram is ___ |
| 451 | The programming device must be connected to the controller ___ |
| 452 | The programming device ___ |
| 453 | The control plan stored in the PLC is called ___ |
| 454 | The power required to operate the logic circuits of the processor unit is typically ___ |
| 455 | Field or real-world devices refer to ___ |
| 456 | The output interface module connects to ___ |
| 457 | PLC proprietary architecture ___ |
| 458 | The central processing unit ___ |
| 459 | The main difference between a PLC and relay control system is that ___ |
| 460 | Which of the following is not an advantage that PLCs offer over the conventional ___ |
| 461 | Modifying relay-type process control circuits usually involves changing the ___ |
| 462 | Basically, the function of a PLC is to ___ |
| 463 | PLCs were originally designed as replacements for ___ |
| 464 | The sum of the backplane current drawn for all modules in a chassis ___ |
| 465 | Digital modules are also called discrete modules |
| 466 | Light is used in I/O modules to separate the real-world electrical signals |
| 467 | Discrete means that each input or output has two states: true (on) or false (off) |
| 468 | HMI screens are developed using a software package on a PC ___ |
| 469 | Hot swappable I/O modules are designed to be changed ___ |
| 470 | If you had a hand-held programming terminal from one manufacturer ___ |
| 471 | One advantage of discrete relay contact output modules is that they can be ___ |
| 472 | Most PLC electronic components are not sensitive to electrostatic discharge |
| 473 | A redundant PLC system is configured using two processors |
| 474 | A module inserted into the wrong slot could be damaged |
| 475 | I/O modules are normally installed or removed while the PLC is powered |
| 476 | A modular PLC that has room for several I/O modules, is capable of being customized for a particular application |
| 477 | Analog signals can have only two states |
| 478 | Most PLC programming software will allow you to develop programs on another manufacturer’s PLC |
| 479 | When a new program is loaded into a PLC’s memory, the old program that was ___ |
| 480 | Information stored in a RAM memory location can be written into or read from |
| 481 | RAM memory is nonvolatile |
| 482 | A nonvolatile memory will retain its programmed contents if operating power is lost |
| 483 | A volatile memory will lose its programmed contents if operating power is lost |
| 484 | Memory is where the control plan is held or stored in the controller |
| 485 | The processor may perform functions such as timing, counting, and comparing ___ |
| 486 | Electrical noise usually causes permanent operating errors |
| 487 | Shielded twisted pair cable is used for connecting to thermocouple inputs ___ |
| 488 | A thermocouple would be classified as an analog input sensing device |
| 489 | The maximum current rating for the individual outputs of an AC output module ___ |
| 490 | I/O modules are keyed to prevent unauthorized personnel from removing them from the I/O rack |
| 491 | Optical isolation used in I/O modules helps to reduce the effects of electrical noise |
| 492 | I/O modules are designed to plug into a slot or connector |
| 493 | Most input modules have blown fuse indicators |
| 494 | An analog input or output is a signal that varies continuously within a certain range |
| 495 | The number of I/O points does not affect the memory size required for a PLC installation |
| 496 | When dealing with PLC memory, one K of memory represents 1024 |
| 497 | The instruction set for a particular PLC lists the types of instructions supported |
| 498 | Software installed and run on a personal computer can be used to write a PLC program |
| 499 | Removing the programming device from the PLC will not affect the operation of the user program |
| 500 | A PLC power supply module does not normally supply power to the field devices |
| 501 | One disadvantage of modular I/O is its lack of flexibility |
| 502 | The programmable controller operates in real time |
| 503 | A PLC is basically a computer designed for use in electrical control applications |
| 504 | PLC systems usually require as much space in an enclosure ___ |
| 505 | The programming device must be connected to the controller to run the program |
| 506 | A personal computer communicates with the PLC processor ___ |
| 507 | Plug-in compartments allow I/O modules to be easily connected and replaced |
| 508 | The input/output system forms the interfaces through which field devices ___ |
| 509 | The scan time is the time required for one complete execution of au |
| 510 | In a PLC system, there is a physical connection between field input devices ___ |
| 511 | The number and type of I/Os cannot be changed in a fixed PLC.aut |
| 512 | When both LS1 and LS2 are actuated ___ |
| 513 | With reference to the circuit and equivalent PLC program, when ___ |
| 514 | Rung 2 will be True whenever ___ |
| 515 | For the program shown, what is the address of the instruction associated with ___ |
| 516 | For the programmed latching operation shown, which two instructions must have ___ |
| 517 | The purpose of the M contact shown in the circuit is ___ |
| 518 | All servo motors ___ |
| 519 | A(n) ____ converts electrical pulses applied to it into discrete rotor movements |
| 520 | Solenoid valves are available to control ___ |
| 521 | An actuator is a device that ___ |
| 522 | A tachometer normally refers to a(n) ___ |
| 523 | A thermocouple, when heated ___ |
| 524 | For the photoelectric sensor part 1 is the ___ |
| 525 | The light sensor shown would be classified as a ___ |
| 526 | The most common actuator for a reed switch is ___ |
| 527 | Most proximity switches come equipped with an LED status indicator to ___ |
| 528 | The symbol shown below is ___ |
| 529 | The symbol shown below is that for ___auto |
| 530 | The symbol shown below is that ___ |
| 531 | The application shown is a typical application for ___ |
| 532 | The symbol shown is that ___ |
| 533 | The symbol shown is that for ___ |
| 534 | The symbol shown is that for a ___ |
| 535 | The device represented by the symbol is ___ |
| 536 | The pushbutton symbol shown, would be classified as ___ |
| 537 | The abbreviations NO (normally open) and NC (normally closed) represent the ___ |
| 538 | In the motor starter circuit shown, the main contacts M are ___ |
| 539 | In the hardwired relay control circuit shown, when the switch is ___ |
| 540 | In the relay shown, the coil would be considered to be ___ |
| 541 | A normally open limit switch is wired to an input module, and programmed using ___ |
| 542 | Each complete horizontal line of a ladder diagram is generally referred to as ___ |
| 543 | Parallel connections of ladder logic are typically called ___ |
| 544 | When a program rung consists of an output instruction only, the output would then ___ |
| 545 | The highlighted rungs in the program rung shown indicate ___ |
| 546 | The address I:1/3 identifies an input module residing in ___ |
| 547 | The Boolean equation for the logic represented in the ___ |
| 548 | For the matrix limitation diagram shown, the maximum number of parallel rows allowed is ___ |
| 549 | The most likely module address for LS1 is ___ |
| 550 | For the program shown, instruction A represents an ___ |
| 551 | The ____ instructions always interpret a 1 status as true and a 0 status as false |
| 552 | The Examine If Closed instruction ___ |
| 553 | The PLC program shown is a ___ |
| 554 | The actual scan time is ___ |
| 555 | The two types of patterns used to accomplish the scan function are ___ |
| 556 | The output data is sent to the ___ |
| 557 | For the scan process shown, the input data is provided by the ___ |
| 558 | The scan is normally a sequential process of ___ |
| 559 | For the input module shown, the data stored in the word corresponding to ___ |
| 560 | Find the correct choice ___ |
| 561 | The address for the point on the I/O module shown would be: |
| 562 | The memory organization of a PLC can be divided into two broad categories? |
| 563 | The status bit of switches and pushbuttons connected to a PLC are stored in the: |
| 564 | The will account for most of the total memory of a give PLC system |
| 565 | Hysteresis for sensors means that there is an on point and a separate off point |
| 566 | A thru-beam sensor has the shortest sensing range of the three types of photo sensors |
| 567 | Strain gages are used for pressure/force sensing |
| 568 | Digital sensors are sometimes called discrete sensors because there are two discrete ___ |
| 569 | There is more than one correct way to implement the ladder logic for a given control process |
| 570 | The programmed latching relay instruction is retentive; that is, if the relay is latched, it will unlatch if power is ___ |
| 571 | Latching relays are used when it is necessary for contacts to stay ___ |
| 572 | All servo motors operate in open loop |
| 573 | Fiber optic sensor systems are completely immune to all forms ___ |
| 574 | Encoders are used in applications where positions have to be precisely determined |
| 575 | Reed switches are activated by magnetism |
| 576 | Weight strain gauges operate by detecting small changes in temperature |
| 577 | Ultrasonic sensors operate using high-frequency light waves |
| 578 | Changes to dual-in-line (DIP) package switch settings are made mainly during installation |
| 579 | A through-beam photoelectric sensor is used to detect the light beam reflected from ___ |
| 580 | LED light sources used in photoelectric sensors normally emit a continuous beam of light |
| 581 | For the 24-hour clock program, assume the accumulated count of ___ |
| 582 | For the 24-hour clock program, Rung 003 undergoes a ___ |
| 583 | For the 24-hour clock program, a false-to-true transition of ___ |
| 584 | For the 24-hour clock program, RTO is preset for ___ |
| 585 | For the 24-hour clock program, Counter C5:0 is preset for ___ |
| 586 | For the 24-hour clock program, Counter C5:1 is preset for ___ |
| 587 | The 24-hour clock program shown uses ___ |
| 588 | When input PB2 is actuated ___ |
| 589 | If you wanted output PL to go on after a count of 40,000, you would ___ |
| 590 | When output PL is energized, how many counts have occurred? |
| 591 | Output PL will be energized when ___ |
| 592 | Counter C5:1 starts counting ___ |
| 593 | The counter program shown is designed to ___ |
| 594 | The figure shown illustrates the operation of ___ |
| 595 | The counter file for SLC 500 controllers is ___ |
| 596 | Assume the accumulated count is 100 and the following order of ___ |
| 597 | Which of these is false about group display? |
| 598 | Tuning display is display at which level? |
| 599 | XY Operating display is display at which level? |
| 600 | Batch control display is display at which level? |
| 601 | Which of these is not an Area Level Display? |
| 602 | The level of display that gives overall picture of ___ |
| 603 | Which level of display has access to area level display? |
| 604 | Which is true w.r.to DCS DISPLAYS? |
| 605 | Control Graphics display is used for ___ |
| 606 | Graphics display is used for ___ |
| 607 | At which level of display, control is ___ |
| 608 | Tuning display is used for ___ |
| 609 | The display that can be used for control functions is ___ |
| 610 | The display that shows variation of a ___ |
| 611 | The display that resembles a ___ |
| 612 | A general purpose computer can be interfaced to ___ |
| 613 | HMI can be connected to ___ |
| 614 | System documentation can be ___ |
| 615 | Indicator stations, control stations are part of which configuration? |
| 616 | Keyboard, Touch Screen are part of which configuration? |
| 617 | Console arrangement is ___ |
| 618 | System configuration can be ___ |
| 619 | HLEI stands for ___ |
| 620 | LLEI stands for ___ |
| 621 | HLHI stands for ___ |
| 622 | LLHI stands for ___ |
| 623 | Operator interface allows the ___ |
| 624 | Geographically Distributed Control Configuration is ___ |
| 625 | Geographically Centralized Control Configuration is ___ |
| 626 | The interface that is geographically far away from ___ |
| 627 | The interface that is geographically close to ___ |
| 628 | CRT and latest display technologies are ___ |
| 629 | Panel board instruments are found in ___ |
| 630 | Low level interface is connected to ___ |
| 631 | Human Interface in a ___ |
| 632 | All systems in a DCS are connected by ___ |
| 633 | LCU Configuration C supports ____ digital inputs |
| 634 | LCU Configuration C supports ____ analog inputs |
| 635 | LCU Configuration C uses ___ |
| 636 | Control output security in LCU Configuration C is ___ |
| 637 | The implementation of LCU configuration C requires ___ |
| 638 | LCU Configuration C supports ___ |
| 639 | LCU Configuration B supports ___ digital inputs |
| 640 | LCU Configuration B supports ___ analog inputs |
| 641 | LCU Configuration A supports ___ digital inputs |
| 642 | LCU Configuration A supports ___ |
| 643 | LCU Configuration B uses ___ |
| 644 | Control output security in LCU Configuration B is ___ |
| 645 | The implementation of LCU configuration B requires ___ |
| 646 | LCU Configuration B supports ___ |
| 647 | LCU Configuration A uses ___ |
| 648 | Control output security in LCU Configuration A is ___ |
| 649 | The implementation of ___ |
| 650 | LCU Configuration A ___ |
| 651 | Control output security in LCU is ___ |
| 652 | The parameter not considered for selecting a controller is ___ |
| 653 | The processing element in DCS is ___ |
| 654 | The work of LCU is/ are ___ |
| 655 | Which of the following is not applicable to Functional block programming? |
| 656 | To make the LCU easily programmable without being a ___ |
| 657 | Flexibility in changing the control configuration is ___ |
| 658 | The processing element in ___ |
| 659 | Which of the following is not applicable to ___ |
| 660 | The work of LCU is ___ |
| 661 | LCU is responsible for ___ |
| 662 | LCU for DCS is like ___ |
| 663 | LCU stands for ___ |
| 664 | Which is not applicable for central computer architecture? |
| 665 | In central computer architecture, plant management function is ___ |
| 666 | In central computer architecture, plant level or ___ |
| 667 | Which is not applicable for hybrid system architecture? |
| 668 | Operator interfacing at plant management level is provided in ___ |
| 669 | In hybrid architecture, plant management function is ___ |
| 670 | Plant level Operator interfacing is provided in ___ |
| 671 | In hybrid architecture, plant level or field level control is ___ |
| 672 | Hybrid architecture is combination of ___ |
| 673 | In a DCS ___ |
| 674 | Which of the following is not applicable to DCS? |
| 675 | DCS was introduced by which company? |
| 676 | DCS was introduced in ___ |
| 677 | DCS stands for ___ |
| 678 | Mode of control wherein the controller has only two operating states ___ |
| 679 | A servo system is defined as which of the following types of control systems? |
| 680 | A ___ is a device which can test all pins of an IC at the same time |
| 681 | Perform binary subtraction to 6 ¼ and 4 ½ would result to ___ |
| 682 | A translated program in machine language is called ___ |
| 683 | Which of the following is not a dynamic test instrument? |
| 684 | An analog memory output circuit used to eliminate aperture error is called a ___ |
| 685 | Find out the correct solution for the sum ___ |
| 686 | A logic circuit that depends on the status of its selected inputs will channel its data input to one of several data outputs ___ |
| 687 | A circuit made up of combinations of logic gates, with no feedback from output to input ___ |
| 688 | Arrival of a clock signal at the clock inputs of different flip-flops at different times as a result of propagation delays ___ |
| 689 | Instruction mnemonic means ___ |
| 690 | What device puts data on the data bus during a write operation? |
| 691 | What is an operand address? |
| 692 | Which of the items below is not one of the three major sections of an MPU? |
| 693 | What is meant by interfacing in a computer system? |
| 694 | Meaning of checksum in ROM’s ___ |
| 695 | What is the function of the comparator in the ADC? |
| 696 | Why are voltage DAC’s generally slower than current DAC’s? |
| 697 | The time it takes for the DAC output to settle to within ½ step size of its full scale value when the digital input changes from zero to full scale ___ |
| 698 | The maximum deviation of DAC output from its ideal value, expressed as percentage of full scale ___ |
| 699 | An actuator in the DAC ___ |
| 700 | What does a computer do with the data it receives from an ADC? |
| 701 | It converts a non-electrical physical quantity to an electrical quantity ___ |
| 702 | How many flip-flops are required for a counter that will count 0 to 255? |
| 703 | What is the frequency of the flip-flop output waveform? |
| 704 | What is the major advantage of serial transfer over parallel transfer? |
| 705 | The fastest method for transferring data from one register to another is the ___ |
| 706 | Which type of flip-flop is best suited for synchronous transfer because it requires the fewest interconnections from one flip-flop to the other? |
| 707 | The triangle inside the rectangle which is part of the IEEE/ANSI symbol at clock input ___ |
| 708 | How does the operation of asynchronous input differ from that of a synchronous input? |
| 709 | What JK input condition will always set Q upon the occurrence of the active clock transition? |
| 710 | It is the required interval immediately following the active edge held of clocks during which the control inputs must be held ___ |
| 711 | It is the required interval immediately following the active edge of the clock signal during which the control inputs must be held stable ___ |
| 712 | The flip-flop can change only when the appropriate clock transition occurs ___ |
| 713 | What two types of inputs that a clocked flip-flop has? |
| 714 | When a flip-flop is set, what are the states of Q and Q’? |
| 715 | When power is first applied to any flip-flop circuit, it is impossible to predict the initial state of Q and Q’ ___ |
| 716 | What will be the states of Q and Q’ after a flip-flop has been cleared? |
| 717 | What is the normal resting state of the SET and CLEAR inputs in a flip-flop ___ |
| 718 | The most important memory element which is made of an assembly of logic gates is called ___ |
| 719 | Low speed modems generally handle data rates between ___ |
| 720 | Low speed modems method of modulation is usually ___ |
| 721 | High speed modems transmit between ___ |
| 722 | Speeds of modems are generally classified by the number of ___ they can transmit |
| 723 | A command to an ADC to start conversion ___ |
| 724 | The system program used to translate directly an assembly language to machine language is called ___ |
| 725 | With a ___ , a processor can store data at ay address and read back the stored information at any time |
| 726 | Which of the following is a non-volatile device? |
| 727 | Processors with more than two registers for arithmetic and logical operations are classified as ___ |
| 728 | The processor or central processing unit is ___ |
| 729 | Text editors and formatters belong to the area of computing known as ___ |
| 730 | It is needed to translate a high-level program into a sequence of machine instructions that performs the desired task ___ |
| 731 | It represents machine instructions by mnemonic names and allows memory addresses and other constants to be represented by symbols rather than bit strings ___ |
| 732 | The most primitive instructions that can be given to a computer are those interpreted directly by the hardware in ___ form |
| 733 | The data manipulated by a program is called ___ depending on its nature and extent |
| 734 | It consists of the instructions and data that the computer hardware manipulates to perform useful work ___ |
| 735 | Which of the following items below is not a part of the hardware organization in a computer? |
| 736 | How many logic gates are in a VLSI chip? |
| 737 | How many logic gates are in an MSI chip? |
| 738 | How many logic gates are in an SSI chip? |
| 739 | What is the condition of the flip-flop when Q = 0 and Q’ = 1? |
| 740 | The number of digits used by a number system ___ |
| 741 | A T flip-flop can be derived by ___ |
| 742 | An RS flip-flop will not change in state when ___ |
| 743 | A digital circuit test equipment which is a troubleshooting tool that generates a short- duration pulse when activated manually, usually by pressing the button is the ___ |
| 744 | A JK flip-flop will operate in the toggle mode when ___ |
| 745 | Quad 2-input XOR gates in the 7400 Family of TTL devices has a device number equivalent to ___ |
| 746 | What capital letter corresponds to 1000101 in the ASCII code? |
| 747 | What binary number follows 1110? |
| 748 | How many bits are in a byte? |
| 749 | What digits are used in the binary number system? |
| 750 | Which of the following does not form DACs? |
| 751 | Which of the items below can perform parallel-to-serial data conversion? |
| 752 | Another name for a decade counter ___ |
| 753 | A logic circuit that is triggered by a clock signal is ___ |
| 754 | A multiwire connection between digital circuits is usually called a ___ |
| 755 | The most commonly used IC package for digital integrated circuits is the ___ |
| 756 | Typical propagation delay range for modern digital integrated circuits is ___ |
| 757 | Noise margin, which is one indication of how likely it is that information communicated between digital building blocks will be incorrect due to noise, depends on ___ |
| 758 | The fan out capability of a digital building block depends on the current capability of its output and the current requirement of each input driven by that output, and maybe defined as the ___ |
| 759 | In the data sheet of a digital building block, operating speed is typically expressed in terms of ___ |
| 760 | TTL, DTL and ECL which are frequently used to refer to certain “families†of digital integrated circuits, are actually names of ___ |
| 761 | If a certain circuit acts as AND gate when used with positive logic (H = 1, L = 0), what function will it perform when used with negative logic (H = 0, L = 1) ___ |
| 762 | In a computer system, it is a unit of hardware where the control keys are located ___ |
| 763 | Refer to the debugging method in which the program is executed one instruction at a time and the register contents can be examined after each step? |
| 764 | A single word memory location used to temporarily hold data during program execution ___ |
| 765 | A program which can be executed on several different computers to compare their speed and performance ___ |
| 766 | Which of the following is the language used in making an internet web page? |
| 767 | A representation of numbers when negative numbers are obtained by complementing their positive equivalent and adding 1 ___ |
| 768 | This occurs when the result of an arithmetic operation is a larger number than the output register can accommodate ___ |
| 769 | This occurs when the result of an arithmetic operation is a more negative number than the output register can accommodate ___ |
| 770 | An instruction that causes data in the accumulator to be moved to the memory or a peripheral register ___ |
| 771 | The portion of an instruction cycle where the instruction is sent from memory to the instruction register ___ |
| 772 | An instruction that causes data to be brought from memory into an accumulator register ___ |
| 773 | An instruction that alters the normal course of a program by causing it to jump to another instruction ___ |
| 774 | An IC that transforms parallel data to serial in the asynchronous format and vice versa ___ |
| 775 | An area of memory that holds the ASCII characters that are being displayed on a monitor ___ |
| 776 | A system of coordinating I/O between the transmitting and receiving devices ___ |
| 777 | From a 3-bit binary counter design using T flip-flops, determine the number of T flip- flops needed in its circuit implementation ___ |
| 778 | How many AND gates and 4-bit binary adders are needed to implement a 2-bit to 3-bit binary multiplier? |
| 779 | In designing a 16 x 1 multiplexer, how many selection lines are needed? |
| 780 | An included input terminals in a magnitude comparator IC which is significant when both inputs compared are equal is called as its ___ |
| 781 | A magnitude comparator has ___ |
| 782 | An n-bit binary parallel adder requires ___ in its least design |
| 783 | A flip-flop which follows its input in the next state ___ |
| 784 | It is said to be a universal gate because any digital system can be implemented with it ___ |
| 785 | The state of the flip-flop after the occurrence of a clock pulse is called as its ___ |
| 786 | The state of the flip-flop before the occurrence of a clock pulse is called as its ___ |
| 787 | A block added to the combinational logic circuit to form a sequential logic circuit is the ___ |
| 788 | A sequential logic circuit where the storage elements commonly used are time-delay devices (usually gates) ___ |
| 789 | There are ___ flip-flops for a 3-bit binary counter |
| 790 | Correcting the faults in a circuit or a system ___ |
| 791 | A preproduction model of a system built for testing and debugging, ___ |
| 792 | A register which holds the data being written into or read out of the addressed memory location ___ |
| 793 | A register which holds the address of the word currently being accessed ___ |
| 794 | This bus carries lines that control the operation of the memory from the microprocessor to the memory ___ |
| 795 | This type of bus carries the memory address from the computer to the memory ___ |
| 796 | A programmable block of logic within a gate array, that contains a flip-flop for storage and also allows the user to specify logic functions on its inputs ___ |
| 797 | A table used by a PLD language such as PALASM, to calculate the expected outputs for a set of inputs ___ |
| 798 | A type of computer bus which is bidirectional ___ |
| 799 | A computer language that enables Programmable Array Logic (PAL) users to generate a file that can be used to blow a PAL ___ |
| 800 | An outstanding advantage of LCDs from LEDs ___ |
| 801 | Application of excessive current to a fuse in order to open it ___ |
| 802 | A circuit that goes through 2n-1 states in a random fashion ___ |
| 803 | A ring counter where the output is inverted and tied back to the input ___ |
| 804 | An input signal that can activate or disable a gate ___ |
| 805 | In clock circuits, SWG means ___ |
| 806 | Which of the following does not describe a flip-flop? |
| 807 | The one-input RS flip-flop is the ___ flip-flop |
| 808 | A JK flip-flop can be made to function like a T flip-flop by simply ___ |
| 809 | A one-input JK flip-flop is the ___ flip-flop |
| 810 | A ___ condition that exists if a circuit output depends on which of two nearly simultaneous inputs arrive at a point in the circuit first |
| 811 | The time difference which results when a clock may not arrive at all flip-flops at precisely the same time ___ |
| 812 | How many flip-flops should be used to realize 32-count capacity ___ |
| 813 | A state causing the flip-flop to change or reverse its state ___ |
| 814 | The state of a flip=flop when Q = 1 and Q’ = 0 ___ |
| 815 | The state of a flip-flop when Q = 0 and Q’ = 1 ___ |
| 816 | Duty cycle for repetitive waveform is defined as the ___ |
| 817 | A circuit designed to produce a clean output in response to a switch closure ___ |
| 818 | A square wave oscillator or clock generator ___ |
| 819 | A small change made in resistance or capacitance to time a circuit precisely ___ |
| 820 | A circuit that produces an output pulse for a fixed period of time in response to a trigger and then returns to its quiescent state ___ |
| 821 | A counter that counts sequentially but does not step through all possible states, it returns to zero after a particular state ___ |
| 822 | A diagram consisting of a set of circles, where each circle contains a number of states within it ___ |
| 823 | A situation in a system where it can never leave or progress to another state ___ |
| 824 | Which of the following is NOT an advantage of state tables in sequential logic circuit design? |
| 825 | A multiplexer is described by its size through ___ , where n = number of bits |
| 826 | Small circles on the input or output lines of logic circuit symbols which represent inversion of a particular signal ___ |
| 827 | A counter that counts from a maximum count downward to zero ___ |
| 828 | Asynchronous flip-flop input used to clear Q immediately to 0 ___ |
| 829 | A digital circuit that takes a 4-bit BCD input and activates the required outputs to display the equivalent decimal digit on a 7-segment display ___ |
| 830 | Circuits made up of combinations of logic gates, with no feedback from outputs to inputs ___ |
| 831 | A situation when a circuit’s output level for a given set of input conditions can be assigned as either a 1 or a 0 ___ |
| 832 | A type of multivibrator circuit which generates a square wave of its own is the ___ |
| 833 | A monostable multivibrator has ___ |
| 834 | A bistable multivibrator has ___ |
| 835 | An astable multivibrator has ___ |
| 836 | Another name for a digital multiplexer is ___ |
| 837 | A decoder with four inputs can have a maximum of how many outputs? |
| 838 | In BCD, the code 1111 is ___ |
| 839 | Data retrieval from a memory is called ___ |
| 840 | Data storage in a memory is termed as ___ |
| 841 | An equivalent Boolean equation for an exclusive NOR is ___ |
| 842 | A single bit comparator is usually implemented using ___ |
| 843 | A momentary, narrow, spurious and sharply defined change in volume ___ |
| 844 | A technique often used to eliminate decoding spikes ___ |
| 845 | A term used to describe the logic function created when open-collector outputs are tied together ___ |
| 846 | Class of mass memory devices that use a laser beam to write and read onto a specified coated disk ___ |
| 847 | A property whereby the output of a digital-to-analog converter either increases or stays the same as the input is increased ___ |
| 848 | An abbreviation that represents the op code of a computer instruction ___ |
| 849 | That part of a computer instruction that defines what type of operation the computer is to execute on specified data ___ |
| 850 | A term synonymous with CLEAR in computer systems ___ |
| 851 | A shift register in which the output of the last flip-flop is connected to the input of the first flip-flop ___ |
| 852 | A binary counter that counts from 0000 to 1001 before it recycles ___ |
| 853 | An electrical connection common to all segments of an LCD ___ |
| 854 | A digital circuit that oscillates between two unstable output states ___ |
| 855 | A result which is obtained when one is added to the least significant bit position of a binary number in the 1’s complement ___ |
| 856 | Class of programmable logic devices wherein both its AND and its OR arrays are programmable ___ |
| 857 | Class of programmable logic devices wherein its AND array is programmable while its OR array is hard-wired ___ |
| 858 | An IC that contains a large number of interconnected logic functions wherein the user can program the IC for a specific function by selectively breaking the appropriate interconnections ___ |
| 859 | A digital circuit that produces an output code depending on which of its inputs is activated ___ |
| 860 | A computer programming language in which groups of 1s and 0s are used to represent instructions ___ |
| 861 | What is the principal register of an arithmetic logic unit? |
| 862 | What are the three basic parts of a BCD adder circuit? |
| 863 | How many inputs does a half adder have? |
| 864 | How many outputs does a full adder have? |
| 865 | How many inputs does a full adder have? |
| 866 | All arithmetic operations take place in the ___ of a computer |
| 867 | Add 3AF to 23C ___ |
| 868 | Add the hex numbers 58 and 24 ___ |
| 869 | What is the normal resting state of the SET and CLEAR inputs in a NAND gate latch? |
| 870 | Which of the following does not describe a flip-flop circuit? |
| 871 | This type of fault has the same effect as an internal short between IC pins ___ |
| 872 | What will be the state of Q and Q’ after a flip-flop has been reset? |
| 873 | Which of the following is NOT an internal digital IC fault? |
| 874 | An unconnected input is termed as ___ |
| 875 | What happens when the input to a digital IC is left unconnected for TTL ICs? |
| 876 | An acceptable voltage range of a logic 1 for CMOS operating at VDD = 5 V ___ |
| 877 | An acceptable voltage range of a logic 0 for CMOS operating at VDD = 5 V ___ |
| 878 | An acceptable voltage range of a logic 1 for TTL ___ |
| 879 | An acceptable voltage range of a logic 0 for TTL ___ |
| 880 | What is the most common type of digital IC package? |
| 881 | One of the standard levels of complexity of integrated circuits which contains 100,000 and more number of gates ___ |
| 882 | What is the output of an EXOR gate when a logic signal and its exact inverse are connected to its input? |
| 883 | What graphical device is used to convert a truth table to its corresponding logic circuit in a simple and orderly process? |
| 884 | Determine the sum-of-product expression for a circuit with four inputs and an output that is HIGH only when A is low at the same time that exactly two inputs are low ___ |
| 885 | A circuit with no memory characteristic and whose output depends only on the current value of its inputs ___ |
| 886 | In Boolean algebra, X + 1 = ___ |
| 887 | In Boolean algebra, G + GF = ___ |
| 888 | How many different ways can we implement the inversion operation in a logic circuit? |
| 889 | What type of gate is equivalent to a NAND gate followed by an inverter? |
| 890 | With OR operation, 1 + 1 = ___ |
| 891 | Determine the output of the circuit x if A = 0, B = 1, C = 1 and D = 0 ___ |
| 892 | The output of an inverter is connected to the input of a second inverter ___ |
| 893 | What is the only input combination that will produce a high at the output of a five-input AND gate? |
| 894 | A circuit that operates in such a way that its output is high when all its inputs are high ___ |
| 895 | The ___ operation result will be 1 if any one or more variables is a 1 |
| 896 | The number of input combinations will equal ___ for an N-input truth table |
| 897 | A ___ takes the complete decimal number and represents it in binary |
| 898 | The most widely used 7-bit alphanumeric code is the ___ |
| 899 | The ___ belongs to a class of codes called the minimum-change codes, in which only one bit in the code group changes when going from one step to the next |
| 900 | How many bits are required to represent an eight digit decimal number in BCD? |
| 901 | Which of the following items below is NOT one of the three basic operations of Boolean algebra? |
| 902 | Convert 1000 1001 0111 (BCD) to its decimal equivalent ___ |
| 903 | Convert (B2F)16 to octal |
| 904 | BCD code has always ___ bits per number |
| 905 | Convert (614)8 to decimal ___ |
| 906 | If each digit of a decimal number is represented by its binary equivalent, the result is a code called ___ |
| 907 | Equivalent of decimal value of 178 in straight binary code is ___ and in BCD is ___ |
| 908 | What is the smallest type of computer in terms of their physical size? |
| 909 | CMOS means ___ |
| 910 | A digital circuit is also referred to as a/an ___ circuit |
| 911 | What is the largest number that can be represented using 8 bits? |
| 912 | What is the largest decimal value that can be represented using 12 bits? |
| 913 | What is the next binary number following ___ |
| 914 | What is the decimal equivalent of ___ |
| 915 | Change in state is ___ |
| 916 | The decimal system is composed of ___ numerals or symbols |
| 917 | Which of the following choices is NOT a characteristic of analog quantity? |
| 918 | Which of the following involves digital quantities? |
| 919 | A diesel generator (DG) is supplying an isolated electrical bus with the DG governor operating in the speed droop mode ___ |
| 920 | A diesel generator is supplying an isolated electrical bus with the governor operating in the isochronous mode ___ |
| 921 | Refer to the drawing of a flyball-weight mechanical speed governor ___ |
| 922 | If the turbine shaft speed signal received by a typical turbine governor control system fails high during turbine startup, the turbine governor will cause turbine speed to ___ |
| 923 | If the turbine shaft speed signal received by a typical turbine governor control system fails low during turbine startup, the turbine governor will cause turbine speed to ___ |
| 924 | An air-operated isolation valve requires 2,800 pounds-force (lbf) from its diaphragm actuator and 4 inches of stem travel for proper operation ___ |
| 925 | Which one of the following describes the operation of a typical pneumatic valve positioner ___ |
| 926 | An air-operated isolation valve requires 2,400 pounds-force applied to the top of the actuator diaphragm to open against spring pressure ___ |
| 927 | An air-operated isolation valve requires 2,400 pounds-force applied to the top of the actuator diaphragm to open ___ |
| 928 | An air-operated isolation valve requires 3,600 pounds-force applied to the top of the actuator diaphragm to open ___ |
| 929 | Which one of the following describes a characteristic of pneumatic valve positioners ___ |
| 930 | The area of the actuator diaphragm is 160 square inches. What is the approximate air pressure required for proper valve operation ___ |
| 931 | An air-operated isolation valve requires 3,600 pounds-force from its diaphragm actuator and 4 inches of stem travel for proper operation ___ |
| 932 | An air-operated isolation valve requires 3,200 pounds-force from its diaphragm actuator and 4 inches of stem travel for proper operation ___ |
| 933 | What is the purpose of a valve positioner in a typical pneumatic valve control system ___ |
| 934 | Refer to the drawing of a pneumatic control system. The purpose of the valve positioner is to convert ___ |
| 935 | The output pressure of a pneumatic controller is typically insufficient to drive a valve actuator accurately ___ |
| 936 | The temperature control system uses a direct-acting transmitter and a direct-acting proportional controller with a 20°F proportional band ___ |
| 937 | The bistable has a 5 psig deadband, or neutral zone. If system pressure is currently 98 psig, which one of the following describes the status of the alarm ___ |
| 938 | An outside water storage tank is equipped with submerged heaters. The heaters energize at minimum power when water temperature decreases to 48°F ___ |
| 939 | The orientation of the bistable symbol indicates the characteristics of the bistable, as is normal for a control circuit diagram. The bistable turns on to actuate an alarm at a temperature of 130°F ___ |
| 940 | About the Automation MCQ category |
