5000 Electrical Machines MCQ (Multiple Choice Questions)

Explore 5000+ Electrical Machines MCQ questions and answers covering DC machines, transformers, induction motors, synchronous machines, single-phase motors, special electrical machines, and industrial applications.

This MCQ collection includes objective questions related to:

• DC Machines
• Transformers
• Induction Motors
• Synchronous Machines
• Single Phase Motors
• Special Electrical Machines
• Motors and Drives
• Electrical Machine Theory
• Power Conversion
• Electrical Troubleshooting
• Industrial Applications

The questions are designed to help students, diploma holders, technicians, electrical engineers, competitive exam aspirants, and industrial professionals improve technical knowledge and problem-solving skills in Electrical Machines.

These Electrical Machines MCQs cover basic concepts, theory, practical applications, numerical problems, machine characteristics, operation principles, efficiency, performance analysis, protection methods, and industrial usage commonly discussed in technical interviews, university exams, and competitive examinations.

Browse the Electrical Machines MCQ questions below and strengthen your understanding of electrical machine fundamentals and industrial electrical systems.

5000 Electrical Machines MCQ

S.No.	Electrical Machines Question
1	In a transformer, frictional loss is ___
2	Buchholz relay is used ___
3	The iron losses of a transformer can be calculated by ___
4	A transformer having a turn ratio 1 : 5 and a resistance of 1000 ohms is ___
5	A transformer is working at its ___
6	If a transformer is switched on to a voltage more than ___
7	Which of the following is the most likely source of harmonics in a transformer?
8	A good voltage regulation of a transformer means ___
9	Which of the following is not the standard voltage for power supply in India?
10	The secondary winding of which of the following transformers is always kept closed?
11	When secondary of a current transformer is open-circuited its ___
12	Two transformers are connected in ___
13	Harmonics in transformer result in ___
14	The primary winding of a Schrage motor is ___
15	Torque development in a dc motor depends on ___
16	The flux leakage coefficient in dc machine is ___
17	A flywheel is employed with a dc compound motor to reduce the peak demand, the ___
18	A separately excited dc generator is ___
19	When the direction of power flow in a differential compounded motor ___
20	Which of the following dc motor has maximum ___
21	A DC series motor is used for overhauling load ___
22	A DC series motor is best suited for electrical ___
23	A DC shunt motor is driving a constant torque load ___
24	An electrical train employing a dc series motor is running at the fixed speed, when a sudden slight drop in ___
25	A thick wire is used in dc series motor field winding than that in ___
26	The direction of rotation of a dc motor can be ___
27	When a dc machine is connected to the dc supply main it ___
28	The direction of the armature current in a ___
29	If the back emf in a dc motor varnishes suddenly, then ___
30	The output power of any electrical motor is taken from ___
31	The no load current of the transformer lags behind the ___
32	The power factor of the transformer on no load is ___
33	Total emf induced in the primary winding is due to ___
34	The emf induced in the ___
35	The flux created by the current flowing through the ___
36	If the dc voltage is applied instead of ac voltage to the ___
37	In a transformer operating at constant voltage if the input frequency increases ___
38	The value of the flux involved in the emf equation for a ___
39	The transformer has zero regulation at ___
40	In a transformer circuit mode, the core loss is ___
41	The flux in the transformer core ___
42	The power factor of the power transformer on no load will ___
43	In a transformer ___ decreases with increase in the leakage flux
44	The mutual flux in a loaded transformer can be ___
45	Open circuit test in the transformer is ___
46	If the supply frequency of the transformer is ___
47	The all day efficiency of the distribution transformer is ___
48	The thickness of the transformer core laminations is ___
49	The hum in a transformer is mainly attributed to ___
50	Grain oriented laminated sheet steel in ___
51	Multi step core is used in a ___
52	Conservator is employed to ___
53	In order to reduce hysteresis loss ___
54	The joints of the transformer core lamination are ___
55	The desirable properties of transformer ___
56	The losses which vary with variation in ___
57	The open circuit test of the transformer gives ___
58	During short circuit the core losses are ___
59	A transformer is supplying pure resistive (unity power factor) load ___
60	Positive regulation of the transformer is indication of ___
61	Natural air cooling is used for the transformers of the ___
62	The use of high flux density in the design of the ___
63	Distribution transformers are designed to have ___
64	The size of the transformer core depends on ___
65	The transformer efficiency under heavy loads is ___
66	In a transformer, iron core is provided in ___
67	The iron loss in a 100 kVA transformer is 1 kW and the full load copper losses are ___
68	For minimum weight of the transformer, the iron weight should be ___
69	The Transformer core laminations are insulated from ___
70	The transformer oil should have ___
71	Low voltage winding is placed next to the core in the case of ___
72	Major insulation in a transformer is the ___
73	The chemical used in the breather is ___
74	Which of the following transformer connection will give ___
75	The distribution transformer is designed with minimum possible ___
76	In large power transformer, best utilization of available core space can be made by ___
77	The most common method of cooling employed in ___
78	Five limb core construction is preferred over three limb construction as in this ___
79	The winding used in 3-phase shell type transformer is ___
80	A Distribution transformer is selected on the ___
81	Power transformers are provided with additional ___
82	Which of the following 3-phase connection of a transformer causes interference with the ___
83	The excessive temperature rise in the Transformer causes ___
84	Tappings of a transformer are ___
85	Maximum transient currents flow through the transformer winding when when it is switched on with its secondary winding ___
86	For successful parallel operation of two single phase transformers, the most ____
87	Scott connections are used ___
88	The magnetizing current in a transformer is ___
89	In which of the transformer, the tertiary winding is ___
90	A 3-phase transformer over a bank of 3-single phase transformers of ___
91	In a Delta -Delta connection, if one of the transformer winding is ___
92	A distribution transformer is required to ___
93	With stepping in construction of the ___
94	Which of the following statements associated with the Buchholz relay is ___
95	Transformer core is ___
96	Which of the following will improve the mutual coupling between primary and ___
97	In order to reduce the ___
98	The core used in high frequency transformer is ___
99	For transformers employing CRGO, the area of the yoke is taken ___
100	The thickness of transformer core laminations is ___
101	The color of fresh dielectric oil used in the ___
102	A shell type transformer is commonly used as ___
103	Two transformers of identical voltages but different capacities are operated in ___
104	The yoke sections of transformers employing controlled laminations is ___
105	The rotor of a hysteresis motor is made of magnetic material having area of ___
106	A 3-phase slip-ring induction motor having negligible stator impedance drives a ___
107	Which of the following is not the disadvantage of an induction generator ___
108	Grain oriented laminated sheet steel in transformer reduces ___
109	Single phase induction motor built with a variable air gap and ___
110	If the applied voltage across a 3-phase induction motor is reduced to ___
111	In which of the following aspects induction generator does not differ from a synchronous generator?
112	The all-day efficiency of a transformer depends primarily on ___
113	In a repulsion motor, torque developed will be zero when brush axis is at ___
114	Under which of the following starting methods, an induction motor draws largest starting current?
115	If a squirrel cage induction motor runs slow, the probable cause could be ___
116	What is load at which maximum efficiency occurs in case of a ___
117	Which of the following statements associated with repulsion motor is wrong?
118	This size of a high speed motor is ___
119	At sub-synchronous speeds. in Kramer system, the electrical power fed to ___
120	The efficiency of a power transformer can be ___
121	In a universal motor the most common cause(s) of ___
122	Increase in supply voltage to a 3-phase induction motor will not ___
123	The njected emf in the rotor of induction motor must have ___
124	The nominal short-circuit voltage (VSCN) of a transformer means ___
125	In ac series motors armature coils are usually connected to ___
126	A squirrel cage induction motor is not favoured when ___
127	The speed of a 4-pole induction motor is controlled by varying the supply frequency while maintaining the ratio of ___
128	The main purpose of performing open-circuit on a transformer is to ___
129	AC series motors in comparison to dc series motors do not have ___
130	Squirrel cage induction motors have the disadvantages of ___
131	The speed of an induction motor depends on ___
132	The losses in a transformer are ___
133	In various types of split-phase l-phase induction motors, the ___
134	The outer cage of a double squirrel rotor consists of ___
135	Which of the following starting methods cannot be used for ___
136	In the transformer circuit mode, the core loss is represented as a ___
137	The difference between the number of stator slots and that of rotor slots in ___
138	Primary series resistors are employed in the stator for starting a ___
139	The primary ampere-turns are counter balanced by ___
140	Two capacitor type induction motors have the main drawback of ___
141	An increase in number of poles of an induction motor results in ___
142	For starting a small induction motor DOL starter is used in place of ___
143	In a transformer, the exciting current will be in phase quadrature with the ___
144	In comparison to a resistance start motor, the capacitor start motor has ___
145	The phenomenon of crawling in a 3-phase induction motor may be due to ___
146	The starting torque of an induction motor varies as ___
147	A 50 Hz transformer having equal hysteresis and eddy current losses at ___
148	Capacitor in a single-phase induction motor is used for ___
149	A 3-phase induction motor when started picks up speed but runs stably at ___
150	If a 3-phase induction motor is started when one of the phases is ___
151	The core flux in transformer depends mainly on ___
152	The power factor at which single phase induction motors usually operate is ___
153	For high starting torque. the most suitable 3-phase induction motor is ___
154	In a transformer, electrical power is transferred from primary to ___
155	An 8-pole single phase induction motor is running at ___
156	An induction motor always operates on ___
157	During starting of a double cage induction motor, the current induced in the ___
158	In a phase-shift control, the phase shift between anode and grid voltages can be ___
159	A dual voltage single phase ac motor can be ___
160	The no-load current in an induction motor is in comparison to that of ___
161	In 3-phase induction motors, copper bars are placed deep in the ___
162	Reactor is introduced in the ignition circuit of a ___
163	A 3-phase slip-ring induction motor is fed from the rotor side with ___
164	In an induction motor, what is the ratio of rotor copper loss and rotor input?
165	In a 3-phase induction motor, the stator slots are ___
166	Which motor should not be used for centrifugal pumps?
167	An electric train employing a dc series motor is running at a ___
168	The dc motor most suitable for applications requiring high starting torque is ___
169	A 220 V dc machine supplies 20 A at 200 V as ___
170	When a dc cumulative compound wound motor is ___
171	The toque-speed characteristic of a dc shunt motor is ___
172	If the terminal voltage of a dc shunt motor is halved with the ___
173	Armature torque of a dc motor is a function of which of the following factors?
174	In case of a dc series motor it is possible to have finite no-load speed if a ___
175	A 400 V dc shunt motor takes 5 A at ___
176	A flywheel is normally fitted to ___
177	A series motor is working drawing a load current of 1 A from the ___
178	The direction of rotation of a dc motor can he determined by ___
179	A 240V dc shunt motor with an armature resistance of 0.5 Ω has a full-load current of ___
180	With the increase in speed of a ___
181	Torque developed in a dc motor depends upon ___
182	In the case of parallel operation of dc compound wound generators, for proper division of ___
183	When is the mechanical power developed by a dc motor maximum?
184	A dc series generator is employed ___
185	A dc generator will be flat compounded if ___
186	A thicker wire is used in dc series motor field winding than that in a ___
187	A shunt generator has a critical field resistance of 200 ω at a ___
188	A 220 V dc machine has an armature resistance of ___
189	The fall in speed of a dc generator due to increase in load can be corrected by ___
190	Two dc shunt generators having equal open-circuit emfs but slight different load characteristics are ___
191	The interpole air gap is ____that under the field poles, in dc machines
192	The voltmeter connected across a generator reads voltage same at ___
193	The compensating windings are placed in the slots in the pole faces to ___
194	Which of the following dc generators will have negligible terminal voltage on no load?
195	If the brushes are given a small amount of forward shift in case of a ___
196	The terminal voltage of an overcompounded dc generator ___
197	The armature mmf of a dc machine has ___
198	The voltage at the terminals of a dc series generator running at ___
199	The field coils of a dynamo have an inductance of ___
200	When the shunt field of a dc compound generator is connected across both the ___
201	In a dc machine, the armature winding is made up of number of coils distributed in ___
202	The compensating winding in a ___
203	In order to ascertain whether a dc machine is lap wound or wave wound on the ___
204	If the armature current is increased to double its previous value, and the time of ___
205	Minimum number of coils for 400 V, 6-pole lap connected dc machine for a ___
206	Under-commutation results in ___
207	Wave winding is employed in a dc machine of ___
208	Armature reaction in a dc shunt generator, running at full load with the brushes not ___
209	What are slot wedges in a dc machine made of?
210	A 4-pole dynamo with wave wound armature has ___
211	The field coils of a dc generator are usually made of ___
212	Number of tappings to each equalizer ring is equal to number of ___
213	How many segments will be there for the commutator of a ___
214	For a linear electromagnetic circuit, the following statement is true ___
215	In a dc machine, for the same value of ε, Zand N which one of the following statements is Correct?
216	Growler is used to detect ___
217	4 pole generator with 16 coils has a two layer lap winding ___
218	Which of the following statements associated with Amplidyne and Metadyne are correct?
219	To avoid formation of grooves in the ___
220	Which of the following is not a cross-field machine?
221	The ventilating ducts in most of the dc machines are ___
222	The efficiency of a dc machine can be determined without directly loading it ___
223	Generally the no-load losses of an electrical machine is represented in its ___
224	The overall efficiency of a well designed dc machine may be expected to ___
225	Reluctance torque in rotating machines is present, when ___
226	In a dc machine, ohmic or copper losses occur in ___
227	Before connecting the motor to the supply mains it is necessary to ensure that ___
228	Hysteresis loss in a dc machine is independent of ___
229	In Rosenberg generators ___
230	Field copper losses are constant in dc ___
231	In the field’s test for dc series machines, the difficulty of obtaining readings at ___
232	The simplest form of a motor controller is ___
233	The main disadvantage of Hopkinson’s test is that ___
234	If the handle of a three point starter goes back to OFF position, it may be due to ___
235	In Swinburne’s test of determination of efficiency of a dc shunt machine the ___
236	At starting, the field excitation of a dc shunt motor is kept at its ___
237	DC machines are generally designed for maximum efficiency around ___
238	A cumulatively compounded long shunt motor is driving a load at ___
239	The armature resistance of a PMDC motor is ___
240	A dc series motor driving an electric train faces a ___
241	The core (or iron) losses, in a dc machine occur due to ___
242	In a Ward-Leonard drive, if the field current of the dc generator is ___
243	In a dc machine mechanical losses occur due to ___
244	The speed of a dc shunt motor supplying a load at its rated speed can be ___
245	Regenerative braking is based on that the back emf is ___
246	The speed of a dc shunt motor may be varied by varying ___
247	In plugging of a dc shunt motor, the resistance is inserted in the ___
248	Which of the following dc motors will have highest percentage increase of ___
249	A 4-point starter is used to start and control the speed of a ___
250	A cumulatively compounded dc motor runs at a ___
251	Direct-on-line (DOL) starters are not suitable for starting large ___
252	In a dc motor, if armature current is increased, keeping field current constant ___
253	If an additional resistance is connected in series with a ___
254	In a dc motor if the brushes are given a backward shift, then ___
255	For very sensitive and wide speed control, the preferable control method is ___
256	In an electric motor, the electromagnetic torque developed is ___
257	If the voltage applied across the armature of a dc motor is reduced by ___
258	Torque developed by the armature of a dc motor is proportional to which one of the following?
259	A dc shunt motor is fitted with a field regulator for ___
260	A dc motor develops the maximum mechanical power when the ___
261	A motor used for punching machine is usually subjected to ___
262	In a dc compound motor the field regulator is ___
263	The dc motor, that has poorest speed regulation, is ___
264	In a dc motor, energy conversion would not have been possible but for ___
265	Running the machine at no load is inadvisable for ___
266	The main factor that leads to unstable parallel operation of flat or ___
267	A differentially compounded dc motor with interpoles and with brushes on the ___
268	A dc shunt motor may have rising speed-torque characteristic due to ___
269	If the field circuit resistance of a dc shunt generator exceeds its ___
270	A dc series motor must not be started on no load because it would ___
271	The slight curature at the lower end of the OCC of a self excited dc generator is ___
272	In comparison to shunt and compound motors, a dc series motor develops ___
273	The polarity of the interpole is the ___
274	If N is the speed of a dc series motor and ___
275	The interpoles in dc machines have a tapering shape in order to ___
276	A PMDC commutator motor has a no-load speed of 6,000 rpm when connected to ___
277	Due to magnetic saturation, the flux per pole in a ___
278	What happens to the speed when the flux is reduced by 10% in a ___
279	The armature MMF waveform of a dc machine is ___
280	A dc motor having full-load speed of 750 rpm and speed regulation of ___
281	At a certain speed and flux, the voltage generated by a dc generator is ___
282	In a dc machine. fractional pitch winding is employed to ___
283	In a dc generator, the ripples in the direct emf generated are reduced by ___
284	In the block diagram of a separately excited dc motor, how does the armature induced emf appear as?
285	The number ofparallel paths for a 4-pole duplex lap winding will be ___
286	The simplest way of shifting load from one shunt generator to the ___
287	In dc machines, the armature windings are placed on the rotor because of ___
288	The ____ generator has the poorest voltage regulation
289	The armature of a dc machine is ___
290	Which of the following dc generators has rising V-I characteristics?
291	Which of the following is not a part of dc machine?
292	An ideal dc generator has a regulation of ____
293	In comparison to self excited generator, a ___
294	Series field winding of a dc machine consists of ___
295	In a dc machine, which of the following statements is true?
296	The reactance voltage is ___
297	Current in a coil undergoing commutation is not able to get reversed completely by ___
298	In a dc machine the armature mmf is ___
299	The ernf induced in a conductor of machine driven at 600 rpm, the peak value of ___
300	In a lap wound dc generator having P poles and Z conductors the ___
301	In a dc machine armature winding, the number of commutator segments is ___
302	For a 4-pole machine wave winding is impossible with ___
303	A lap wound dc machine has 400 conductors and ___
304	The commutator of a dc motor serves the purpose of ___
305	Poles of dc machine are often laminated to ___
306	Stray losses are sum of ___
307	If a current carrying coil is placed in a uniform magnetic field direction of ___
308	The proper alignment of a machine is ___
309	The number of interpoles in a 2-pole cross-field generator will be ___
310	In a field’ s test for dc series machines, the series fields of ___
311	The test that can he used for determination of no-load losses in a large dc shunt machine is ___
312	The efficiency of a dc machine will be when the variable losses are equal to ___
313	The armature core of a dc machine gets overheated due to ___
314	The eddy current loss in a dc machine varie with the thickness of laminations as ___
315	Two series motors are mechanically coupled ___
316	During rheostatic braking the braking torque is proportional to ___
317	A dc shunt motor, running lightly at 1,000rpm, is operated under ___
318	DC motors are stopped by operdng the line switches and not by ___
319	The function of a starter in a dc motor is to ___
320	A dc series motor is running with a divertor connected across its ___
321	A dc series motor is operating at rated speed with ___
322	Ward-Leonard control provides speed control ___
323	The armature voltage control is considered suitable for a dc motor driven at ___
324	The resistance of the field regulator of a dc shunt motor is of the order of ___
325	For the same power output rating and full-load speed, the motor that will have ___
326	Which of the following dc motors has got maximum self relieving property?
327	When the direction of power flow in a differentially compounded motor reverses, it will ___
328	A dc shunt motor is driving a mechanical load at rated voltage with ___
329	When an electric train is moving down a hill, the dc motor will operate as a ___
330	Which of the following statements associated with a de series motor is correct?
331	The mechanical output available at the dc motor shaft is equal to ___
332	A 200 V, 2,000 rpm, 10 A, separately excited dc motor has an ___
333	A dc shunt motor having unsaturated magnetic circuit runs at ___
334	A dc shunt generator has an armature resistance of 0.1 and runs at ___
335	The direction of rotation of a dc series motor can be ___
336	The armature shaft must be able to ___
337	Equalizer bar is necessary for parallel operation of ___
338	When two dc series generators are operating in parallel, an equalizer bar is ___
339	The voltage regulation of a dc generator at full load being zero implies that ___
340	Which of the following dc generators will be in a position to build up without any residual magnetism in the field?
341	The factors that are responsible for decrease in terminal voltage of a ___
342	In dc generators, the residual magnetism is of the order of ___
343	In a separately excited dc generator the field is ___
344	Compensating windings are employed in dc motors which are ___
345	The sparking at the brushes, in a dc machine, is due to ___
346	Commutation in a dc machine may be explained as a ___
347	In a dc machine, the space waveform of the air-gap flux distribution affects ___
348	An eight pole dc generator has a simple wave wound armature containing 32 coils of ___
349	In a lap wound dc generator, the equalizer rings are provided to ___
350	The commutator pitch for simplex wave winding is equal to ___
351	Wave winding ts composed of ___
352	A P-pole lap wound dc machine had an ___
353	The teeth in the armature of a dc machine are ___
354	The function(s) of pole shoes in a dc machine is/are to ___
355	Which of the following statements associated with the installation and preventive maintenance of ___
356	Which of the following are the variable losses in a rotating machine?
357	An amplidyne is provided with split poles so as to ___
358	A short-circuited rectangular coil falls under gravity with the coil remaining in a ___
359	To conduct load test on a dc shunt motor, it is coupled to a generator which is ___
360	The preventive maintenance schedule of a dc machine includes ___
361	The retardation test for dc shunt machines is employed for determination of ___
362	If the number of poles in the first stage of a Rototrol (Regulex) is 2, the number of ___
363	Which of the following test(s) need(s) two machines?
364	In cross-field generators ___
365	Efficiency of a dc shunt machine can be computed by ___
366	In a field’s test for dc series machines, one of the two machines under test ___
367	In Swinburne’s test of a ___
368	The hysteresis loss in a dc machine varíes with the frequency of ___
369	Efficiency of a de machine is maximum when the variable losses are equal to ___
370	Regenerative braking ___
371	Which of the following losses occuring in a dc machine varies significantly with the load?
372	A large dc shunt motor can be started preferably using a ___
373	In a dc machine, which loss increases rapidly with the increase in frequency of ___
374	Three point starters are not suitable for applications where speed variation by ___
375	In a dc machine, iron loss occurs in ___
376	Which one of the following statements is correct for the ___
377	During rheostatic braking of dc series motors ___
378	The function of the field regulator in a dc compound motor is to ___
379	Plugging of dc machine is normally executed by ___
380	The main disadvantage(s) of the Ward-Leonard system is/are ___
381	The dc motor starter handle should he moved ___
382	A 50 kW dc shunt motor is loaded to draw rated armature current at ___
383	If starter is not used with large dc motor for starting, it will ___
384	A dc shunt motor is supplying a load at its ___
385	The current drawn by a dc motor at starting is ___
386	The speed of a dc motor depends upon ___
387	The field divertor resistance for a dc series motor is of the ___
388	Which of the following dc motors has almost constant speed over their full-load range?
389	For a given torque. reducing diverter resistance of a ___
390	Which of the following dc motors will have least percentage increase of ___
391	Ward Leonard control is basically a ___
392	A belt-driven cumulative compounded dc generator is delivering power to ___
393	The shunted armature control method of speed control for dc shunt motors is ___
394	A separately excited dc generator is feeding a dc shunt motor ___
395	Following controls are considered for ___
396	The speed of a 4-pole dc series motor at no load will be ___
397	On switching a dc motor tode supply mains, it is found to ___
398	An electric motor with “constant output power” will have a ___
399	Which of the following dc motors, on removal of load, will run at the maximum speed?
400	For higher values of armature current, the speed of a dc series motor is ___
401	A 220 V shunt motor develops a torque of 54 Nm at an armature current of ___
402	A dc shunt motor is driving a constant torque load with ___
403	In a dc series motor, the torque developed is ___
404	A dc series motor is used for an overhauling load ___
405	When the torque of a dc series motor is trippled, the power approximately ___
406	The dc compound motors are generally ___
407	A 240 V dc series motor takes 40 A when giving its rated output at ___
408	The current drawn by a 120 V dc motor with back emf of ___
409	In a dc motor, the shaft torque is less than armature torque ___
410	DC generators are connected to or disconnected from the ___
411	What is the increase in torque expressed as percentage of initial torque, if ___
412	The residual magnetism of a dc shunt generator can be regained by ___
413	The dc motor, which can provide zero speed regulation at ___
414	A self excited dc shunt generator driven by its prime mover at the rated speed fails to ___
415	The speed of a dc shunt motor ___
416	A 4 pole, 25 kW, 200 V wave wound dc shunt generator the current in ___
417	When the supply terminals of a dc shunt motor are ___
418	With the increases in field excitation of a dc generator, its ___
419	The output power of any electrical motor is taken from the ___
420	The commutating flux produced by interpole must be proportional to ___
421	For parallel operation, the dc generators normally preferred are ___
422	To have sparkless commutation, the armature reaction effect in a ___
423	The essential condition for satisfactory parallel operation of ___
424	In a dc machine, the sparking between brushes and commutator surface may be ___
425	For a specific open-circuit voltage of a de generator, the shortcircuit current will be ___
426	In a dc machine, on no load the magnetic neutral axis ___
427	An over-compounded dc generator is supplying 800 A at ___
428	In dc machines, the air gap flux distribution in space at no load ___
429	In a dc shunt generator, the voltage build up is generally restricted due to ___
430	A 250 V dc generator is run at rated speed with no ___
431	A generator may loose residual magnetism due to ___
432	In a drum type dc armature winding th back pitch and front pitch in terms of ___
433	The mmf necessary for the establishment of flux in the magnetic circuit of ___
434	A homopolar generator usually has ___
435	Compensating winding in a dc machine is ___
436	If in a 6 pole lap wound dc machine, the air gap under each pole is ___
437	The self induced emf in the coil undergoing commutation is ___
438	The factors responsible for rapid wear of brushes are ___
439	Air gap at the pole tips of a dc machine is kept more than that at the centre of ___
440	Which of the above parts are subjected to iron loss?
441	In a dc machine, the actual flux distribution depends upon ___
442	In a dc machine ___
443	The armature resistance of a 6-pole lap wound dc machine is ___
444	A circular metallic disc is placed in a vertical magnetic field of ___
445	Short circuiting is caused in the armature winding due to ___
446	Which of the following statement(s) associated with installation and preventive maintenance of ___
447	The commutator pitch for simplex lap winding is ___
448	In an amplidyne, compensating winding is provided in order to ___
449	A duplex tap winding with equalizers and even number of ___
450	Which of the following tests can be conducted on other than shunt machines?
451	In lap winding, the number of brushes is always ___
452	Two dc shunt machines 200 kW each are tested by ___
453	In a dc machine, the armature is always on the rotor unlike an ac machine where it could be ___
454	In the Kapp’ s modification of Hopkinson’ s test for ___
455	Pole shoe of a dc machine is laminated for the purpose of ___
456	A brake test is usually restricted to ___
457	In a dc motor the windage loss is proportional to ___
458	A 200 V dc shunt motor delivers an output of 17 kW with an input of ___
459	In electromechanical energy conversion devices (e.g. generators and motors), a small air gap is ___
460	In a dc machine, iron losses are independent of variations in ___
461	An amplidyne has split poles to ___
462	The loss in a dc machine, which has the least proportion is ___
463	Which of the following statements associated with a 3-wire generator are correct?
464	In case of dc shunt motors, the regenerative braking is ___
465	The application(s) of cross-field machines is/are ___
466	The dynamic braking is generally used with ___
467	The efficiency of a dc series machine cannot be determined by ___
468	The electric braking system commonly employed in rolling mills, elevators and ___
469	The electrical efficiency of a dc machine is given as the ratio of ___
470	In a dc compound motor. 4-point starter provides ___
471	Which of the following losses occuring in a dc machine has the largest percentage?
472	In a dc shunt motor, the three point starter ___
473	The eddy current loss in a dc machine varies with the maximum flux density as ___
474	Consider the following statements regarding the starting of a ___
475	Two dc series motors are mechanically coupled ___
476	The speed of a cumulatively compounded dc motor can be controlled by ___
477	For nonreversing dc drives it is preferable to ___
478	Field divertor method of speed control of a dc series motor gives ___
479	The electric braking system employed with dc shunt motors, in which the ___
480	In Ward Leonard method of speed control, the direction of rotation of the ___
481	If the no-voltage release in a dc motor starter fails to operate on ___
482	For a constant supply voltage, what are the effects of inserting a ___
483	A dc shunt motor has external resistances of Ra and Rf in the ___
484	Which of the following statements associated with field control of dc shunt motors is correct?
485	A dc shunt motor runs at 500 rpm at ___
486	PMDC motors used in cassette tape recorders have ___
487	The ratio of the starting torque to full-load torque is minimum in case of ___
488	Variation in speed by Ward Leonard control of dc motors occurs due to ___
489	The de motor that draws almost same power at different loads is ___
490	A dc shunt motor is operating at ___
491	A cumulative compound long shunt motor is driving a load at ___
492	The field flux method of speed control of dc shunt motor is generally used for which one of the following?
493	A dc motor is to drive a load which is almost nil for certain part of ___
494	It is advisable to start a dc series motor with ___
495	In a differentially compounded dc motor, if the shunt field gets ___
496	An unsaturated dc shunt motor drives a constant torque load at ___
497	A dc shunt motor is running on no load at ___
498	A dc series motor is running at rated speed without any additional resistance in ___
499	A dc series motor develops a torque of 20 Nm at 3 A of ___
500	In a dc series motor, if armature current is reduced to 70% of its ___
501	The armature torque in a dc motor is a function of ___
502	T and P are the developed electromagnetic torque and the ___
503	If the applied voltage to a dc machine is ___
504	If the flux of a dc motor approaches zero, its speed will ___
505	A series motor drawing an armature current of ___
506	If the load current and flux of a dc motor are held constant and voltage applied across it ___
507	A dc shunt motor is running at 1,200 rpm, when excited with ___
508	In case of a conductively compensated dc series motor, the ___
509	A dc shunt motor runs at rated speed ___
510	The current drawn by a 220 V dc motor of ___
511	The direction of rotation of a dc shunt motor can be reversed by ___
512	If field of one of two generators operating in parallel is ___
513	If the back emf in a dc motor vanishes suddenly, the motor will ___
514	A dc shunt generator when driven without connecting field winding shows ___
515	In parallel operation of two dc compound generators provided with interpoles, the equalizing bar must be ___
516	An exciter for turbo-generator is a ___
517	The type of dc generator used for arc welding purposes is a ___
518	In a dc compound generator, “flat compound” characteristic, required for ___
519	Over or under compounding of a dc generator is achieved by ___
520	A dc series generator is provided with divertor and is delivering its ___
521	The factor that is not responsible for drop in terminal voltage of a ___
522	The magnetic field which initially induces emf in the armature in a ___
523	In dc machines, the interpoles are provided ___
524	A dc machine is provided with both interpole and ___
525	Sparkless commutation can he achieved by ___
526	In large-sized dc machines the compensating windings are provided to ___
527	In a dc shunt generator working on load, the brushes are moved forward in the ___
528	In a dc machine, the number of mechanical and electrical degrees will be ___
529	In a dc machine without any bnish shift, the shift of the ___
530	A 6-pole lap wound dc machine has 720 conductors and it draws ___
531	Approximate physical size of the 50 KW, 1800 rpm dynamo is a function of ___
532	A 4-pole lap wound dc generator has a developed power of ___
533	A frog-leg winding is used in a dc machine to eliminate ___
534	Aluminium is not used as winding wire in dc machine armature as it ___
535	For both lap and wave windins, there are as many commutator bars as ___
536	The coil span ___
537	The dummy coils in dc machines are useful to ___
538	Width of a carbon brush should be equal to ___
539	Welding generator will have ___
540	If two 8-pole dc machines of identical armatures are wound, one with ___
541	In a dc machine, the brushes are physically placed in the ___
542	The armature of a dc machine is made of silicon steel laminations to ___
543	Armature of a dc machine is made of ___
544	Laminated yoke in dc motor can reduce ___
545	The principle of dynamically induced emf is utilised in ___
546	EMF induced in 11 coil rotating in auniform magnetic field will be ___
547	A rotating electrical machine having its self inductances of both the stator and the ___
548	In an electromechanical energy conversion device, the ___
549	The developed electromagnetic force and/or torque in ___
550	The sparking at brushes may occur due to ___
551	For preventive maintenance of ade machine it is to be ensured that ___
552	The inductor of a three-wire generator should he iron-cored so as ___
553	Which of the following statement(s) associated with a Rosenberg generator is/are incorrect?
554	In case of a cross-field machine, the amplification ratio may be as ___
555	In Hopkinson’s and field’s tests, the main common thing is ___
556	Indirect method of testing is preferred because ___
557	In Hopkinson’s efficiency test for ___
558	Which of the following motors is expected to have maximum fullload efficiency?
559	Performance of large dc machines regarding commutation and ___
560	In a dc machine, armature copper loss varies as ___
561	In direct method of determination of efficiency of a ___
562	In a dc shunt machine, hysteresis loss ___
563	The maximum efficiency occurs in a separately excited dc generator when the ___
564	The variable loss in a dc shunt machine is ___
565	Core loss in a dc machine occurs in ___
566	Dynamic braking is very effective if the ___
567	In a dc machine, mechanical losses are primarily function of ___
568	The most economical method of electric braking is ___
569	In regenerave braking, the motor energy is ___
570	A 3 point starter is considered suitable for ___
571	The plugging provides ___ braking torque in comparison to rheostatic
572	In dc shunt motors, at start, the field excitation is kept at maximum value in ___
573	In a dc compound motor, 4-point starter is ___
574	As compared to the use of a single series dc motor for electric traction for a ___
575	A DOL starter is employed for starting motors of ratings up to ___
576	Consider the following statements regarding speed control of ___
577	For efficient operation of a dc motor, the additional resistance inserted in ___
578	Ward-Leonard system for controlling the speed of a de motor is ___
579	In series-parallel control of dc series motor, the torque produced in ___
580	The most inefficient method for speed control of dc motors is ___
581	If a resistance is connected across the armature of a dc series motor, its speed for ___
582	The speed of a dc motor can be controlled by the variation of ___
583	In Ward-Leonard system, the lower limit of speed is imposed by ___
584	Which of the following dc motors has least drop in speed from noload to rated full load?
585	A 220 V. DC shunt motor is operating at a speed of ___
586	Flywheel is employed with a dc compound motor to ___
587	The speed of a dc shunt motor can be raised above its rated value by ___
588	If the supply voltage to a dc shunt motor is increased by 15%, which of ___
589	For continuously running rolling mills with intermittent loading, the ___
590	DC series motor is best suited for electric traction as ___
591	Skew of the rotor bar eliminates ___
592	Which of the following ac motor is widely used ___
593	When the supply voltage to an induction motor id reduced by 10%, the maximum torque will ___
594	The speed of the induction motor depends on ___
595	In V/f speed control of 3 phase induction motor, the maximum torque and slip at which the ___
596	In case of 3 phase slip ring induction motor as the rotor resistance is ___
597	In a self excited induction generator, to keep the frequency of generated voltage constant with increase in load, the speed of the ___
598	A 3 phase induction motor runs at super synchronous speed ___
599	Which of the following is not an advantage of induction generator ___
600	Induction Generator delivers power at ___
601	Three-phase alternators are invariably star-connected because ___
602	Unbalanced 3 phase stator currents cause ___
603	In an alternator short circuit current is limited by ___
604	The rotor preffered for low speed hydro-generator is ___
605	Smooth cylindrical rotors are usually designed for ___
606	In synchronous machine the stator frame serves the ___
607	Hydro-Generators are generally employed to run at ___
608	The maximum current that can be supplied by ___
609	The seventh space harmonics in the mmf produced by balanced ___
610	In an alternator, the armature reaction is considered to be equivalent to a fictitious ___
611	In synchronous generator, the effect of cross magnetization is to ___
612	Synchronous reactance of an alternator is due to ___
613	Regulation of an alternator supplying resistive or inductive load is ___
614	The short circuit characteristic of an alternator is ___
615	The rotor slots of the 3 phase induction motor are ___
616	The magnetising current of a transformer is usually small because ___
617	A transformer oil must be ___
618	An ideal transformer has infinite values of primary and ___
619	The power transformer is ___
620	In the transformer the function of a conservator is ___
621	A transformer transforms ___
622	The dielectric strength of transformer oil is ___
623	Star-star power transformer is protected by current transformer having
624	In measuring voltage or current by means of ___
625	While rising and falling if a wave is ___
626	The secondary winding of a current transformer whose primary is ___
627	A step-up transformer increases ___
628	The value of useful flux least depends on ___
629	In a transformer an insulating material may fail due to ___
630	The purpose of a breather in a transformer is ___
631	Buchholz’s relay gives warning and ___
632	The nominal short-circuit voltage of the transformer is ___
633	A synchronous motor can develop synchronous ___
634	At no-load, the armature current in ___
635	Exciters of synchronous machines are ___
636	The size of a synchronous motor decreases with ___
637	The magnitude of field flux in a 3-phase synchronous ___
638	In a synchronous motor, the maximum power developed depends on ___
639	A synchronous motor is running with ___
640	If in a synchronous motor, driving mechanical load and ___
641	The angle between the rotating stator flux and rotor poles is ___
642	When the voltage applied to a synchronous motor is increased, which of the following will reduce?
643	In which of the following motors the stator and rotor magnetic field rotate at the same speed?
644	The speed regulation of a synchronous motor is ___
645	If load (or torque) angle of a 4-pole synchronous motor is ___
646	A synchronous motor is running on a load with ___
647	A synchronous motor can operate at ___
648	The maximum torque which a synchronous motor will develop at ___
649	Which of the following losses, in a synchronous motor, does not vary with load?
650	A 3-phase synchronous motor is ___
651	Due to which of the following reasons a synchronous motor fails to ___
652	If in a synchronous motor, driving a given mechanical load and ___
653	Which of the following motors will be used in electric clocks?
654	In a synchronous motor running with fixed excitation, when the ___
655	An over-excited synchronous motor is ___
656	When the stator windings are connected in such a fashion that ___
657	When the field of a synchronous motor is under-excited, the ___
658	A synchronous motor can be used as a synchronous capacitor when ___
659	In a synchronous motor, the breakdown torque is ___
660	For power factor correction, synchronous motors operate at ___
661	In a synchronous motor, the armature current has ___
662	Which of the following motors is nonself starting?
663	In a synchronous motor, the magnitude of ___
664	Which of the following resistances can be measured by ___
665	The power factor of a synchronous motor is better than that of ___
666	While starting a synchronous motor by induction motor ___
667	The armature current of the synchronous motor has ___
668	The maximum power developed in a synchronous motor occurs at ___
669	The shaft of synchronous motor is ___
670	The minimum armature current of the synchronous motor ___
671	The power developed by a synchronous motor will be maximum when ___
672	Synchronous motors are generally not ___
673	A synchronous motor develops maximum power when ___
674	If the field winding of an unloaded salient pole synchronous motor is ___
675	The maximum value of torque that a synchronous motor can ___
676	A synchronous motor connected to infinite bus-bars has at ___
677	The ratio of starting torque to running torque in ___
678	The maximum speed variation in a 3- phase synchronous motor is ___
679	Stability of a synchronous machine ___
680	A synchronous machine with large ___
681	A synchronous motor working at leading power factor can be ___
682	The rotor copper losses, in a synchronous motor, are ___
683	The oscillations in a synchronous motor can be ___
684	The working of a synchronous motor is ___
685	When V is the applied voltage, then the breakdown torque of ___
686	In case one phase of a three-phase synchronous motor is ___
687	A synchronous motor which works on a leading power factor and ___
688	The construction of a synchronous motor resembles ___
689	The back e.m.f. in the stator of a synchronous motor depends on ___
690	In a 3-phase, 4-pole, 50 Hz synchronous motor, the ___
691	The net armature voltage of a synchronous motor is ___
692	A rotory converter can also be run as ___
693	When a 3-phase synchronous generator is supplying a ___
694	Power factor of a synchronous motor is ___
695	Slip-rings in a synchronous motor carry ___
696	A synchronous motor has better power factor as compared to ___
697	When load on an over-excited or underexcited synchronous motor is ___
698	A synchronous motor can be made self starting by ___
699	If the field of a synchronous motor is under-excited, the ___
700	In a synchronous motor, V-curves represent ___
701	The effect of increasing the load on a synchronous motor running with ___
702	The speed of a synchronous motor ___
703	If excitation of a synchronous motor running with a constant load is ___
704	The mechanical displacement of the rotor with respect to ___
705	To limit the operating temperature an electrical machine should ___
706	A synchronous motor running with normal excitation adjusts to ___
707	Hunting in a synchronous motor place ___
708	In a synchronous motor which loss varies with load?
709	Synchronous motor always runs at ___
710	Under which of the following conditions hunting of synchronous motor is likely to occur?
711	Higher the applied ___ voltage will be the stator flux
712	The armature current of ___
713	The maximum constant load torque under which a synchronous motor will ___
714	An important advantage of a synchronous motor over ___
715	The efficiency of a properly designed synchronous motor will usually ___
716	The standard full-load power factor ratings for ___
717	A synchronous motor will always stop when ___
718	When V is the supply voltage and R is the rotor resistance per ___
719	As the load is applied to a synchronous motor, the ___
720	A three-phase synchronous motor will ___
721	If the synchronous motor, properly synchronised to the supply is ___
722	The duration of sudden snort-circuit test on a synchronous motor is ___
723	In a synchronous motor it the back e.m.f. generated in ___
724	Hunting in a synchronous motor cannot be ___
725	In a synchronous motor, damper windings are ___
726	If the field circuit of an unloaded salient pole synchronous motor gets ___
727	While starting a salient pole synchronous motor by ___
728	When the rotor speed, in a synchronous machine, becomes more than ___
729	Dust and dirt accumulation on motor winding will ___
730	Synchronous motors are
731	The operating speed of a synchtunous motor can be changed to ___
732	The back e.m.f. of a synchronous motor depends ___
733	The synchronous motor is not inherently self-starting because ___
734	A synchronous motor can be ___
735	In a synchronous motor, the forced vibrations will be ___
736	The coupling angle or load angle of synchronous motor is ___
737	Which of the following losses is not dissipated by tile stator core surface in a synchronous motor?
738	The torque angle, in a synchronous motor, is ___
739	In a 3-phase synchronous motor, the negative phase sequence exists when ___
740	If one-phase of a 3-phase synchronous motor is ___
741	A synchronous motor installed at the receiving end substation operates with ___
742	Which of the following methods is used to start a synchronous motor?
743	Synchronsizing power of a synchronous machine is ___
744	The percentage slip in case of a synchronous motor is ___
745	The transformer ratings are usually expressed in ___
746	Two transformers operating in parallel will share the ___
747	Natural oil cooling is used for transformers upto ___
748	A transformer cannot raise or lower the voltage of ___
749	Sumpner’s test is conducted on transformers to ___
750	In a transformer the energy is conveyed from primary to ___
751	In which of the following the highest rating transformer is likely to find application?
752	In order to find the full-load efficiency of a ___
753	In large transformers, oil is invariably used in ___
754	Transformer cores are built-up from laminations rather than ___
755	In which of the following transformer part of primary winding also serves as the secondary winding?
756	The reactance of a transformer depends on ___
757	Cross-over windings are used for ___
758	For power purpose sine wave shape is ___
759	In a 3-phase induction motor which of the following statements, regarding frequency of ___
760	When a squirrel cage induction motor fails to start which of the following could not be ___
761	The difference between the synchronous speed and the actual speed of ___
762	Two of the power supply terminals to a 3-phase induction motor get ____
763	The speed of a 3-phase wound motor can be ___
764	If single-phasing occurs on the running position in ___
765	The starting torque of a 3-phase squirrel cage induction motor is ___
766	In a star-delta starter of ___
767	Insertion of resistance in the rotor of an induction motor to ___
768	An induction motor can run at synchronous speed when ___
769	If a 3-phase supply is given to the stator and rotor is ___
770	If an induction motor with certain ratio of rotor to ___
771	The auto-starters (using three auto transformers) can be ___
772	Star-delta starting of motors is not possible in ___
773	In squirrel cage induction motors, the rotor slots are ___
774	When a Scharge motor runs exactly at synchronous speed, then ___
775	What is the advantage of starting a slip-ring induction motor with the help of ___
776	Which of the following parameters for an induction motor varies as ___
777	Which of the following methods of speed control is not affected through stator side?
778	In an induction motor the pulsation losses and noise can be ___
779	If stator voltage of a squirrel cage induction motor is ___
780	Under which method of starting an induction motor is expected to take largest starting current?
781	In an induction motor, the rotor reactance per phase is proportional to ___
782	Regarding single-phasing of a 3-phase induction motor under ___
783	If air gap of the induction motor is ___
784	The principle of operation of a 3-phase induction motor is most similar to ___
785	Out of the following methods of starting a ___
786	An induction motor is ___
787	Slip ring motor is preferred over ___
788	Insertion of reactance in the ___
789	Lubricant used for ball ‘bearing is ___
790	A change of 4% of supply voltage to an induction motor will ___
791	Short-circuit test on an induction motor cannot be used to ___
792	As load on an induction motor goes on ___
793	The ‘cogging’ of an induction motor can be avoided by ___
794	If any two phases for an induction motor are ___
795	The crawling in the induction motor is ___
796	A double squirrel-cage induction motor has ___
797	In medium sized induction motors, the slip is ___
798	The principle of operation of a three phase induction motor closely resembles to that of which of the following?
799	Which of the following statements about the working of Scharge motor is incorrect?
800	What is the advantage of the slip ring induction motor over the squirrel cage induction motor?
801	In a 3-phase induction motor, iron loss ___
802	An induction motor has a rated speed of ___
803	An induction motor with large number of ___
804	If stator voltage of a squirrel cage induction motor is reduced to ___
805	Which of the following type of bearing is generally used to support the rotor of ___
806	When an induction motor is switched on ___
807	When a double squirrel cage motor is started, the current induced in ___
808	Speed variations of a squirrel cage induction motor are essentially similar to ___
809	If there is an open circuit in the rotor of a ___
810	The synchronous speed of a 3-phase induction motor is ___
811	Insertion of resistance in the stator of ___
812	Reduced voltage starter can be ___
813	The low power factor of induction motor is ___
814	Blocked rotor test on induction motors is used to ___
815	The shape of the torque/slip curve of induction motor is ___
816	The torque developed in an induction motor is ___
817	Slip ring motor is recommended where ___
818	The power factor of an induction motor under no load conditions will be ___
819	For which motor the speed can be controlled from rotor side?
820	Which of the following methods is easily applicable to ___
821	The starting torque of a squirrel-cage induction motor is ___
822	In an induction motor, no-load the slip is ___
823	In moist surroundings which frame of motor will be preferred?
824	Which of the following is not determined by circle diagram?
825	Which of the following motors has the highest power to weight ratio?
826	What is the disadvantage of starting an induction motor with a star-delta starter?
827	The value of average flux density in air gap in an induction motor, should be ___
828	Synchronous wattage of induction motor means ___
829	Type of bearing used for 25 H.P. motor is ___
830	Which of the following statement about a double squirrel cage induction motor is incorrect?
831	The pull-out torque for a normal squirrel cage induction motor usually ___
832	A pump induction motor is switched on to a supply 25 percent lower than ___
833	A 3-phase slip-ring induction motor is ___
834	A squirrel cage induction motor is ___
835	In case of a double cage induction motor, the ___
836	The circle diagram for an induction motor cannot be ___
837	3-phase slip ring motor has ___
838	In an induction motor the relationship between ___
839	The ‘crawling’ in an induction motor is ___
840	In the circle diagram for induction motor, the diameter of ___
841	The injected e.m.f. in the rotor of induction motor must ___
842	Phase advancers are used with induction motors to __
843	The reversing of 3-phase A.C. motor is ___
844	The probable reason for an induction motor running too ___
845	The reactance per phase as compared to the resistance per phase of ___
846	If the rotor is open in a squirrel cage motor it ___
847	The number of slip rings on a squirrel cage induction motor is ___
848	Which of the following statements is correct about an induction motor?
849	Which of the following statements about 3-phase induction motor is incorrect?
850	The upper bars in a double squirrel cage ___
851	The power factor of an induction motor under no-load conditions is ___
852	The magnetising current drawn by induction motors and transformers is ___
853	Less maintenance troubles are experienced in ___
854	When R2is the rotor resistance, X2 the rotor reactance at ___
855	What will happen if the relative speed between the rotating flux of stator and rotor of ___
856	The value of transformation ratio of an induction motor can be ___
857	5 H.P. 50-Hz, 3-phase, 440 V, induction motors are available for ___
858	Low voltage at motor terminals is ___
859	The speed of a squirrel-cage induction motor can be controlled by ___
860	Rotor rheostat control method of speed control is ___
861	The mechanical load across the induction motor is equivalent to ___
862	The efficiency of an induction motor can be expected to ___
863	The shaft of an induction motor is ___
864	In a wound 3-phase induction motor, brushes should be ___
865	Imbalance in shaft of the induction motor occurs due to ___
866	If a three phase squirrel-cage induction motor runs slow, which of ___
867	What is the disadvantage of the speed control of slip-ring induction motor with the help of ___
868	The noise and tooth pulsation losses can be minimised by ___
869	Which of the following features of induction motor helps in preventing cogging of motor?
870	If s is the slip and f is the supply frequency, the frequency of ___
871	A squirrel cage induction motor running on no-load is loaded, which of the following statements is incorrect?
872	When a stationary 3-phase induction motor is switched on ___
873	When a load on a squirrel-cage induction motor is ___
874	The advantage of a slip-ring induction motor over a ___
875	In a squirrel cage motor the induced e.m.f. is ___
876	The torque of a rotor in an induction motor under rurnning condition is ___
877	In a three-phase induction motor ___
878	A pump induction motor is switched on to ___
879	A 3-phase induction motor delta connected is carrying too heavy load and ___
880	DOL starting of induction motors is usually restricted to ___
881	Stepless speed control of induction motor is possible by which of the following methods?
882	The good power factor of an induction motor can be achieved if ___
883	In Ns is the synchronous speed and s the slip, then ___
884	The two important parts of a 3-phase induction motor are ___
885	The overheating of an induction motor may be ___
886	For a 50 H.P. motor, which type of rotor will be preferred?
887	What is the function of putting resistance in parallel to one phase of 3-phase induction motor?
888	The stator frame in an induction motor is ___
889	A wound rotor induction motor is ___
890	Slip rings for induction motors are made of ___
891	In case of a 3-phase wound-rotor induction motor, an increase in ___
892	If the rotor circuit of a squirrel cage induction motor is ___
893	The starting torque of a three phase induction motor can be ___
894	The purpose of using short-circuit gear is ___
895	In an induction motor if air-gap is ___
896	In the squirrel-cage induction motor the rotor slots are usually ___
897	In three-phase induction motors sometimes copper bars are ___
898	Which type of bearing is provided in small induction motors to support the rotor shaft?
899	A 3-phase induction motor stator delta connected, is ___
900	In a three-phase induction motor, the number of poles in ___
901	It is advisable to avoid line-starting of induction motor and ___
902	An induction motor with 1000 r.p.m. speed will ___
903	Which of the following component is usually fabricated out of silicon steel?
904	The most important factor in motor maintenance is to ___
905	The speed of a three-phase cage-rotor induction motor depends on ___
906	If single phasing occurs when ihe motor is running, it should not be ___
907	The induction motors which are provided with ___
908	A 3-phase induction motor is running at a load of ___
909	The starting torque of the slip ring induction motor can be ___
910	The shaft, on which the rotor of an induction motor is ___
911	A 3-phase 440 V, 50 Hz induction motor has ___
912	In D.C. motor which of the following can sustain the maximum temperature rise?
913	These days D.C. motors are widely used in ___
914	When two D.C. series motors are connected in ___
915	According to Fleming’s left hand rule, when the forefinger points in ___
916	The direction of rotation of a D.C. series motor can be ___
917	Speed control by the variation of flux, in a ___
918	The generated e.m.f. and the current are in the opposite direction in case of ___
919	Which of the following methods is most effective in finding out the no load losses in a large D.C. shunt motor?
920	A motor for punching machine is ___
921	The mechanical power developed by a D.C. motor is ___
922	In a D.C. motor constant torque is ___
923	In a motor, energy conversion would not have been possible but ___
924	In a D.C. motor if the back e.m.f. is ___
925	In the D.C. motor the iron losses occur in ___
926	In variable speed motor ___
927	In a D.C. generator, the iron losses mainly take place in ___
928	In a manual shunt motor starter ___
929	The losses occurring in a D.C. generator are ___
930	Which motor should not be started on no-load?
931	The armature voltage control of D.C. motor provides ___
932	The speed of a D.C. shunt motor can be ___
933	Buses, trains, trolleys, hoists, cranes require high starting torque and ___
934	If the supply voltage for a D.C. motor is increased, which of the following will decrease?
935	In Ward Leonard method of speed control of a D.C. motor, change in ___
936	The ratio of starting torque to fullload torque is ___
937	Which D.C. motor Will have least percentage increase of ___
938	To get the speed of D.C. motor below the normal without wastage of ___
939	Which D.C. motor is preferred for elevators?
940	Speed ,control by varying the armature circuit resistance, in a ___
941	Which losses can be determined by performing the retardation test?
942	Which motor should be used for centrifugal pumps?
943	In Field’s test for series motors one motor drives the other machine as ___
944	Which of the following motors, on removal of load, will run at the highest speed?
945	While starting a differential compound motor, it is best to short the series field in ___
946	What is the effect produced by the electric current in an electric motor?
947	The speed of a series motor at ___
948	A 230 V D.C. shunt motor takes 32 A at ___
949	D.C. generators are normally designed for maximum efficiency around
950	D.C. shunt motors are used for ___
951	Which of the following methods of braking is used in rolling mills?
952	Which of the following can be used to control the speed of a D.C. motor?
953	Which of the following motors is most suitable for signalling devices and many kinds of timers?
954	The plugging gives the ___
955	As there is no back e.m.f. at the instant of starting, a D.C. motor, in order to ___
956	Which of the following motor has the poorest speed regulation?
957	In D.C. machines the residual magnetism is ___
958	Which of the following motor is preferred for operation in highly explosive atmosphere?
959	The power mentioned on the name plate of ___
960	A shearing machine has cyclic load consisting of ___
961	In a D.C. shunt motor, under the conditions of ___
962	If a D.C. motor is connected across the A.C. supply it ___
963	Differentially compound D.C. motors can ___
964	Which of the following, in a D.C. motor, can sustain the maximum temperature rise?
965	The main disadvantage of Hopkinson’s test for finding efficiency of ___
966	Regenerative braking on D.C. shunt motors is ___
967	In which of the following tests only one motor is required?
968	A D.C. series motor, as compared to shunt and compound motors, has ___
969	Which of the following motor has high starting torque?
970	In electric motors carbon brushes are ___
971	Which of the following D.C. motors has the least drop in speed between no-load and nominal load?
972	Voltage equation for D.C. motor is ___
973	During rheostatic braking the braking torque is ___
974	The condition for maximum efficiency for a ___
975	Torque developed by a D.C. motor depends upon ___
976	The hysteresis loss in a D.C. generator varies with the frequency of ___
977	The main disadvantage of the Ward- Leonard control method is ___
978	Which of the following motors is usually used in house-hold refrigerators?
979	Which motor has the poorest speed control?
980	In a differentially compounded D.C. motor, if ___
981	For which of the following applications a D.C. motor is preferred over an A.C. motor?
982	Sparking at the commutator of a D.C. motor may result in ___
983	The current drawn by the armature of D.C. motor is directly proportional to ___
984	In case the conditions for maximum power for a D.C. motor are ___
985	In case of D.C. shunt motors the speed is dependent on ___
986	The type of D.C. motor used for shears and punches is ___
987	Which D.C. motor will be preferred for constant speed line shafting?
988	In case of a shunt motor if the supply voltage is increased by 10%, which of the following will decrease?
989	The function of a field regulator for compound motors is ___
990	If conditions for maximum power for a D.C. motor are established, the efficiency of ___
991	If the no-voltage release of a D.C. motor starter fails to work on resumption of ___
992	A series motor is’ best suited for ___
993	The rated speed of a given D.C. shunt motor is ___
994	One D.C. motor drives another ___
995	Which D.C. motor has got maximum self relieving property?
996	For which types of D.C. motor, dynamic braking is generally used?
997	The total losses in a well designed D.C. generator of 10 kW will be ___
998	D.C. series machine has field consisting of ___
999	If Bmax is the maximum flux density, then ___
1000	In Ward-Leonard control the lower limit of speed is ___
1001	cWhich of the following motors have almost constant speed over their full load range?
1002	For a D.C. shunt motor if the excitation is ___
1003	The armature voltage control of ___
1004	Following motor is used where high starting torque and ___
1005	The condition for maximum power in case of D.C. motor is ___
1006	In case of conductively compensated D.C. series motors, the ___
1007	In a D.C. series motor, if the armature current is reduced by 50%, the torque of ___
1008	Small D.C. motors up to 5 H.P. usually have
1009	What will happen if the back e.m.f. of a D.C. motor vanishes suddenly?
1010	For starting a D.C. motor a starter is required because ___
1011	Which D.C. motor will be preferred for machine tools?
1012	A brake test on D.C. motors is usually restricted to ___
1013	Which of the following tests can be conducted on all types of D.C. machines?
1014	A wide and very sensitive speed control is usually required in case of ___
1015	The series parallel system of speed control of D.C. series motors widely used in ___
1016	A face plate starter is employed for ___
1017	If the field circuit of a loaded shunt motor is ___
1018	If a starter is not used with large D.C. motor, it will draw a ___
1019	D.C. motor is to a drive a load which is almost nil for certain part of ___
1020	During rheostat braking of ___
1021	Which of the following losses are significantly reduced by laminating the core of a D.C. generator?
1022	Compensating winding in a D.C. machine is ___
1023	Which of the following loss in a D.C. generator varies significantly with the load current?
1024	Why are the D.C. motors preferred for traction applications?
1025	Which one of the following is not necessarily the advantage of D.C. motors over A.C. motors?
1026	The speed of a motor falls from 1100 r.p.m. at no-load to
1027	Flywheel is used with D.C. compound motor to reduce the peak demand by ___
1028	The mechanical power developed by a shunt motor will be maximum when the ___
1029	For the same H.P. rating and full load speed, following motor has ___
1030	The speed of a D.C. series motor is ___
1031	A three point starter is considered suitable for ___
1032	If the speed of a D.C. shunt motor is increased the ___
1033	A D.C. series motor is that which ___
1034	If a D.C. motor is to be selected for conveyors, which motor would be preferred?
1035	Which of the following methods gives the greatest breaking torque?
1036	Hopkinson’s test is conducted at ___
1037	In an overloaded motor main danger arises due to ___
1038	The use of armature divertor in the rheostatic method of ___
1039	The maximum end-play of a motor is ___
1040	A D.C. shunt motor is rotating in clockwise direction as viewed from ___
1041	Which of the following methods is most ecoriomical fol. finding the no-load losses of ___
1042	D.C. motor is to drive a load which has certain minimum value for most of ___
1043	Hopkinson’s test on D.C. machines is ___
1044	Which of the following loss in a D.C. generator is dissipated in the form of heat?
1045	In hazardous area of gassy mines, material transportation is ___
1046	If the speed of a D.C. shunt motor is increased, the back e.m.f. of ___
1047	The speed of a D.C. motor can be varied by ___
1048	Usually wide and sensitive speed control is desired in case of ___
1049	Speed control by Ward Leonard method gives ___
1050	Which one of the following is not the function of pole shoes in a D.C. machine?
1051	D.C. series motors are ___
1052	The starting resistance of a D.C. motor is ___
1053	In D.C. machines fractional pitch winding is ___
1054	A direct on line starter is used for ___
1055	In D.C. shunt motors as load is ___
1056	Which of the following application requires high starting torque?
1057	Regenerative braking on shunt motors is ___
1058	Which of the following can be used for controlling the speed of a D.C. motor?
1059	Which of the following loss of D.C. motor decreases with increase in load?
1060	Between Field’s test and Hopkinson’s test the main common thing is ___
1061	All motors, basically, operate on the principle of ___
1062	The speed of a D.C. motor, under constant load conditions, is ___
1063	When the electric train is moving down a hill the D.C. motor act as ___
1064	If a D.C. shunt motor is working at full load and if ___
1065	Which of the following tests will be suitable for testing two similar D.C. series motors of large capacity?
1066	Which loss in a D.C. generator does not vary with load as well as flux density?
1067	Which of the following motor is used in the locomotives motor drives?
1068	Which loss is likely to have highest proportion at rated load of the generator?
1069	Which of the following motors one will choose to drive the rotary compressor?
1070	At the instant of starting when a D.C. motor is put on supply, it ___
1071	Which of the following method of speed control, of D.C. machine will offer minimum efficiency?
1072	Sparking is discouraged in a D.C. motor because ___
1073	Field winding of a D.C. series motor is usually provided with ___
1074	If a D.C. shunt motor is working at no load and if ___
1075	Which of the following load normally needs starting torque more than the rated torque?
1076	In which of the following applications D.C. series motor is invariably tried?
1077	In a D.C. shunt motor, speed is ___
1078	Starters are used with D.C. motors because ___
1079	In regenerative braking ___
1080	Ward-Leonard system of speed control is ___
1081	The armature shaft of a D.C. motor must be able to ___
1082	The variable resistor shunting the field of a D.C. series motor is ___
1083	In a D.C. motor, the ratio ___
1084	What will happen if supply terminals of D.C. shunt motor are interchanged?
1085	Where D.C. motor of H.P. 12 or more requires frequent starting, stopping, reversing and ___
1086	The purpose of retardation test on D.C. shunt machines is ___
1087	Which loss in a D.C. generator varies with load?
1088	Four point starter in the D.C. motor is ___
1089	In a D.C. generator all of the following could be the effects of ___
1090	For constant torque drive which speed control method is preferred?
1091	If the terminals of armature of D.C. motor are interchanged, this action will ___
1092	In case the back e.m.f. and the speed of a D.C. motor are doubled, the ___
1093	The armature torque of the D.C. shunt motor is ___
1094	Three point starter can be used for ___
1095	As compared to an induction motor, the air gap in a D.C. motor is ___
1096	Which D.C. motor will be suitable along with flywheel for intermittent light and heavy loads?
1097	Which of the following law/rule can he used to determine the direction of rotation of D.C. motor?
1098	By looking at which part of the motor, it can be easily confirmed that a particular motor is D.C. motor?
1099	The speed of a D.C. shunt motor more than its full-load speed can be ___
1100	If the field of a D.C. shunt motor gets opened while motor is ___
1101	Which of the following tests can be used to determine no-load losses in a D.C. shunt motor?
1102	Speed control of a cumulatively compounded D.C. motor can be ___
1103	A D.C. motor can be easily identified by ___
1104	Which of the following is not necessarily the advantage of D.C. motors over A.C. motors?
1105	Which of the following statements is correct, in case of a D.C. series motor?
1106	The operation of electric generators and motors depend on the ___
1107	In a D.C. motor, unidirectional torque is produced with the ___
1108	A series motor is started without ___
1109	The speed of a D.C. shunt motor is required to be ___
1110	When the armature of a D.C. motor rotates, e.m.f. induced is ___
1111	D.C. generators are installed near the load centres to ___
1112	Which of the following steps is likely to result in reduction of hysteresis loss in a D.C. generator?
1113	The retardation test is applicable to shunt motors and ___
1114	The hysteresis loss in a D.C. machine least depends on ___
1115	Ward-Leonard control is basically a ___
1116	If a D.C. motor designed for 40°C ambient temperature is ___
1117	If Ia be the armature current, then speed of ___
1118	As the load is increased the speed of D.C. shunt motor will ___
1119	Which D.C. motor is generally preferred for cranes and hoists?
1120	When the speed of a D.C. motor increases ___
1121	Which D.C. motor has got maximum self loading property?
1122	In a D.C. generator in case the brushes are moved so as to ___
1123	In D.C. generator, on ___
1124	For a D.C. generator when the number of poles and the number of ___
1125	The commutator segments are connected to the armature conductors by ___
1126	When the shunt field of a compound generator is ___
1127	A properly designed D.C. generator can have an overall efficiency of ___
1128	If residual magnetism of a shunt generator is ___
1129	Two generators A and B running in parallel are supplying power to ___
1130	A shunt generator can self-excite ___
1131	Following energized winding of a D.C. machine should not be opened as ___
1132	In over compounded generator, full load terminal voltage is ___
1133	Lap winding is composed of ___
1134	Armature coil is short-circuited by brushes when it ___
1135	In D.C. generators on no-load, the air gap flux distribution in ___
1136	Following D.C. generator will be in a position to ___
1137	The e.m.f. generated by a shunt wound D.C. generator is ___
1138	The demagnetising component of armature reaction in a ___
1139	In a D.C. machine, short-circuited field coil will result in ___
1140	In a D.C. generator, the armature reaction results in ___
1141	Brushes of D.C. machines are made of ___
1142	In lap winding, the number of brushes is ___
1143	The field coils of D.C. generator are usually made of ___
1144	Which of the following statements is incorrect in D.C. shunt generators about hysteresis loss?
1145	If a self excited D.C. generator after being installed, fails to build up on ___
1146	Which generator would you prefer for feeding long D.C. transmission lines?
1147	A series generator can ___
1148	Armature reaction in a generator results in ___
1149	In a D.C. machine stray loss is the ___
1150	To achieve sparkless commutation brushes of a D.C. generator are ___
1151	In a D.C. generator in order to reduce sparking at brushes, the ___
1152	D.C. series generator is ___
1153	The voltage drop for which of the following types of brush can be expected to be least?
1154	Which of the following statement about D.C. generators is false?
1155	Eddy currents are induced in the pole shoes of a D.C. machine due to ___
1156	Requirement of speed at which machine is ___
1157	In D.C. generators, the cause of rapid brush wear may be ___
1158	The resistance of armature winding depends on ___
1159	An ideal D.C. generator has a regulation of ___
1160	The main factor which leads to unstable parallel operation of ___
1161	With a D.C. generator which of the following regulation is preferred?
1162	D. C. generator works on the principle of ___
1163	If residual magnetism is present in a D.C. generator, the induced e.m.f. at ___
1164	In any rotating machine that part which houses the conductors and in ___
1165	In a D.C. generator the critical resistance refers to ___
1166	In a D.C. generator the magnetic neutral axis coincides with ___
1167	For the parallel operation of two or more D.C. compound generators, we should ___
1168	Two generators A and B have ___
1169	A D.C. welding generator has ___
1170	D.C. generators are connected to the busbars or disconnected from ___
1171	For generating large currents on D.C. generators which winding is ___
1172	The bearings used to support the rotor shafts are ___
1173	The armature of D.C. generator is laminated to ___
1174	An external resistance added in the field of ___
1175	Shunt generators are most suited for stable parallel operation because of ___
1176	When two D.C. generators are running in parallel an equilizer bar is ___
1177	Two generators are running in ___
1178	In a separately excited generator supplying rated load the ___
1179	A D.C. generator can be considered as ___
1180	The e.m.f. induced in the armature of a shunt generator is ___
1181	In a D.C. machine, fractional pitch winding is ___
1182	In the case of lap winding resultant pitch is ___
1183	Armature reaction of an unsaturated D.C. machine is ___
1184	Iron losses in a D.C. machine are independent of ___
1185	While applying Fleming’s right-hand rule to find the direction of ___
1186	Which one of the following generators is used for charging the batteries?
1187	As a result of armature reaction, the reduction in the total mutual air gap flux in ___
1188	In case of D.C. generators, the armature voltage control is considered as ___
1189	Which of the following generators will be preferred if they are required to be run in parallel?
1190	A 220 V D.C. generator is run at full speed without any ___
1191	Which of the following D.C. generators will be in a position to build up without any residual magnetism in the poles?
1192	Number of tappings for each equilizer ring is ___
1193	Flashing the field of D.C. generator means ___
1194	In D.C. generators the polarity of ___
1195	Open circuited armature coil of a D.C. machine is ___
1196	In a D.C. generator the ripples in the direct e.m.f. generated are reduced by ___
1197	The function of pole shoes in the case of D.C. machine is ___
1198	If brushes of a D.C. generator are moved in order to bring these brushes in ___
1199	The insulating material used between the commutator segments is ___
1200	In case of D.C. machines, mechanical losses are ___
1201	Fleming’s right-hand rule regarding direction of ___
1202	Laminations of core are generally made of ___
1203	In D.C. generators, the brushes remain in contact with ___
1204	A simple method of increasing the voltage of ___
1205	The series field of a short-shunt D.C. generator is ___
1206	The essential condition for parallel operation of ___
1207	Which of the following generating machine will offer constant voltage on all loads?
1208	A sinusoidal voltage of 5 Hz is applied to the field of ___
1209	Which of the following generator will have negligible terminal voltage while running on no-load?
1210	The rapid wear of brushes takes place due to ___
1211	A D.C. generator fails to build up the probable cause could ___
1212	Permeance is the reciprocal of ___
1213	Satisfactory commutation of D.C. machines requires ___
1214	Which of the following components of a D.C. generator plays ___
1215	For a D.C. machines laboratory following type of D.C. supply will be ___
1216	In a lap wound D.C. generator having p as number of poles and Z as ___
1217	The material for commutator brushes is ___
1218	A separately excited generator as compared to a ___
1219	According to Fleming’s right-hand rule for finding the direction of ___
1220	Which of the following could be lamina-proximately the thickness of lamina-tions of a D.C. machine?
1221	Which generator cannot start if there is no residual magnetism?
1222	The ___ generator has poorest voltage regulation
1223	For both lap and wave windings, there are as many commutator bars as ___
1224	Two D.C. shunt generators, each with armature resistance of ___
1225	When two D.C. series generators are running in parallel, an equilizer bar is ___
1226	In a D.C. generator ___
1227	In case of a ___
1228	The following constitute short-circuit in ___
1229	In a shunt generator the voltage build up is generally restricted by ___
1230	In a D.C. generator the number of mechanical degrees and electrical degrees will ___
1231	D.C. generator generates ___
1232	Compensating windings are used in ___
1233	In case of D.C. machine winding, number of commutator segments is ___
1234	In D.C. generators, the brushes on commutator remain in ___
1235	In case of a 4-pole D.C. generator provided with a ___
1236	Copper brushes in D.C. machine are ___
1237	In D.C. generators the pole shoes are fastened to ___
1238	If the no load voltage of a certain generator is 210 V and ___
1239	Which one of the following types of generators does not ___
1240	The number of armature parallel paths in a ___
1241	The open circuit voltage of a compound generator is ___
1242	The critical resistance of the D.C. generator is ___
1243	The terminal voltage of a D.C. shunt generator drops on ___
1244	An exciter for a turbo generator is a ___
1245	To avoid formation of grooves in the commutator of ___
1246	The purpose of providing dummy coils in a ___
1247	D.C. generator generally preferred for charging automobile batteries is ___
1248	The armature core of a D.C. generator is ___
1249	The number of brushes in a commutator depends on ___
1250	The polarity of a D.C. generator can be reversed by
1251	If B is the flux density, i the length of ___
1252	In a four-pole D.C. machine ___
1253	In a commutator ___
1254	Drop in speed of a D.C. generator due to increase in ___
1255	The slight curvature at the lower emf of the O.C.C. of ___
1256	In a D.C. generator the critical resistance can be increased by ___
1257	The terminal voltage of a series generator is 150 V when the load current is ___
1258	Wave winding is composed of ___
1259	In a level compounded D.C. generator, full load terminal voltage is ___
1260	In a D.C. generator in case the resistance of the field winding is ___
1261	A cumulatively compounded long shunt generator when ___
1262	A shunt generator running at 1000 r.p.m. has ___
1263	Interpole flux should be ___
1264	In a D.C. generator the actual flux distribution depends upon ___
1265	Magnetic field in a D.C. generator is produced by ___
1266	Equilizer rings are required in ___
1267	Which of the following is the common synchronous speed in ___
1268	An alternator operating at lower voltage, for the same power rating, will be ___
1269	Which of the following conditions does not have to be met by alternators working in parallel?
1270	If the driving force of both the alternators running in parallel is ___
1271	As load power factor of an alternator becomes more ___
1272	Two alternators are to be put in ___
1273	The load between two steam-driven alternators operating in ___
1274	For parallel operation, A.C. polyphase alternators must have the same ___
1275	Turbo-alternators usually have ___
1276	To obtain sinusoidal flux distribution ___
1277	If an alternator is operating at leading power factor, then it can be ___
1278	The slip rings employed in a 3-phase alternator in hydro station are ___
1279	Which of the following is not integral part of synchronous generator system?
1280	Harmonic component of generated e.m.f. will be more in ___
1281	Turbo-alternators are generally used to run at ___
1282	The speed of a 4-pole 60 Hz synchronous machine will be ___
1283	___ plays an important role in overspeed protection of a generator?
1284	In an alternator, the frequency of voltage generated depends on ___
1285	When an alternator is supplying unity power factor load, the ___
1286	The distribution factor, in alternators, is defined as ___
1287	The power factor of an alternator is determined by its ___
1288	The choice of field construction, in an alternator, is ___
1289	If the input to the prime mover of an alternator is kept constant but ___
1290	Synchronous impedance method gives more regulation as ___
1291	In an alternator terminal voltage rise will be ___
1292	4 pole 1500 r.p.m. alternator will generate e.m.f. at ___
1293	Dirt accumulation in generators can cause all of ___
1294	When the speed of an altenator increases ___
1295	Unbalanced three-phase stator currents cause ___
1296	In power generating stations (Thermal stations), the usual number of ___
1297	The speed of a p-pole synchronous machine in r.p.m. is ___
1298	Salient pole type alternators are ___
1299	The speed of a p-pole synchronous machine in ___
1300	In an alternator one of the advantages of ___
1301	In an alternator, the armature reaction ___
1302	At leading power factor, the armature flux in ___
1303	If two alternators are running in parallel and the excitation of one of the alternators is ___
1304	Which of the following coils in an alternator will have e.m.f. closer to sine waveform?
1305	If two alternators are running in proper synchronism and the voltage of ___
1306	In a larger generator dampers ___
1307	The power factor of an alternator is determined by ___
1308	In an alternator, armature reaction is considered equivalent to ___
1309	Non-salient pole type of rotor construction is usually provided in ___
1310	Which harmonic will be totally eliminated in an alternator by using a fractional pitch of 4/5?
1311	In a star connected armature winding ___
1312	Large-diameter salient-pole rotors have short axial length mainly because ___
1313	For parallel operation of the two alternators, desirable feature is ___
1314	Two alternators ‘1’ and ‘2’ are sharing an inductive load equally ___
1315	An alternator driven by a Francis hydraulic turbine is ___
1316	The power drawn by the prime-mover of an alternator, under ___
1317	Salient pole rotors are used where ___
1318	In an alternator short-circuit current is limited by ___
1319	Alternator of a central power station will have ___
1320	In an alternator the armature reaction is mainly influenced by ___
1321	An infinite bus bar has ___
1322	In a synchronous machine, all of the following losses are ___
1323	Alternators are usually designed to ___
1324	The number of poles in turbo-alternator is ___
1325	An alternator coupled to which primemover will usually have the highest rotating speed?
1326	Due to which of the following reasons, for aircraft alternators high frequency is used?
1327	If the voltage of one of the two machines running in synchronism is ___
1328	When two alternators are running in exact synchronism, the ___
1329	In turbo-alternators, smooth cylindrical type rotors used have ___
1330	The advantage of salient poles in an alternator is ___
1331	An exciter for a generator is ___
1332	An alternator is said to be over excited when it is ___
1333	A stationary alternator should not be connected to ___
1334	For a 3-phase winding with 5 slots per pole per phase and ___
1335	Voltage regulation obtained by synchronous impedance method is ___
1336	For a given output steam turbo-alternators are much smaller is ___
1337	Zero power factor method for an alternator is ___
1338	Regulation of an alternator supplying leading load is ___
1339	The dark and bright lamp method is ___
1340	Where the terminal voltage of an alternator falls on throwing of ___
1341	In case of turbo-alternators the rotor is ___
1342	Hydrogen is used in large alternators mainly to ___
1343	The permissible duration for which a generator of rated frequency 50 Hz can ___
1344	One of the super-thermal power stations is ___
1345	In an alternator field the effect of crossmagnetisation is to ___
1346	If the driving power from the primemover driving an alternator is lost but the alternator remains connected to ___
1347	The regulation of an alternator is ___
1348	Due to which of the following- reasons concentrated windings are not used in alternators?
1349	Which of the following methods is best for finding the voltage regulation?
1350	If the space flux distribution is nonsinusoidal, e.m.f. induced in the ___
1351	In an alternator, the stator frame serves ___
1352	The speed of an alternator is changed from ___
1353	Excessive windage loss and noise occur with ___
1354	In an alternator, the armature reaction will be completely magnetizing in ___
1355	The speed of a salient pole machine is ___
1356	In which coil the harmonic component of the generated e.m.f. will be more?
1357	An exciter is a nothing but a ___
1358	In order to reduce the harmonics in the e.m.f. generated in ___
1359	Which of the following prime-movers is the Ieast efficient?
1360	In an alternator, pitch factor is the ratio of ___
1361	In an alternator zero power factor method is used to find the ___
1362	Two alternators are running in ___
1363	The regulation of an alternator is likely to be negative in case of ___
1364	An alternator running in parallel with other alternators all having ___
1365	For the alternators operating in parallel, if the load shared by one of them is to be ___
1366	Generated e.m.f. for same field current and double speed will be ___
1367	In a cylindrical rotor how much portion of the rotor is wound?
1368	In an alternator, for a coil having a span of 2/3 of pole pitch, the ___
1369	Fleming’s left hand rule may be applied to an electric generator to ___
1370	Modern 3-phase alternator of a central power station will have ___
1371	Which of the following primemover is least efficient?
1372	Which of the following organisations is engaged in the manufacture of large size alternators for ___
1373	Which of the following relays come into operation in the event of ___
1374	A lower voltage alternator, for the same power rating, will be ___
1375	The Poter’s triangle separates the ___
1376	Synchronous impedance method of finding voltage regulation of ___
1377	The maximum current that can be supplied by an alternator depends on ___
1378	Dirt accumulation in generators can cause ___
1379	A commercial alternator has ___
1380	If the input to the primemover of an alternator is kept constant but ___
1381	Alternators, now a days, are designed to have ___
1382	Damper winding on alternator results in all of the ___
1383	In alternators the standard practice, now a days is to ___
1384	In a large generator, dampers ___
1385	What kind of rotor is most suitable for turbo-alternators which are designed to run at high speed?
1386	The frequency of voltage generated in large alternators is ___
1387	What is the largest size of alternator being manufactured in India?
1388	Salient pole type rotors as compared to ___
1389	When two alternators are running in parallel, their kVAR load share and kW load ___
1390	The fictitious part of synchronous reactance takes care of ___
1391	In an alternator, when the load power factor is ___
1392	In an alternator, the flux created by the armature m.m.f. subtracts directly from the ___
1393	Overheating of generator’s winding ___
1394	Unlike D.C. generator kW rating, alternators are rated in ___
1395	Turbo-rotor is made up of ___
1396	In an alternator short pitch coils are used ___
1397	In air-crafts, alternators have operating frequency of ___
1398	Which fractional pitch will eliminate the seventh harmonic from the voltage waveform of an alternator?
1399	An alternator is capable of delivering power at a ___
1400	Which of the following is a prime mover?
1401	When a three-phase alternator supplies capacitive load, armature reaction ___
1402	The rotor preferred for alternators applied to ___
1403	Which one of the following statements regarding the position of ___
1404	The synchronous impedance of a synchronous-induction motor is ___
1405	Stable operation of an induction motor is ___
1406	The rotor of motor-convertor is wound for ___
1407	The large sized induction motors are protected against overload by ___
1408	A 4-pole, 50 Hz, 3-phase induction motor has blocked rotor reactance per ___
1409	Crawling in an induction motor is due to ___
1410	A 3-phase squirrel cage induction motor has a full-load efficiency of ___
1411	In a 3-phase slip-ring induction motor high starting torque is ___
1412	The input to a stepper motor is in the form of ___
1413	When will a slip-ring induction motor run at super synchronous speed?
1414	The core losses, and friction and windage losses in case of ___
1415	Given that D=rotor diameter and L=axial length, a high performance ___
1416	Consequent pole technique employed for speed control of ___
1417	The power factor of a lightly loaded induction motor is ___
1418	Which of the following types of motors are not the commutator motors?
1419	A 3-phase induction motor fed from a 3-phase voltage regulator is ___
1420	What is the rotor copper loss of a 3-phase 550 volt, 50Hz, 6 poles ___
1421	An electric motor gets ___
1422	In auto-transformer starting of a 3-phase induction motor, if ___
1423	The rotor of a three phase, 5 kW, 400 V, 50Hz, slip ring induction motor is ___
1424	Iron loss in the rotor of a 3-phase induction motor is ___
1425	The starting current of a 3Φ induction motor is 5 times the ___
1426	The maximum possible speed of a 3-phase squirrel cage induction motor running at ___
1427	An increase in rotor circuit reactance of a 3-phase induction motor will ___
1428	In an hysteresis motor, the rotor core must have ___
1429	For starting a 3-phase induction motor ___
1430	If Ns is the synchronous speed, N is the rotor speed and s is the slip then ___
1431	Which one of the following statements is correct in respect of an induction motor?
1432	Reluctance torque is the ___
1433	A 3-phase induction motor is operating at its ___
1434	The rotor circuit of an induction motor under operating condition is ___
1435	The starting torque of a squirrel cage induction motor is ___
1436	Direction of rotation of a repulsion motor is reversed by ___
1437	Induction motors, over synchronous motors, have the ___
1438	A 3-phase, 4-pole squirrel cage induction motor has ___
1439	In an induction motor under running condition, the rotor reactance per phase is ___
1440	In a repulsion motor the brushes are ___
1441	In the ecluivalent circuit of a double cage induction motor the ___
1442	In a 3-phase wound rotor induction motor the short-circuit gear is ___
1443	In a slip-ring induction motor, the frequency of rotor currents can be ___
1444	The armature reaction in a large sized universal motor is ___
1445	The rotor slots in a 3-phase induction motor are ___
1446	The induction motor shaft is made of ___
1447	A 3-phase induction motor is operating at ___
1448	An induction motor with larger number of slots has ___
1449	An induction motor works with ___
1450	An 8 pole alternator runs at ___
1451	In a large sized ac series motor, the inductive effects of ___
1452	A salient pole synchronous generator delivering power to an infinite bus through a ___
1453	The voltage actually used for setting up of the useful flux in the ___
1454	In hand tool applications, which one of the following single-phase motors is used?
1455	Zero sequence impedance of a 3-phase cage induction motor is ___
1456	Two alternators each having 4% speed regulation are working in ___
1457	The relative speed between stator and rotor fluxes is ___
1458	In a shaded-pole induction motor, the rotor runs from the ___
1459	In which of the following tests to be conducted on ___
1460	Synchronising current means ___
1461	A wound rotor induction motor can be distinguished from ___
1462	In a ceiling fan employing permanent capacitor motor ___
1463	In a 3-phase induction motor, the variable mechanical load is ___
1464	The alternators are operated in parallel because it ___
1465	The rotor winding for a 3-phase slip-ring induction motor having ___
1466	If the capacitor of a capacitor start induction motor is ___
1467	The rotor power output of a 3-phase induction motor is ___
1468	If all the stator coils of an induction motor are connected for the same magnetic polarity, there will ___
1469	The capacitor usually used on 1440 rpm, 50 Hz capacitor-start induction motor is ___
1470	Whenever any polyphase induction motor is ___
1471	While starting a synchronous motor its field winding should be ___
1472	A power station consists of two synchronous generators A and B of ___
1473	Centrifugal switch fitted on the rotor will operate when ___
1474	A 3-phase induction motor is driving a constant torque load of 1 pu at ___
1475	The number of poles on a pony motor employed for starting of a ___
1476	If the prime mover of an alternator supplying load to an infinite bus is ___
1477	Single phase induction motors are made self starting by ___
1478	A 3-phase synchronous motor hunts due to ___
1479	Two 3-phase Y-connected alternators are to be paralleled to a set of ___
1480	In a comparative study of the torque-slip characteristic of a ___
1481	In an induction motor if the flux density is reduced to one-half of its ___
1482	A synchronous motor operating at rated voltage draws 1.0 pu current at ___
1483	Desirable feature for successful parallel operation of two alternators is ___
1484	In a single phase ac induction motor ___
1485	In a 3-phase 50 Hz induction motor the voltage between the ___
1486	Stability of a synchronous motor ___
1487	A 3-phase synchronous motor is widely used for ___
1488	In particular motor there is a stator phase winding and ___
1489	An induction motor having 8 poles runs at ___
1490	At constant load, the magnitude of armature current drawn by a ___
1491	The rotor copper losses of a synchronous motor are met by ___
1492	The secondary of a linear induction motor normally consists of a ___
1493	The direction of rotation of a 3-phase induction motor is clockwise when it is ___
1494	When the excitation of normally operating unloaded salient-pole synchronous ___
1495	A cylindrical rotor synchronous motor is switched on to the ___
1496	If any two leads front slip rings are interchanged in ___
1497	A synchronous generator connected to an infinite bus is ___
1498	A pony motor is basically a ___
1499	In dynamic braking of 3-phase induction motors ___
1500	Skewing of the rotor in a three-phase squirrel-cage induction motor reduces ___
1501	Which of the following devices can be used as a phase advancer?
1502	Speeds higher than synchronous speed can be ___
1503	A smaller air gap in a polyphase induction motor helps to ___
1504	For a given developed power, a synchronous motor operating from a ___
1505	Rotor resistance speed control used for 3-phase slip-ring induction motors has ___
1506	In a 3-phase squirrel cage induction motor ___
1507	A 3-phase synchronous motor needs dc supply for ___
1508	A synchronous motor installed at the end of a transmission line is ___
1509	In a variable speed induction motor drive V/f is kept constant over a wide range of its ___
1510	Which of the following statements associated with polyphase induction motor is/are correct?
1511	In a synchronous machine, if the armature field axis is ahead of the ___
1512	In a synchronous motor the excitation voltage on no load is approximately equal to ___
1513	If the excitation of an alternator connected to an infinite bus-bar is changed, keeping the ___
1514	A polyphase field is ___
1515	What is the effect of the field failure of salient pole synchronous motor connected with infinite bus?
1516	The starting current of an induction motor is 5 times the full-load current while ___
1517	Synchronising torque will come into ___
1518	The direct axis and quadrature axis reactances of a salient pole alternator are ___
1519	An induction motor having full-load torque of 60 Nm when ___
1520	In case one phase of a 3 -phase synchronous motor is ___
1521	Which one of the following methods gives more accurate result for ___
1522	The magnitude of emf induced in the armature of a ___
1523	Unbalanced supply voltage given to a 3-phase, delta-connected induction motor will ___
1524	Which of the following methods is employed for starting a 3- phase synchronous motor?
1525	Under short-circuit conditions, the power factor of ___
1526	A 3-phase synchronous motor ___
1527	In a double squirrel cage induction motor, the resistance of upper cage is ___
1528	The damper windings also called the squirrel cage windings or ___
1529	A 500 kVA, 1,100 V, 50Hz Y-connected 3 phase alternator has ___
1530	In a synchronous motor ___
1531	An induction motor and synchronous motor are connected to ___
1532	The saturated synchronous reactance of an alternator is ___
1533	A stand alone engine-driven synchronous generator is ___
1534	The torque angle of a synchronous machine operating from a ___
1535	Armature reaction effect is/are ___
1536	A 50 Hz alternator is ___
1537	The cogging occurs in induction motors due to ___
1538	A synchrnous motor, connected to an infinite bus, is working at ___
1539	When an alternator designed for operation at 60Hz is ___
1540	The synchronous speed for the seventh space ___
1541	The speed of a synchronous motor can be ___
1542	No-load test on a 3-phase induction motor was conducted at ___
1543	The operation of a 3-phase synchronous motor operating on constant excitation across ___
1544	It is desirable to eliminate 5th harmonie voltage from the phase voltage of ___
1545	The regulation obtained by synchronous impedance method is ___
1546	Under no-load condition, if the applied voltage to an induction motor is ___
1547	The power factor of an induction motor operating at no load will have ___
1548	The coupling angle or load angle of a synchronous motor is defined as ___
1549	The effects of slot harmonics are effectively reduced by ___
1550	The power factor on which an alternator operates depends on the ___
1551	The power factor of- a 3-phase induction motor is likely to be ___
1552	A 400 V, 15 kW, 4-pole, 50 Hz Y-connected induction motor has ___
1553	The armature current of a synchronous motor on ___
1554	For a concentrated winding the polar group of each phase is ___
1555	The synchronous reactance is the ___
1556	In induction motor, air gap power is 10 kW and ___
1557	What is the ratio of starting torque and maximum torque of a ___
1558	In a 3-phase synchronous motor the magnitude of ___
1559	For a two layer winding the number of stator slots is equal to ___
1560	Leakage reactance of the armature of a salient pole synchronous machine which ___
1561	In a 3-phase induction motor iron loss mainly ___
1562	Beyond the point of maximum torque any further increase in load will ___
1563	A synchronous generator has its field winding on the rotor and ___
1564	The maximum possible speed at which an alternator can be ___
1565	How can the reactive power delivered by a synchronous generator be controlled?
1566	A 3-phase induction motor if the leakage reactance is reduced by ___
1567	For a slip-ring induction motor, if the rotor resistance is ___
1568	Which of the statements is true?
1569	In salient pole field structure, the pole shoes cover about ___
1570	The armature of a single phase alternator is completely wound with ___
1571	Breakdown torque of a 3-phase induction motor of ___
1572	If a 400 V, 50 Hz star-connected, 3-phase squirrel cage induction motor is ___
1573	A synchronous motor is operated from a bus voltage of 1.0 pu and is ___
1574	The stator core stampings also have openings which make ___
1575	The stator of a 3-phase, 6-pole machine has ___
1576	In case of an induction motor the leakage flux is more in comparison to that of ___
1577	Modern alternators are designed to have poor regulation as ___
1578	The armature of an ___
1579	If the space flux distribution is non-sinusoidal. emf induced in the ___
1580	In a 3-phase induction motor reactance under running condition is less than its ___
1581	A voltmeter gives 120 oscillations per minute when connected to ___
1582	The most important items to be kept under constant watch during operation of ___
1583	The stator of modern alternators are wound for ___
1584	The rotor of a 4-pole, 50Hz, 3-phase slip-ring induction motor runs in ___
1585	The mmf produced by the rotor currents of a ___
1586	A field excitation of 20 A in a certain alternator results in an armature current of 400 A in ___
1587	The rating of a transformer ___
1588	Cylindrical rotor alternators use ___
1589	In an induction motor the slip will be negative when ___
1590	At the instant of starting, the per unit slip of the ___
1591	In a synchronous generator, the effect of crossmagnetization is to ___
1592	In a constant voltage transformer (CVT), the output voltage remains constant due to ___
1593	A three-phase 440V, 6 pole, 50Hz, squirrel cage induction motor is ___
1594	The direction of rotation of a 3-phase induction motor can be ___
1595	The flux set up by the armature current, which does not cross the ___
1596	The kVA rating of an isolation transformer increases when connected as ___
1597	In a synchronous machine, the stator frame is ___
1598	The rotor of an induction motor never runs at synchronous speed, because then ___
1599	The 5th space harmonics in the mmf developed by ___
1600	A 2V/1 V two-winding transformer is connected as an ___
1601	Alternator operates on the principle of ___
1602	The rotor of a 3-phase induction motor rotates in the same direction as ___
1603	Which of the following parameters in an induction motor influences the ___
1604	A 4-pole 3-phase. double layer winding is housed in a 36 slot stator for ___
1605	Two transformers are to be operated in parallel such that they share load in ___
1606	Overcurrents in a transformer adversely affect ___
1607	Which of the following statements about a squirrel induction cage motor is incorrect?
1608	The squirrel cage induction motors are provided with blades in ___
1609	Chording and distribution of armature windings for ___
1610	Two transformers when operating in parallel will share the load depending upon which of the following?
1611	The three-phase transformers each rated at ___
1612	In a 3-phase slip-ring induction motor, the ___
1613	The frame of an induction motor is ___
1614	A three-phase 50 Hz, li kV and 37.5 MW at 0.9 p.f. capacity synchronous generator has ___
1615	For successful parallel operation of two single phase transformers, the ___
1616	For off-load tap changing the best method is to ___
1617	Use of fractional pitch winding ___
1618	In a salient pole synchronous machine, the air gap is ___
1619	A single-phase 50 kVA, 250 V/500 V two winding transformer has an ___
1620	Four identical alternators each rated for 20 MVA, 11 kV having a ___
1621	Two alternators A and B are sharing an ___
1622	The field system of an alternator is usually excited at ___
1623	Three single phase transformers, each of 100 kVA rating, are connected in a ___
1624	What is the power transmitted inductively in an auto-transformer which supplies a ___
1625	An alternator connected to an infinite bus, for a given excitation, will ___
1626	Which of the following methods used for synchronising of ___
1627	The current from the stator of an alternator is taken out to ___
1628	In the statement, “In a star/delta transformer, there exists a phase difference of ___
1629	If per unit impedances of two transformers connected in parallel are ___
1630	When two alternators are operating in ___
1631	Which of the following is not the advantage of a synchronous motor?
1632	Repeated switching-in of transformers located near the ___
1633	Addition of tubes to the transformer tank improves ___
1634	Two 3-phase transformers are to be connected for ___
1635	The two-bright and one dark lamp method is ___
1636	Synchronous motors are inherently not self-starting motors as ___
1637	In a single phase induction regulator, compensating winding is provided in order to ___
1638	Conditions for parallel operation of transformer are ___
1639	Which of the following synchronous motors has cost comparable to that of an induction motor?
1640	During hunting of synchronous motor ___
1641	Constant current transformer is of ___
1642	Buchholz relay is used for ___
1643	Supply to one terminal of a delta-wye connected three phase core ___
1644	During short-circuit test on a synchronous motor ___
1645	The power factor of a synchronous motor ___
1646	It is advisable to use auto-transformer if the ___
1647	Conservator (for transformer) is ___
1648	In a properly connected Y-A transformer, a voltmeter connected in ___
1649	A 3-phase synchronous motor provided with damper winding is ___
1650	A synchronous motor will deliver maximum power when ___
1651	In an auto-transformer, power is ___
1652	Under short-circuit condition, the windings of a transfonner having 5% impedance will ___
1653	In a synchronous motor when the rotor speed exceeds ___
1654	A synchronous motor is operating on no load at ___
1655	Two transformers, with equal rating and negligible excitation current, connected in ___
1656	The noise, in a transformer, caused by vibrations of laminations set by ___
1657	Which of the following methods is employed for cooling of power transformers of rating not exceeding 10 MVA?
1658	Synchronous condenser means ___
1659	A synchronous motor with comparatively large ___
1660	In which transformer, the tertiary winding is used?
1661	Which of the following will improve the mutual coupling between primary and secondary circuits?
1662	For core type power transformers, both primary and secondary windings have ___
1663	The power developed by a synchronous motor for constant supply voltage and ___
1664	A 3-phase synchronous motor connected to an ___
1665	A Δ/Δ connected transformer is connected to V/V connected transformer ___
1666	Malfunctioning of the Buchholz relay may be caused due to ___
1667	The value of load angle for a synchronous motor depends mainly upon its ___
1668	What does the use of higher flux density value in a transformer design lead to?
1669	Malfunctioning of the Buchholz relay may be ___
1670	A 3-phase synchronous motor is operating at a ___
1671	The value of load angle for a synchronous motor depends mainly upon ___
1672	If a 250 MVA, 11/400 kV three-phase power transformer has leakage reactance of ___
1673	When a short-circuit test on a transformer is performed at ___
1674	Transformer oil must be ___
1675	The magnitude of counter or back emf in ___
1676	The synchronous motor meets increase in load by ___
1677	The low-voltage winding of a core type transformer is subdivided into ___
1678	The efficiency of a 100 kVA transformer is 0.98 at ___
1679	A salient pole synchronous motor is ___
1680	What is the angle between the induced voltage and supply voltage of a synchronous motor under running condition?
1681	While performing the open-circuit antI short-circuit tests on a transformer to ___
1682	For CRGOS mitred overlap is preferred for the ___
1683	When does a synchronous motor operate with leading power factor current?
1684	Number of slip-rings in a 3-phase synchronous motor will be ___
1685	In a large power transformer, a “conservator” drum is provided above the ___
1686	In transformers, which of the following statements is valid?
1687	The permissible flux density in cold rolled grain oriented steel is ___
1688	Electromagnetic torque is present in ___
1689	A 3-Φ alternator has negligible stator resistance ___
1690	Minor insulation in a transformer is the ___
1691	On which of the following factors does hysteresis loss depend?
1692	The desirable properties of transformer core material are ___
1693	The resultant voltage acting across the armature circuit of ___
1694	Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of synchronous machines?
1695	The leakage flux of primary and secondary windings can be ___
1696	A 4 kVA, 400/200 V single-phase transformer has ___
1697	A 2 kVA Lransformer has iron loss of 150 W and ___
1698	The relative speed between the magnetic fields of ___
1699	The phasor diagram by ASA method gives ___
1700	Why is the core of the transformer built up of laminations?
1701	In a transformer supplying inductive ___
1702	The transformer efficiency, under heavy loads, is comparatively low due to ___
1703	An ideal synchronous motor has no ___
1704	The effect of leading power factor on the voltage regulation of ___
1705	Ferrite cores are employed in high frequency transformers due to ___
1706	Primary winding of a transformer comprises of two identical windings in ___
1707	A 20 kVA. 2000/200 V. I-phase transformer has ___
1708	A turbo-alternator set feeds power to a 3-phase constant ___
1709	When the load (inductive) is thrown off, the ___
1710	When the load (inductive) is thrown off, the terminal voltage will ___
1711	Power transformers are designed to have maximum efficiency around ___
1712	Can a 50Hz transformer be used for 25 Hz, if the input voltage is ___
1713	The open-circuit test on a transformer is usually performed by ___
1714	Which of the below is the correct statement?
1715	In an alternator, the armature reaction is considered to be ___
1716	For a transformer to be tested at full load conditions but consuming only ___
1717	If the applied voltage of a certain transformer is increased by 50% and ___
1718	In a power transformer iron losses remain practically constant from ___
1719	A 3-phase alternator rated at 50 MVA, 22 kV has a ___
1720	When a no-load test is carried out on hv side of ___
1721	The primary and secondary windings of ___
1722	In a transformer, zero voltage regulation at full load is ___
1723	The phase sequence of a three-phase alternator will ___
1724	If the frequency of input voltage of a transformer is ___
1725	Utility factor is maximum for ___
1726	The power factor of a transformer on no load is poor due to ___
1727	In a synchronous generator delivering lagging ___
1728	Skew of rotor bar eliminates ___
1729	When a transformer is operating on no load, the primary applied voltage is ___
1730	By connecting reactances at the slip-ring leads of a ___
1731	1 kVA, 230 V, 50 Hz, single phase transformer has ____
1732	Armature reaction AT of a synchronous generator supplying power at ___
1733	The windings for an alternator are ___
1734	The inductive reactance of a transformer depends on ___
1735	In a 12-phase star delta-double star connectìon, voltage of ___
1736	A transformer steps up the voltage by a ___
1737	Three generators rated 100 MVA, 11 kV have an impedance of ___
1738	The aircraft alternators are designed to generate emf of high frequency of ___
1739	In a transformer core, third and fifth harmonic components of ___
1740	A rotary convertor combines the functions of ___
1741	Power factor of an alternator driven by constant prime mover input can be ___
1742	To obtain sinusoidal flux distribution, chamfering of ___
1743	If the supply frequency of a transformer is increased, keeping the ___
1744	Which one of the following types of motors is most suitable for a computer printer drive?
1745	If the dimensions of all the parts of ___
1746	In a large synchronous generator, the damper winding is ___
1747	If rated dc voltage is applied instead of ac to the primary of ___
1748	Which one among the following has the highest numerical value in ___
1749	The voltage drop in arc primarily depends on
1750	4 pole star-connected alternator running at ___
1751	Which type of alternator is used in hydroelectric power stations?
1752	Interphase transformers are used to ___
1753	While a 2-phase ac servomotor is in operation, if the voltage across the ___
1754	Voltage control in a rotary convertor is ___
1755	Distortion of the whole core and subsequent damage to the ___
1756	In comparison to mercury arc rectifiers metal rectifiers ___
1757	In a rotary convertor, ac and dc armature powers will be ___
1758	For speeds higher than say 3000 rpm, the machine used is ___
1759	In a motor-convertor the commutator machine acts as ___
1760	In turbo-alternators, smooth cylindrical rotors have ___
1761	A 3 Φ, 3 stack, variable reluctance step motor has 20 poles on ___
1762	An open in the centrifugal switch circuit gives an indication of ___
1763	Stepper motors are mostly used for ___
1764	A 400 V/100 V, 10 kVA two-winding transformer is reconnected as ___
1765	The following motor definitely has a permanent magnet rotor ___
1766	In which single phase motor, the motor has no teeth or winding?
1767	In a stepper motor, the detent torque means ___
1768	In a synchronous machine, the stator frame serves the ___
1769	A single phase transformer has rating of ___
1770	A two-phase servomotor develops maximum torque at ___
1771	Hysteresis motors are used for Hi-Q record players because of ___
1772	For stability of an ac servomotor ___
1773	Dust should never he allowed to accumulate on the core and windings in a ___
1774	Two transformers of identical voltages but of different capacities are ___
1775	An ac servomotor (2-phase induction motor) has a ___
1776	The repulsion induction motor does not have the ___
1777	A single phase induction regulator is a constant input transformer to ___
1778	Scott-connected transformers can convert ___
1779	If a single phase motor fails to start, it may be due to ___
1780	The repulsion start induction motor has the advantage(s) of ___
1781	The running winding of a single phase motor is ___
1782	Tappings are usually provided on the hv winding of a transformer because it ___
1783	A 3-phase alternator is connected to a ___
1784	A fluctuating voltage supply is detrimental to a refrigerator motor but not to ___
1785	In a single-phase repulsion motor power factor is ___
1786	For toys, the preferred motor is ___
1787	What is the efficiency of an auto-transformer in comparison to that of a two-winding transformer of the same rating?
1788	Five limb construction is preferred over three limb construction as ___
1789	Hysteresis motor operates on the principle of ___
1790	A repulsion motor is equipped with ___
1791	In a single phase hysteresis motor
1792	What is the power transferred conductively from primary to secondary of ___
1793	Which of the following motors is not a synchronous motor?
1794	Direction of rotation of a universal motor can be reversed by ___
1795	In a reluctance motor, when the load increases to an extent that it ___
1796	Two single phase transformers with equal turns have impedances of ___
1797	Sludge formation in transformer oil is due to which one of the following?
1798	Repulsion induction motor has ___
1799	AC series motors are preferably operated on low voltage and ___
1800	Which of the following statements regarding repulsion induction motor is wrong?
1801	If the transformers operated in parallel are not connected with ___
1802	The function of oil in a transformer is ___
1803	If a dc series motor is operated on ac supply, it ___
1804	A repulsion start induction motor operates as an ___
1805	Which of the following conditions is/are necessary for the parallel operation of two transformers?
1806	Low voltage windings are placed next to the core in the case of ___
1807	The commutation of repulsion motor is at its best ___
1808	What is the frequency of rotor current of a 50Hz induction motor operating at 2% slip?
1809	The speed of rotating field due to rotor currents relative to rotor surface in ___
1810	Cross-connecting of commutator bars in repulsion motors reduces ___
1811	Single phase ac motors are classified on ___
1812	If the full-load speed of a 6-phase, 50 Hz induction motor is ___
1813	In a squirrel cage induction motor high starting torque is ___
1814	Direct-on-line starter can be used for small capacity ___
1815	When a rotary convertor is started by means of a ___
1816	A single phase reluctance motor ___
1817	In induction machines, it is usually a standard practice to employ
1818	The speed of single phase induction motors can be ___
1819	In repulsion motors, brash angle with respect to magnetic axis is ___
1820	Transformer core laminations are coated with an enamel layer in ___
1821	Capacitor-start and capacitor-run motors are used in ___
1822	In universal motors, normally the ratio of width of brushes to the width of ___
1823	A 3-phase delta-star transformer is supplied at 6,000 V on the ___
1824	Cores of large power transformers are made from which one of the following?
1825	In an ac series motor, commutation is improved by ___
1826	In a capacitor-start capacitor-run single phase induction motor, the value of capacitor connected ___
1827	A universal motor runs at ___
1828	Which three-phase connection can be used in a transformer to introduce a ___
1829	If P1 and P2 be the iron and copper losses of a transformer
1830	AC series motors are built with as few field turns as possible to ___
1831	The phase-split in a capacitor-start induction motor can be adjusted to ___
1832	In an ac series motor ___
1833	Which part of transformer is subjected to maximum heating?
1834	Two transformers, each having iron loss of ___
1835	The type of single-phase induction motor having the ___
1836	The capacitor in a capacitor-start induction run ac motor is ___
1837	A dc series motor is accidently connected to ___
1838	Which is the arrangement of windings in a core type single phase transformer?
1839	In a 100 kVA, 1100/220 V, 50 Hz single phase transformer with 2,000 turns on ___
1840	In a shaded pole motor, the rotating field is developed by ___
1841	Phase splitting can be accomplished in a ___
1842	In a shaded pole induction motor, locked rotor current is ____ full-load current
1843	The chemical used in breather of a transformer should have the quality of ___
1844	The hysteresis and eddy current loss of 1-phase transformer working on ___
1845	As compared to capacitor start motors two capacitor type induction motors have ___
1846	In comparison to capacitor-start capacitor-runmotor the permanent capacitor motor has ___ ___
1847	A /10 kVA, 400 V/200 V single phase transformer with a resistance of 3% and ___
1848	The capacitor start motor like resistance start motor, has the ___
1849	A single phase induction motor with only the main winding excited ___
1850	In transformers, the primary and secondary are ___
1851	For the purpose of analysis exact equivalent circuit of a transformer is usually replaced by ___
1852	In a single phase induction motor driving a fan load, the reason for ___
1853	Phase advancers are employed with large induction motors to ___
1854	The capacitor employed in a capacitor-start induction motor has ___
1855	The joints in the transformer core laminations are staggered so as to ___
1856	The no-load current of a single phase induction motor is ___
1857	An 8-pole wound rotor induction motor operating at 60Hz supply is driven at ___
1858	The stator winding of a single phase induction motor is splitted into ___
1859	A single phase transformer is to be switched to the supply to ___
1860	A single-phase transformer rated for 220/240 V, 50Hz operates at ___
1861	Single phase ac motors are used in ___
1862	Induction generators deliver power at ___
1863	In an induction motor ___
1864	A 500 kVA transformer has constant loss of 500 W and copper losses at ___
1865	For an ideal transformer the windings should have ___
1866	Which of the following statements associated with a Sehrage motor is/are correct?
1867	If a squirrel cage induction motor run hot, the probable cause could be ___
1868	A single phase induction motor is ___
1869	The transformer efficiency at relatively light loads is ___
1870	The efficiency of a power transformer is ___
1871	Which of the following statements about synchronous-induction motors is incorrect?
1872	At sub-synchronous speed, in Scherbius system, the electrical power supplied to ___
1873	When the stators of two slip-ring induction motors are fed from ___
1874	A 10 kVA, 400 V/200 V single phase transformer with 10% impedance draws a ___
1875	In phase shift control the control is carried out by varying the ___
1876	Three phase induction motor should preferably be ___
1877	In rotor resistance control of induction motor, the hardness of ___
1878	Open-circuit test in a transformer is ___
1879	Lesser the number of anodes in mercury arc ___
1880	The stator and the rotor of a 3-phase. 4-pole wound rotor induction motor are ___
1881	The absolute speed of magnetic field in space of a ___
1882	Which of the following is not the advantage of an induction generator?
1883	In a transformer, the hysteresis and eddy current losses depend upon ___
1884	In a rotary convertor, the copper losses are less in comparison to those of ___
1885	In case of voltage injection method of speed control, the injected emf should be of ___
1886	Armature short-circuits can be detected and identified by ___
1887	Motor-generator set does not suffer from the drawback of ___
1888	The speed of a slip-ring induction motor cannot be controlled by ___
1889	In case of 3-phase slip-ring induction motor, as the rotor resistance is ___
1890	The stator of a 2/4 pole changing cage motor is initially wound for ___
1891	In a transformer ___ decreases with the increase in leakage flux
1892	For V-curves for a synchronous motor the graph is ___
1893	Mostly, synchronous motors are of ___
1894	The rotor developed by a single-phase motor at ___
1895	The speed with which magnetic field of an induction motor rotates ___
1896	For the same rating which of the following motors has the highest starting torque?
1897	Which of the following applications make use of a universal motor?
1898	Shading coils, in case of a shaded pole motor, are ___
1899	In case of a reluctance motor, when the load is increased so ___
1900	Which of the following statements regarding repulsion-start induction motor is incorrect?
1901	Which of the following statements regarding a reluctance motor is incorrect?
1902	In a universal motor, the most common cause of ___
1903	Which of the following motors-is used in a situation where load increases with speed?
1904	If the centrifugal switch does not open at 70 to 80 percent of ___
1905	Which of the following single-phase motors has relatively poor starting torque?
1906	Which of the following motors can be run on A.C. as well as D.C. supply?
1907	Which of the following motors is preferred for taperecorders?
1908	Short-circuiter is used in ___
1909	In repulsion motor direction of rotation of ___
1910	In a split phase motor ___
1911	Which of the following statements about universal motor is incorrect?
1912	For a system involving sound recording and reproduction which motor would you select?
1913	What could be the size of a universal motor for use in vacuum cleaners?
1914	In a universal motor, normally the ratio of width of brush to ___
1915	After the starting winding of a single phase induction motor is ___
1916	In a A.C. series motor armature coils are usually connected to ___
1917	In a two value capacitor motor, the capacitor used for ___
1918	The motor used on small lathes is ___
1919	Direction of rotation of a split phase motor can be reversed by ___
1920	The value of starting capacitor of a fractional horse power motor will be ___
1921	In a capacitor start motor, the phase displacement between starting and ___
1922	Which of the following statements regarding permanent-split single value capacitor motor is incorrect?
1923	A single-phase capacitor-start motor will take ___
1924	When a universal motor is operated on no-load, its speed is ___
1925	In a hysteresis motor, the ___
1926	The starting winding of a single-phase motor is ___
1927	A shaded pole motor does not ___
1928	Two-value capacitor motor finds increased application as ___
1929	Which of the following motors is used for unity power factor?
1930	Which motor is normally free from mechanical and magnetic vibrations?
1931	The wattage rating for a ceiling fan motor will be in ___
1932	Which of the following motors will operate at high power factor?
1933	For which of the applications a reluctance motor is preferred?
1934	Burning out of windings is ___
1935	If a particular application needs high speed and high starting torque, then ___
1936	In a capacitor start and run motors the function of the running capacitor in ___
1937	Which statement about resistancestart split-phase motor is incorrect?
1938	Which motor is relatively free from mechanical and magnetic vibrations?
1939	Which of the following is most economical method of starting a single-phase induction motor?
1940	In a split-phase motor the ratio of number of turns for starting winding to ___
1941	Which of the following statements regarding single-phase induction motor is correct?
1942	Which of the following motors has two separate windings on the motor?
1943	Which of the following statements regarding two value capacitor motor is incorrect?
1944	The purpose of stator winding in the compensated repulsion motor is ___
1945	Torque developed by a single phase induction motor at ___
1946	In which single-phase motor, the rotor has no teeth or winding?
1947	In case of high speed universal motor which of the following needs more attention?
1948	In split-phase motor auxiliary winding is ___
1949	Which of the following motor will give the highest starting torque?
1950	The direction of rotation of an shaded pole motor is ___
1951	In capacitor start single-phase motors ___
1952	Which of the following statements regarding repulsion induction motor is incorrect?
1953	Which motor will make least noise?
1954	The direction of rotation of universal motor can be reversed by ___
1955	A universal motor operates on ___
1956	Which of the following statements regarding hysteresis motor is in incorrect?
1957	When a ceiling fan employing a capacitor run motor is ___
1958	Which of the following motors is used in tape-recorders?
1959	The speed/load characteristics of a universal motor is ___
1960	The speed control of universal motor used for sewing machines is ___
1961	The directiom of rotation of universal motor can be reversed the by ___
1962	In case of a shaded pole motor the direction of ___
1963	Single phase induction motor usually ___
1964	A hysteresis motor works on the ___
1965	Which of the following motors is inherently self starting?
1966	In a shaded-pole single-phase motor, the revolving field is ___
1967	Electrical faults in a motor occur most commonly in its ___
1968	The rotor of which motor does not have winding on it?
1969	For ceiling fans generally the single phase motor used is ___
1970	In a shaded-pole motor, rotating magnetic field is ___
1971	Hysteresis motor is particularly- useful for ___
1972	If a D.C. series motor is operated on ___
1973	To reverse the direction of rotation of a capacitor-start motor while it ___
1974	If a single phase induction motor runs slower than ___
1975	The rotor slots, in an induction motor, are usually not quite parallel to ___
1976	Which of the following applications always have switched on?
1977	When a D.C. series motor is connected to A.C. supply, the ___
1978	The repulsion-start induction-run motor is ___
1979	Which of the following single-phase motors is suitable for timing and control purposes?
1980	A shaded pole motor can be ___
1981	Which of the following motors is used in mixies?
1982	In a shaded pole motor, the shading coil usually ___
1983	In a split phase motor, the running winding should ___
1984	A motor gets overheated due to ___
1985	If a single-phase motor runs hot the probable cause ___
1986	Which of the following applications would need the smallest size of motor?
1987	Speed control of a universal motor is ___
1988	The capacitors used in, single-phase capacitor motors have ___
1989	Which of the following statements regarding reluctance-start motor is incorrect?
1990	Starting winding of a single phase motor of a refrigerator is ___
1991	The shaded pole motor is ___
1992	The electric motor used in portable drills is ___
1993	Which of the following Motors can be used for unity power factor?
1994	Which of the following motors has highest starting torque?
1995	A universal motor can run on ___
1996	The power factor of a single-phase induction motor is ___
1997	A capacitor-start single phase induction motor is switched on to ___
1998	Which of the following motor will have relatively higher power factor?
1999	If the capacitor of a single-phase motor is ___
2000	In a repulsion motor, brushes are ___
2001	If the ceiling fan, when switched on, runs at slow speed in the ___
2002	Reluctance motors are ___
2003	Which of the following single-phase motors will be cheapest?
2004	Locked rotor current of a shaded pole motor is ___
2005	Most of the fractional horsepower motors have ___
2006	Centrifiigal switch disconnects the auxiliary winding of the ___
2007	In a ceiling fan employing capacitor run ___
2008	The rotor of o hysteresis motor is ___
2009	The speed of a universal motor is generally reduced by ___
2010	Which of the following single-phase induction motors is ___
2011	In a capacitor start single-phase motor, when capacitor is ___
2012	The running winding of a single phase motor on testing with meggar is ___
2013	Which of the following motor will give relatively high starting torque?
2014	A repulsion-start induction-run singlephase motor runs as ___
2015	A capacitor selected for capacitor-run motor should be ___
2016	Which of the following motors is generally used in toys?
2017	In a shaded pole motor, the direction of rotation is ___
2018	Which of the following motors would you select for vacuum cleaners?
2019	A.C. series motor as compared to D.C. series motor ___
2020	If the centrifugal switch of a two-value capacitor motor using ___
2021	The motor used for the compressors is ___
2022	In repulsion motor, maximum torque is ___
2023	As hysteresis motors are free from mechanical and ___
2024	The wattage of motor for driving domestic sewing machine will ___
2025	A universal motor is ___
2026	If starting winding of a single-phase induction motor is left in ___
2027	In repulsion motor, zero torque is ___
2028	Speed torque characteristic of a repulsion induction motor is ___
2029	In a hysteresis motor, the rotor must ___
2030	Which type of load is offered by cranes and hoists?
2031	In A.C. series motor compensating winding is ___
2032	A single-phase induction motor is ___
2033	The range of efficiency for shaded pole motors is ___
2034	In a single phase motor the ___
2035	In a single phase rotary converter the number of ___
2036	Reciprocal of specific resistance is ___
2037	In a 3-phase induction motor reactance under running conditions is ___
2038	For starting a Schrage motor, 3-phase supply is ___
2039	Each of the following statements regarding stator flux of ___
2040	The efficiency of an induction motor is ___
2041	The rotor of an induction motor runs at ___
2042	Temperature of the stator winding of a three-phase induction motor is ___
2043	The torque developed by a 3-phase induction motor least ___
2044	The complete circle diagram of induction motor can be ___
2045	Which is of the following data is required to draw the circle diagram for an induction motor?
2046	The speed characteristics of an induction motor closely ___
2047	Size of a high speed motor as compared to low speed motor for ___
2048	In three-phase squirrel-cage induction motors ___
2049	When the equivalent circuit diagram of double squirrel-cage induction motor is ___
2050	In case of the induction motors the torque is ___
2051	Slip rings are usually made of ___
2052	Which of the following statements is correct regarding a 3-phase motor?
2053	Synchronous speed is ___
2054	In case single phasing occurs in ___
2055	The possible number of different speeds that can be obtained by ___
2056	Which of the following motors requires the most complicated speed control arrangement?
2057	Which of the following motors are used frequently?
2058	The stator of 5 H.P. induction motor is ___
2059	Which of the following A.C. motors is used for industrial application?
2060	In an induction motor if P is the power delivered to ___
2061	In a three-phase induction motor, the relative speed of ___
2062	The A.C. motor which would be best suited to ___
2063	The fractional slip of an induction motor is ___
2064	In induction motor, percentage slip depends on ___
2065	The torque of an induction motor is ___
2066	For driving high inertia body best type of induction motor suggested is ___
2067	Which motor is preferred for use in mines where explosive gases exist?
2068	A 500 kW, 3-phase, 440 volts, 50 Hz, A.C. induction motor has ___
2069	In case of 3-phase induction motors, plugging means ___
2070	It is advisable to avoid line starting of ___
2071	Slip of an induction motor is ___
2072	The maximum torque in an induction motor depends on ___
2073	The torque developed in the cage induction motor with ___
2074	The term `cogging` is associated with ___
2075	In case the air gap in an induction motor is ___
2076	Under average service conditions, motor bearings may be ___
2077	What is the advantage of the double squirrel-cage rotor as compared to the round bar cage rotor?
2078	If an induction motor is to be run on unbalanced supply, then it ___
2079	During starting if an induction motor hums, the probable cause could be ___
2080	Muting without muting sensors
2081	The number of hardware interrupts present in 8085 microprocessor are ___
2082	The number of status flags present in 8085 microprocessor are ___
2083	The stack pointer register in a microprocessor ___
2084	How many 16-bit special purpose registers are present in 8085 microprocessor?
2085	The word size of 8085 microprocessor is ___
2086	A number of 1-bit registers used in microprocessors to indicate ___
2087	An 8-bit microprocessor can have ___
2088	The address bus width of a microprocessor which is capable of ___
2089	What is the size (in bytes) of Prefetch queue in 8086?
2090	What is used to access 16-bit data in 8086?
2091	The multiplexing of address bus and data buses is ___
2092	The data bus of any microprocessor is ___
2093	The address bus of any microprocessor is ___
2094	A microcomputer consists of ___
2095	Which one of the following microprocessor has 16-bit data bus?
2096	Which one of the following microprocessor is not an ___
2097	An 8-bit microprocessor signifies that ___
2098	Total number of instructions in 8085 microprocessor assembly language is ___
2099	Each instruction in an assembly language program has ___
2100	The relation among IC (Instruction Cycle), FC (Fetch cycle) and EC (Execute Cycle) is ___
2101	At the beginning of a fetch cycle, the contents of the ___
2102	Assuming LSB is at position 0 and MSB at ___
2103	During which T-state, contents of OP code from memory are loaded into IR (Instruction Register)?
2104	Program counter in a digital computer ___
2105	The first microprocessor to include virtual memory in ___
2106	How many segments are there in 8086?
2107	___ used to implement the hardware interrupts (RST 7.5, RST 6.5, RST 5.5)
2108	___ is the only non-vectored interrupt in 8085 microprocessor
2109	RST0-RST7 are the ___ in 8085
2110	The control flags in 8086 are ___
2111	SPHL instruction copies the content of H-L register pair to ___
2112	XCHG instruction exchanges the content of H-L with ___
2113	Which general register or general register pair is ___
2114	DMA signal/signals in 8085 is/are ___
2115	The characteristics of RESET OUT ___
2116	CALL instruction is a ___ instruction
2117	How many bytes in a zero memory page should be reserved for ___
2118	During the execution of the instruction, the ___ tests the status and control
2119	Bus Interface Unit (BIU) in 8086 performs ___
2120	The field, which is never present in an assembly language ___
2121	HLDA signal in 8085 performs the following ___
2122	Number of Hex digits needed to represent the 20-bit address of ___
2123	In a microcomputer, the address of memory locations are ___
2124	Consider the following registers ___
2125	The operations executed by two or more ___
2126	A bus connected between the CPU and main memory that permits ___
2127	Ready pin of microprocessor is used ___
2128	Consider which of these statements are correct?
2129	In 8085 microprocessor system with memory mapped I/O, which of the following is true?
2130	When referring to instruction words, a mnemonic is ___
2131	The register which holds the information about the nature of ___
2132	Following is a 16-bit register for ___
2133	The correct sequence of steps in the instruction cycle of ___
2134	The output data lines of microprocessor and memories are usually tristated because
2135	The first machine cycle of an instruction is ___
2136	The clock speed of 8085 is ___
2137	Which components are NOT found on chip in a microprocessor but may be found on chip in a microcontroller?
2138	ALU (Arithmetic and Logic Unit ) of 8085 microprocessor consists of ___
2139	In 8085 microprocessor, data-bus and address bus are ___
2140	Which one of the above flags is/are present in 8085 microprocessor?
2141	IN an intel 8085A microprocessor, why is READY signal used?
2142	Both the ALU and control section of CPU employ which special purpose storage location?
2143	In an intel 8085A, which is the first machine cycle of an instruction?
2144	The cycle required to fetch and execute an instruction in a 8085 microprocessor ___
2145	What are the sets of commands in a program which are not translated into ___
2146	The processor status word of 8085 microprocessor has ___
2147	Which one of the statements given below are correct?
2148	Which one of the following is not a correct one?
2149	A good assembly language programmer should use ___
2150	Which of the following statements for intel 8085 is correct?
2151	Output of the assembler in machine codes is ___
2152	Inintel 8085A microprocessor ALE signal is ___
2153	A microprocessor is ALU ___
2154	The program counter in a 8085 micro-processor is ___
2155	The number of output pins in 8085 microprocessors are ___
2156	Which one of the following circuits transmits two messages simultaneously in ___
2157	The length of bus cycle in 8086/8088 is ___
2158	A mask programmed ROM is ___
2159	A combinational PLD with a programmable AND array and ___
2160	A combinational PLD with a fixed AND array and ___
2161	A field programmable ROM is ___
2162	The ROM programmed during manufacturing process itself is ___
2163	In 8085 name/names of the 16 bit registers is/are ___
2164	HLT opcode means ___
2165	In 8085 microprocessor, the RST6 instruction transfer ___
2166	8085 microprocessor has how many pins
2167	What is mean by ALU?
2168	Which language could be used for programming an FPGA
2169	FPGA means ___
2170	The work of ballast in a fluorescent tube is to ___
2171	___ factor is defined as the ratio of the illumination when everything is clean to illumination under normal working conditions
2172	The illumination of the surface varies directly with cosine of ___
2173	Luminous efficiency of a fluorescence lamp is ___
2174	Which of the following statement is correct?
2175	Unit of luminous flux is ___
2176	Wave length for red colour is ___
2177	Total flux or lumens required in any lighting scheme depends inversely on ___
2178	Luminous efficacy of a typical HPSV lamp is ___
2179	Illumination can be expressed in ___
2180	Which among the following lamps has the maximum burning hours?
2181	The illumination at a point 5 meters below ___
2182	In illumination technology total lumens emitted by ___
2183	The solid angle subtended by an area of ___
2184	From a uniform light source having luminous intensity of ___
2185	What will be the total flux emitted by a source of 60 candle power?
2186	A 1000 W bulb fitted with a reflector illuminates an area of 3 m x 3 m with ___
2187	Which lamp has a negative Colour Rendering Index (CRI)?
2188	The range of visual spectrum is ___
2189	What will be the number of lamps, each having 300 lumens, required to ___
2190	What is the work of a driver in case of an LED?
2191	Which lamp is best suited for lighting an International sports arena?
2192	Candela/metre square is the unit of which photometric quantity?
2193	Which lamps can be directly connected to a solar cell?
2194	What is the ratio of illuminance at a point 5m just below ___
2195	Which cells in the eye are responsible for scotopic vision?
2196	Which lamp has the best Colour Rendering Index (CRI)?
2197	Solid angle is expressed in terms of ___
2198	Candela is the unit of which?
2199	In electrical resistance welding material of electrode should have ___
2200	Whenever the magnetic flux changes with respect to ___
2201	A Shunt generator running at 1000 rpm has ___
2202	For a DC machine having P no of pole ___
2203	For a DC machine having P no of pole pairs Z no of conductors having ___
2204	DC generators are usually designed to develop armature voltages not ___
2205	There are two 2-pole DC ___
2206	A 10 kW, 230 V, dc shunt machine has four terminals brought out ___
2207	Two dc machines A and B, using the same ___
2208	If two 8-pole dc machines of identical armature sare wound, one with lap ___
2209	The introduction of interpoles in between the main poles improves the ___
2210	Consider the following statements about commutating poles which are ___
2211	The volt-ampere equation for a long-shunt compound motor is ___
2212	In a dc generator operating on load with its brushes on ___
2213	Which of the following factors improve commutation in a dc machine?
2214	In a dc machine, the demagnetizing effect of armature reaction is ___
2215	In a loaded dc generator, If the brushes are given a shift from the ___
2216	The magnetic circuit of a dc shunt generator with ___
2217	The type of DC generator used for arc welding purpose is ___
2218	The residual magnetism of a self-excited dc generator is ___
2219	A bipolar dc machine with interpoles has a main-pole flux of Ñ„ per pole and ___
2220	A separately-excited dc motor has an armature resistance of ___
2221	The counter (or back) emf in a dc machine is ___
2222	The direction of generated emf in the armature coil of ___
2223	A belt-driven cumulatively-compound dc generator is delivering power to ___
2224	A short-shunt cumulatively-compounded dc generator builds up ___
2225	A 230 V dc series generator is driven at its ___
2226	A dc shunt generator, when commissioned after a major repair of ___
2227	A dc shunt generator, when driven without any excitation, showed an ___
2228	A separately-excited DC generator, running at ___
2229	A DC shunt generator builds up 230 V when driven in ___
2230	A self-excited shunt generator fails to ___
2231	In normal dc machines operating at ___
2232	Consider the following statements regarding dc machines ___
2233	The commutator segments of DC machines are made up of ___
2234	The armature core of a DC machine is laminated to ___
2235	A DC shunt generator builds up to a voltage of 220 V at ___
2236	Consider the following statements regarding the magnetization characteristics of ___
2237	The brush-axis of a bipolar dc motor is rotated by ___
2238	In dc machines, the field-flux axis and armature-mmf axis are ___
2239	In dc machines, the space waveform of ___
2240	A commutator in DC machines can ___
2241	In dc machines, the space distribution of air-gap flux density wave at ___
2242	In dc machines, the field system has to be ___
2243	In dc machines, the armature windings are placed on the ___
2244	Which of the following voltage regulator is preferred for providing large values of ___
2245	Fufuraldehyde analysis is done to determine the ___
2246	Dissolve gas analysis of transformer oil is carried out to ___
2247	What does the use the of height flux density value in transformer design lead to?
2248	Maximum allowable moisture content of ___
2249	Minimum allowable resistivity of power transformer insulating oil is ___
2250	Maximum allowable tan-delta (tanδ) of dielectric dispassion factor of ___
2251	Maximum allowable acidity level of power transformer insulating oil is ___
2252	Which of the following is not a part of transformer?
2253	The heat transfer by convection in a transformer least depends on ___
2254	Which of the following machine will have maximum efficiency?
2255	Normally for the design of transformer the ambient temperature is ___
2256	Transformer cooling and insulating oil must be of ___
2257	The heat generated in the transformer is dissipated mainly by ___
2258	Tap changer is generally provided in ___
2259	When operating, two or more transformers in parallel, % impedance of ___
2260	The main purpose of providing tertiary winding in a three phase ___
2261	Tertiary winding in a transformer is ___
2262	Saving of copper in auto transformer is increased as compared to ___
2263	Secondary winding of an auto transformer is ___
2264	Stray losses in transformer occurs in ___
2265	If Ke is eddy current constant, Kf is ___
2266	If Kh is hysteresis constant, f is ___
2267	When a transformer is loaded, the secondary terminal voltage ___
2268	In a step down transformer which one of the following statements is true?
2269	A step up transformer increases ___
2270	A short circuit test on a transformer gives ___
2271	The overall power factor of an on ___
2272	Winding conductors of an electrical power transformer are ___
2273	Which of the following transformer insulating oil generally used in India?
2274	For satisfactory parallel operation of two ___
2275	The leakage flux in a transformer depends upon ___
2276	The no load current in a transformer lags the applied voltage by ___
2277	The flux involved in the emf equation of ___
2278	Two transformers with identical rating, are designed with flux densities of ___
2279	If input of a transformer is square wave the output will be ___
2280	CRGO steel is used in the core of transformer to ___
2281	Air core transformer as compared to ___
2282	Oil is provided in an oil filled transformer for ___
2283	Lamination of transformer core is made of ___
2284	In one 132 / 33 kV transformer the LV resistance is ___
2285	An auto transformer having a transformation ratio of 0.8 supplies a ___
2286	In a transformer the magnetic coupling between the primary and ___
2287	Short circuit test is performed on a transformer with a certain impressed ___
2288	Iron loss in a transformer mainly occurs in ___
2289	Breather is provided in a transformer to ___
2290	Which of the following is minimized by laminating the core of a transformer?
2291	Transformers operating in parallel will share the ___
2292	If supply frequency of a transformer decreases, ___
2293	The efficiency of a transformer is mainly dependent on ___
2294	What will be the eddy current loss if the supply frequency of ___
2295	In a three phase star-delta transformer, what is the angle difference between ___
2296	At what power factor, the voltage regulation of a transformer can be zero?
2297	In an induction motor 5 % change in supply voltage, will cause ___
2298	Stable operation of an induction motor ___
2299	Induction motors provided with open slots have ___
2300	Motors for fans and pumps are selected in ___
2301	The shaft of induction motor may be unbalanced due to ___
2302	The rotor slots are slightly skewed in squirrel cage induction motor to ___
2303	Slip rings of an induction motors are made of ___
2304	Larger values of air flux density is taken while ___
2305	Value of specific electric loading of Induction motor is ___
2306	What will be the maximum power factor of an induction motor for ___
2307	The speed of a 50 Hz three phase induction motor under full load condition is ___
2308	The rotor of a three phase induction motor has an impedance of ___
2309	___ types of induction motor are widely used
2310	A slip ring Induction motor runs at 290 rpm at ___
2311	Pole changing methods are suitable only for ___
2312	The wound rotor type IM is used for ___
2313	A 3-φ induction motor can also be referred to ___
2314	In a star-delta starting of ___
2315	Which of following methods are suitable for the speed control of squirrel cage induction motor?
2316	The rotor electromotive force of the IM is observed to ___
2317	When R2 is rotor resistance, X2 the rotor reactance at ___
2318	The torque developed in IM is nearly proportional to ___
2319	If s is the slip and f is the supply frequency of an induction motor, the ___
2320	Star-delta method of starting of motor is not possible in ___
2321	In an induction motor, the no-load slip is ___
2322	The speed of rotation of 5th harmonic component in the stator of ___
2323	In escalator which motor is used?
2324	Fifth harmonic component of the induced voltage in three phase ___
2325	The application that need frequent starting and ___
2326	Belt conveyors offer ___ starting torque
2327	For larger units high torque it is preferred to ___
2328	In shapers and slotters which motor are preferred?
2329	A crusher is equipped with ___
2330	Which of following motor is preferred for belt conveyor?
2331	In travelling cranes for swing action which motor is preferred?
2332	In travelling cranes for crane travel, trolley and boom hoist which motor is preferred?
2333	Exciting current of an induction motor is ___
2334	Unbalanced supply voltage given to a 3-φ, delta connected induction motor will ___
2335	During no load test, an induction motor draws ___
2336	Crawling in an induction motor is ___
2337	What is power factor of a 3-φ induction motor at no load?
2338	The air gap between stator and the rotor of ___
2339	Which method is less recommendable for induction motor starting in the industries?
2340	High starting torque and low starting current is ___
2341	Which of the following induction motor has maximum speed?
2342	In double cage induction motor, the outer cage ___
2343	In double cage induction motor, the inner cage offers ___
2344	Which slots are used in the rotor of an induction motor?
2345	Commonly used starters of cage motor is ___
2346	The slip of an induction motor normally does not ___
2347	In induction motor wound rotor motor is mainly is ___
2348	In IM the rotor lamination can be ___
2349	If the number of rotor slots is equal to number of ___
2350	Skewing of cage rotors offers the following ___
2351	In induction motor especially the cage rotors slots are nearly parallel to ___
2352	In induction motor the 7th harmonic torque may make the motor rotate at ___
2353	When the rotor of a 3 phase induction motor is ___
2354	If the field circuit of a DC shunt motor is ___
2355	If residual magnetism of a shunt generator is destroyed accidentally it may be ___
2356	Series booster is ___
2357	A 6 pole lap connected DC generator with 480 conductors has ___
2358	The change of cross sectional area of conductor in magnetic field will ___
2359	Two straight parallel conductors carry equal currents in ___
2360	Cork Screw rule is used to find ___
2361	A wire carrying current is bent in the form of ___
2362	In the left hand rule, forefinger always represents ___
2363	The force between two long parallel conductors is inversely proportional to ___
2364	Electric field intensity (E) at ant point in an electric field is ___
2365	Two infinite parallel metal plates are charged with ___
2366	As a result of reflection from a plane conducting wall ___
2367	Conductor is static and the field is varying then emf will be ___
2368	Which of the following represents ohms law ___
2369	Whenever the magnetic flux changes with respect to an electric conductor or ___
2370	The right hand rule for determining the direction of ___
2371	Two parallel plates are separated by a distance D charged by ___
2372	A Shunt generator running at 1000 rpm has generated emf of ___
2373	A dc series motor driving and electric train faces ___
2374	A 8-pole, DC generator has a simplex wave-wound armature containing 32 coils of ___
2375	A 240 V, dc shunt motor draws 15 A while supplying the rated load at ___
2376	A separately excited DC motor runs at 1500 rpm under ___
2377	A 220 V, DC shunt motor is operating at a speed of ___
2378	A 220 ,V 15 , kW 100 rpm shunt motor with armature resistance of ___
2379	A 200 V DC machine supplies 20 A at 200 V as ___
2380	For a DC machine having P no of pair of ___
2381	A DC shunt machine generates 250 V on open circuit at ___
2382	φA DC shunt machine generates 250 V on open circuit at ___
2383	To control the speed of a dc shunt motor above the base speed over ___
2384	A dc shunt motor has external resistance ___
2385	A dc shunt motor runs at a no-load speed of ___
2386	A DC series motor drawing an armature current of ___
2387	A cumulatively compounded dc motor delivers rated load power at ___
2388	A DC cumulatively compounded motor delivers rated load torque at ___
2389	If the field of a dc shunt motor gets opened while the motor is ___
2390	If the speed of a dc motor increases with load torque, then it is ___
2391	The following statements relate to compensating winding ___
2392	Under which of the following conditions is a dc motor provided with compensating winding used?
2393	For a level compounded dc generator to run at ___
2394	In a DC series generator, the terminal voltage with increase in ___
2395	DC generators are usually designed to develop armature voltages not exceeding ___
2396	A compound dc generator is delivering full load current at ___
2397	There are two 2-pole DC machines ___
2398	A 10 kW, 230 V, dc shunt machine has four terminals brought out through ___
2399	Two dc machines A and B, using the same conductor material, have ___
2400	A dc shunt generator has full-load voltage regulation of ___
2401	If the applied voltage to a dc machine is 230 V, then ___
2402	If two 8-pole dc machines of identical armature ___
2403	The interpoles in dc machines have a tapering shape in ___
2404	In dc machines ___
2405	The introduction of interpoles in between the main poles improves ___
2406	Consider the following statements from below ___
2407	Interpoles in dc machines ___
2408	Universal motor have which of the following application?
2409	We can apply source transformation to voltage source when a resistance is ___
2410	If a shunt generator delivers 100 A at 200 V, and the resistances of ___
2411	Mechanical energy is supplied to DC generator at ___
2412	A load of 900 lbs is to be raised with a lift car weighting 855 lbs at ___
2413	The wattage rating of a ceiling fan motor will be ___
2414	In most condition which frame of motor will be preferred?
2415	Hunting phenomenon is observed in which motor?
2416	In induction motor when the length of the air gap is ___
2417	In induction motors, there is large decrease in maximum power factor when ___
2418	Which of the following machine is invariably provided with forced ventilation?
2419	The use of double squirrel cage winding on the ___
2420	In case of induction motors the ratio of length to pole pitch for ___
2421	A motor armature conductor of length 0.5 m is exposed to a flux density of ___
2422	Centrifugal switch is absent in which of the single phase induction motor?
2423	Regenerative braking is not found in which motor?
2424	Regenerative braking is possible in ___
2425	In a single phase induction motor driving a fan load, the reason for having ___
2426	What are the starters used for starting of cage motors?
2427	In a stepper motor the detente torque means ___
2428	Methods of synchronizing of alternator may be done by ___
2429	Which of the following motors are suitable for computer printer drive?
2430	A small air gap in poly phase induction motor helps to ___
2431	An inverted V curve of synchronous motor shows variation of ___
2432	If an AC servomotor has one of its winding excited by AC, then ___
2433	In DC generator, which component plays the vital role to produce the direct current?
2434	In DC generator, lap winding is used in ___
2435	What type of connection is made in between the inter-pole and the field winding?
2436	What is the function of inter pole in DC generator?
2437	Where the shunt generators are widely used?
2438	In DC generator, brushes are always placed along ___
2439	A single-phase transformer has its maximum efficiency at 60 percent of ___
2440	What is the effect of armature reaction?
2441	In DC generator, armature reaction refers to what?
2442	What is the actual arrangement of series wound generator?
2443	In a DC generator the emf generated by the armature is ___
2444	Magnetic field of a DC generator is produced by what?
2445	A 4 pole DC generator rotates at ___
2446	The material used for commutator brushes is mostly ___
2447	In DC generator, full form of MNA is what?
2448	Which of the following statement is true for an AC synchronous motor?
2449	If the source voltage of a DC motor is increased, which of the following will decrease?
2450	Select the motor that should not be started on no load?
2451	An unexcited single phase synchronous motor is ___
2452	Hopkinss test in DC motor is conducted at?
2453	If the excitation of the synchronous generator fails, it acts as a/an ___
2454	The inertia constant H of a synchronous condenser is ___
2455	Which type of single phase induction motor is having the highest power factor at full load?
2456	Compensating windings is placed in which part of a D.C motor?
2457	The slip of an induction motor normally does not depend on which of the following?
2458	For a fault at the terminal of a synchronous generator, the fault current is ___
2459	If peak value of phase mmf is ___
2460	A 4-pole generator with 16 coil has a two layer lap ___
2461	A differentially compound motor under high-over-load conditions will behave ___
2462	Armature reaction in a DC machine ___
2463	A single-winding single-phase motor has ___
2464	A series motor is efficiently suitable for ___
2465	In alternator, the rotary part is ___
2466	What is the frequency of a alternator, if ___
2467	In diesel engine, gas engine type of machine contains ___
2468	In synchronous generator a synchronous dead load ___
2469	In the V curve shown in figure below for ___
2470	For a practical synchronous motor the pull out torque will occur when ___
2471	A 500 V, 120 KW, 50 Hz, star connected synchronous motor operating at ___
2472	During hunting of a synchronous motor ___
2473	When a synchronous motor is running at synchronous ___
2474	The torque angle, in a synchronous motor, is the angle between ___
2475	Hunting in a synchronous cannot be due to ___
2476	In a synchronous motor, damper windings are provided on ___
2477	In synchronous motor, the damper winding is generally used to ___
2478	The oscillation in a synchronous motor can be damped out by ___
2479	Hunting in a synchronous motor takes place ___
2480	The power input to a 3-φ induction motor is ___
2481	The slip of an induction motor during DC rheostatic braking is ___
2482	For a given torque, reducing divertor resistance of ___
2483	Ratio of starting torque to full load torque is ___
2484	Variation in speed by ward-Leonard control of DC motors occurs due to ___
2485	Ward Leonard control is provides speed control ___
2486	The three point starter is used for ___
2487	To get the speed of DC motor is more than normal without wastage of ___
2488	For standing a DC motor a starter is ___
2489	Drop in speed from no load to full load is ___
2490	For the same power output rating and full load speed, the motor will have ___
2491	Which of following DC motors will have percentage increase of ___
2492	In applied voltage is reduced in a dc shunt ___
2493	DC shunt motors are suitable for ___
2494	When a DC cummulative compound wound motor is ___
2495	Which of the following DC motors has got maximum relieving property?
2496	On switching a DC motor to DC supply mains, it is found to ___
2497	Which of the following DC motors has almost constant speed over their full load range?
2498	When the armature of a DC motor rotates emf induced is ___
2499	In the DC motor the iron losses occur in ___
2500	It is advisable to start a DC series motor with some load to ___
2501	A DC series motor must started on no load because ___
2502	A DC series motor is running at rated speed without any additional ___
2503	For higher values of armature, the speed of ___
2504	The type of DC motor used for shears and punches is ___
2505	A DC series motor is that which ___
2506	In case of DC shunt motor if load is ___
2507	If the field circuit of a DC shunt motor is opened ___
2508	A large series motor is never started without some mechanical on ___
2509	Speed of DC motor can be controlled by varying ___
2510	In electric locomotive which of the following motor are used?
2511	The armature of a DC motor is laminated to reduce ___
2512	The shaft torque of a dc motor is less than the ___
2513	In shunt dc motor the direction of rotation of the motor ___
2514	Armature reaction in dc motor results ___
2515	Two generators G1 and G2 are to be operated in parallel to ___
2516	The speed of a DC series motor is ___
2517	If a DC motor is connected across the ___
2518	If the flux of DC motor approaches zero, its ___
2519	If the load current and flux of a DC motor are held ___
2520	The speed regulation of a DC motor is given as ___
2521	When the supply terminal of a DC shunt motor are ___
2522	The DC compound motors are ___
2523	In case of a conductively compensated ___
2524	When the mechanical power is developed by ___
2525	The output indicate on the name plate of any motor is ___
2526	With the increase in speed of DC motor ___
2527	If the field winding connection of DC shunt motor is ___
2528	A large series motor is never started without some ___
2529	Two identical loss less series motors connected in series across ___
2530	Swinburnes test is applicable to ___
2531	The back emf produced in a dc motor depends on ___
2532	When the armature current of 5 Amp is flowing through ___
2533	The output power of a dc motor is given by ___
2534	In case of a dc motor the ratio ___
2535	A 4 pole wave wound dc motor having flux per pole of ___
2536	A 230 volt dc motor has an armature winding resistance of ___
2537	The shaft torque of a dc motor is less than ___
2538	A 4 pole dc motor with armature winding resistance of ___
2539	The power flow of a dc motor, with respect to ___
2540	The armature resistance of the dc motor is ___
2541	A lap wound 4 pole dc motor has ___
2542	The armature core of the rotor bars of dc motors are ___
2543	What is the necessity of copper brushes in a dc motors?
2544	In shunt dc motor the direction of rotation of ___
2545	Two generators G1 and G2 are to be operated in parallel to deliver ___
2546	The coil spam ___
2547	A commutator with a diameter of 50 cm rotating at ___
2548	Series booster is a ___
2549	An ideal DC generated is one that has ___
2550	The sparking at the the brushes, in a DC machines is due to ___
2551	A 6 pole lap connected DC generator with ___
2552	A 4 pole DC shunt generator having a wave winding supplies ___
2553	A frog leg winding is used in a DC machine to ___
2554	The armature reaction mmf in a DC machines has ___
2555	In a 6 pole DC machine, 90 mechanical degrees correspond to ___
2556	A 4 pole DC generator runs at 750 rpm and generate an ___
2557	Wave winding is employed in ___
2558	DC generator will not build ___
2559	Resistance commutation is used generally in case of ___
2560	Compensating winding are used to rectify the ___
2561	In a 12 pole triplex lap wound DC armature, each conductor can ___
2562	The magnetic field which initially induces emf in the armature in ___
2563	Two DC generators having equal open-circuit emfs but ___
2564	The ___ generator has the poorest voltage regulation
2565	The voltmeter connected across a generator reads ___
2566	The voltage regulation of a DC generator at full load being zero implies ___
2567	For a specific open-circuit voltage of a DC generator, the short-circuit electric ___
2568	Flashing of DC generator means ___
2569	Which of following DC generator will be in a position to build up ___
2570	The factors that are responsible for decrease in terminal voltage of ___
2571	The fall in speed of the DC generator due to ___
2572	In DC machines, the interpoles are ___
2573	A transformer core is made up of a silicon steel laminations which has ___
2574	A 100 KVA transformer is operating at ___
2575	A shell type transformer has ___
2576	Stepped cores are used in transformers in ___
2577	Conservator tank is ___
2578	Transformer oil is used as ___
2579	Transformer core is laminated to reduce ___
2580	Silicon content in steel lamination is ___
2581	A 2 KVA transformer has iron loss of ___
2582	When a short circuit test on a transformer is ___
2583	A transformer has maximum efficiency at ___
2584	If Pi and Pc represent core and full load copper loss ___
2585	For a transformer to be tested at full load conditions but ___
2586	In a single phase transformer the magnitude of leakage reactance is ___
2587	In a transformer ___
2588	Open circuit in a transformer is prefered with ___
2589	Open circuit test on transformer gives ___
2590	The full load copper loss and iron loss of transformer are ___
2591	A single phase transformer when supplied from 220 V, 50 Hz has ___
2592	A transformer has hysteresis loss of ___
2593	1 KVA, 230 V, 50 Hz, single phase transformer has ___
2594	In a transformer operating at constant voltage if ___
2595	In a transformer, hysteresis and eddy current losses ___
2596	The constant losses in transformer is/are
2597	A transformer has resistance and reactance in per unit as ___
2598	In a transformer zero voltage regulation is achieved at ___
2599	Voltage regulation of transformer is given by ___
2600	A 5 KVA transformer has a turns ratio of ___
2601	R1 is the resistance of the primary winding of ___
2602	A single phase transformer has specifications as ___
2603	If the applied voltage of a certain transformer is increased by ___
2604	Which of the following statements is/are correct statements?
2605	For an ideal transformer the winding should have ___
2606	Transformer action requires a ___
2607	In a transformer, the frequency of a voltage at ___
2608	The basic function of a transformer is ___
2609	An inverted V-curve of synchronous motor shows the variation of ___
2610	For power factor improvement the synchronous motor is ___
2611	A 400 V, 50 Hz, 30 Hp, three phase IM is drawing ___
2612	A DC Motor is driving a constant load torque having ___
2613	If the applied voltage of a DC motor is ___
2614	When a synchronous motor is running at ___
2615	Which of the following is not a necessary condition to be ___
2616	A 3- phase synchronous motor can operate over a wide range of ___
2617	When the excitation of normally operating unloaded ___
2618	An alternator is feeding an infinite ___
2619	In a synchronous motor electromagnetic power varies ___
2620	The breakdown torque of a synchronous motor varies as ___
2621	Which of the following is/are not a self starting motor?
2622	A 3-phase 6 pole 50 Hz induction motor is running at ___
2623	What is the frequency of rotor current of 50 Hz induction motor operating at 4% slip?
2624	The armature resistance of a permanent magnet dc motor is ___
2625	The rotor slots are slightly skewed in ___
2626	Which type of motors uses slip rings?
2627	If an induction machine is run at above the synchronous speed it ___
2628	Semi closed slots or totally closed slots are used in ___
2629	In a 3-phase induction motor, torque and supply voltage are ___
2630	The speed of a 3-phase induction motor operating in ___
2631	The power factor of an induction motor operating at ___
2632	In the 3-phase induction motor, the resultant flux is of ___
2633	Which type motors are preferred for lathes?
2634	A DC motor with armature resistance of 0.5 ohms connected directly to ___
2635	In a loaded DC motor, if the brushes are given a shift from ___
2636	What is the emf generated by a 4 pole Lap connected DC Motor rotating at ___
2637	In a loaded DC generator, if the brushes are given a shift from ___
2638	The flux is maximum in the following part of ___
2639	A DC Shunt Motor having shunt field resistance of 250 Ω and ___
2640	On what factors the speed of dc motor depends?
2641	The speed of a motor falls from 1100 r.p.m at ___
2642	Find the developed torque DC Series Motor having armature resistance of ___
2643	A separately excited DC motor has an armature resistance of ___
2644	A 4-pole DC generator runs at ___
2645	Which of the following motor is expensive for same Kw output rates?
2646	If the full load speed of 3-phase, 50Hz induction motor is ___
2647	In an induction motor, air gap power is 10 Kw and ___
2648	In an induction motor, what is the ratio of rotor input to rotor copper loss?
2649	When applied rated voltage per phase is reduce to ___
2650	The supply voltage to an induction motor is ___
2651	The rotor power output of 3-phase induction motor is ___
2652	An induction motor when started on no load does not ___
2653	What is the speed of stator rotating magnetic field with respect to rotor rotating magnetic field?
2654	When slip is greater than 1, then the motor is in which of the following region?
2655	In induction generator the slip is ___
2656	An induction motor is started using auto transformer and it has ___
2657	The advantage of the double squirrel cage induction motor ___
2658	A starting torque of 40 Nm is developed in an induction motor by ___
2659	An induction motor has a full load slip of ___
2660	Which of the following is the best way of starting for slip ring induction motor?
2661	Which of the following are the starting methods for squirrel cage induction motor?
2662	Blocked rotor test is used to find which of the following losses?
2663	No load test on induction motor is conducted to find which of the following losses?
2664	A smaller air gap in a induction motor helps to ___
2665	Torque developed in the rotor is ___
2666	A 3-phase, 50 Hz, 4 pole induction motor is ___
2667	A 3-phase, 50Hz, 4 pole induction motor is running at ___
2668	A 3-phase, 50 Hz, 4 pole induction motor is running at ___
2669	A 440 V, 3-phase, 10 pole and 50 HZ synchronous motor delivering ___
2670	From no load to full load ___
2671	If we increase the rotor reactance value, the maximum ___
2672	A 4 pole 50 Hz 1-phase induction motor is running at ___
2673	In a 1-phase induction motor, if the forward torque slip is S, what is the backward torque slip?
2674	Which of the following represents the operating region of slip in a 1-phase induction motor?
2675	In a resistance split phase motor, what is the range of torque angle?
2676	Which of the following motor has the highest power factor at full load?
2677	Reversing the direction of rotation of split phase motors is ___
2678	Which of the following motors has low ratings only?
2679	The speed of stator rotating magnetic field (RMF) with respect to ___
2680	Which of the following losses are negligible in blocked rotor test?
2681	No load test of 3-phase induction motor gives which of the following?
2682	A shaded pole single phase induction motor can be ___
2683	Capacitor in split phase induction motor is used to ___
2684	Cogging in induction motor occurs when ___
2685	A 8 pole, 50 Hz single phase induction motor is ___
2686	In a single phase induction motor, the starting torque developed is ___
2687	Cogging and crawling are phenomena associated with ___
2688	Cogging of induction motor occurs at ___
2689	The power factor of squirrel cage induction motor is ___
2690	A 3-phase slip ring induction motor is wound for ___
2691	An induction motor is, in general analogous to ___
2692	A 4 pole, 3-phase induction motor is running at ___
2693	For the purpose of starting an induction motor, star/delta switch is ___
2694	An induction motor has synchronous speed of ___
2695	As compared to DOL starting, a cage induction motor with ___
2696	In star-delta starting of squirrel cage induction motor compared to ___
2697	In V/f speed control of 3-phase induction motor, with increase in ___
2698	To control the speed of an induction motor, the supply frequency is ___
2699	In a 3-phase induction motor, if the supply voltage and frequency are reduced by ___
2700	For satisfactory performance of 3-phase 480V, 60 Hz induction ___
2701	Rotor resistance speed control is used in ___
2702	For the speed control of polyphase squirrel cage ___
2703	Which of the following is the largest conversion device?
2704	For a standard frequency the machine operates at ___
2705	What is the highest possible speed of turbo alternators?
2706	What is the reason for stationary armature essential in alternators above 5 KVA?
2707	Which of the following alternators contain large number of poles?
2708	Which type of motors are used for lathes?
2709	Which type of motors are preferred in lifts?
2710	Which of the following motor is more expensive for same KW output rating?
2711	The dc motor which can provide zero speed regulation at ___
2712	A 250 volt dc series motor having an armature resistance of ___
2713	Which of these types of motor is used in elevators?
2714	Swinburne’s test is applicable to ___
2715	The speed of a motor falls from ___
2716	On which of the following factor/factors the speed of a DC motor depends upon?
2717	For 250 volt DC Shunt Motor the armature and ___
2718	In electric locomotives which of the following motor are used?
2719	Which of the following DC Motor is used in paper machines?
2720	What will be the e.m.f. generated by a 4 pole lap connected DC Generator rotating at 1500 r.p.m.?
2721	The armature of a DC motor is ___
2722	For a DC Shunt Motor having armature resistance of ___
2723	Which of the following rotor requires damper winding?
2724	A DC motor with armature resistance of 0.5 ohms is ___
2725	A DC compound motor has ___
2726	In DC series motor the speed is ___
2727	In a DC Shunt Motor if the load current increases ___
2728	In case of a compensated DC series motor, the compensating winding is ___
2729	What will happen if the the supply terminals are reversed in case of a DC shunt motor?
2730	The direction of rotation of a DC compound motor can be ___
2731	The speed regulation of a DC motor is ___
2732	If the load current and the flux of a DC motor are ___
2733	The current drawn by a 220 V DC series motor of ___
2734	If the flux of DC motor approaches zero, its speed will ___
2735	A 220 V DC machine has an armature ___
2736	Consider a separately excited ___
2737	If a DC Series motor is connected across ___
2738	In a DC series motor, if the armature current is reduced by ___
2739	The speed of a DC series motor is
2740	A DC series motor has which of the following characteristics?
2741	In case of a DC Shunt motor if the load is decreased to some extent, what will happen to its speed?
2742	If in DC Shunt Motor the flux is reduced suddenly to ___
2743	The type of DC motor generally used for ___
2744	In a DC Shunt Motor the speed can be ___
2745	A 3-phase, 2 pole, 12 slot synchronous machine is operating at ___
2746	Which of the following represents the pitch factor?
2747	The function of field regulator in a DC compound motor is ___
2748	In Ward-Leonard method of speed control, the direction of rotation of ___
2749	The speed of a cumulatively compound DC motor can be ___
2750	Ward-Leonard system for controlling the speed of ___
2751	DC Shunt Motor has disadvantage(s) of ___
2752	In field flux method speed control of ___
2753	Which of the following is done in speed control of DC motor by field flux control?
2754	In speed control of DC shunt motor by varying field flux, what may be the value of field regulator?
2755	In which of the following speed control of DC motor the speed obtained is below than the rated speed?
2756	In a seperately excited DC Motor if field current is ___
2757	The current drawn by a DC motor at the time of ___
2758	High inrush of current during a starting of DC motor can efficiently be restricted to ___
2759	DC motors are stopped by opening line switches and not by ___
2760	Which of the following DC Motor uses 4-point starter?
2761	Direct-on-line (DOL) starters are not suitable for ___
2762	If starter is not used with large DC motor for ___
2763	In a DC Motor 3 point starter is used to ___
2764	If the no-voltage release in a DC motor starter fails to ___
2765	If the handle of a three point starter goes to ___
2766	When two DC series motors are connected in ___
2767	For starting a DC motor a starter is ___
2768	To get the speed of DC motor more than ___
2769	Which of the following DC Motor requires 3 point starter?
2770	In case of DC Shunt Motor, the speed will ___
2771	Ward Leonard control provides speed control ___
2772	The main disadvantage(s) of the ward-Leonard ___
2773	The armature voltage control is considered suitable for ___
2774	Variation in speed by ward-Leonard control of ___
2775	In speed control of DC Series motor, speed lower than the ___
2776	In which of the following DC Motor the ratio of starting torque to full load torque is minimum?
2777	If an additional resistance is connected in series with ___
2778	The field divertor resistance for a DC series motor is ___
2779	For a given torque, reducing diverter resistance of ___
2780	Two DC series motors are connected in ___
2781	Neglecting all losses, the developed torque (T) of ___
2782	Interpoles in a DC motor must be ___
2783	In case of DC Shunt Motor electromagnetic torque developed is ___
2784	Which of the following motor is not suitable for frequent starting and stopping?
2785	DC series motors are used ___
2786	The starting resistance of DC motor is ___
2787	What is the phase difference between two windings of A.C servomotor?
2788	As compared to an induction motor, the air gap in ___
2789	Which of the DC Motor use flywheel?
2790	Breadth factor is defined as the ratio of ___
2791	To eliminate the 5th harmonic in the induced voltages their ___
2792	Armature reaction depends on which of the following?
2793	To eliminate 5th harmonic in the induced voltage phase ___
2794	For pure resistive load what is the armature reaction?
2795	When pure inductive load is connected to the alternator, what is the effect of armature reaction?
2796	For which of the following loads, armature reaction is magnetizing in nature?
2797	In which of the following, voltage regulation may be ___
2798	Which of the following voltage regulation method is accurate?
2799	Voltage regulation can be determined by which of the following?
2800	Direct axis reactance is defined as ___
2801	Quadrature axis synchronous reactance is ___
2802	What is/are the necessary conditions for parallel operation of alternators?
2803	Which of the following relation is correct?
2804	What is/are the advantages of parallel operation of alternators?
2805	Maximum power developed depends on ___
2806	If the excitation is critical, the power factor of ___
2807	The current drawn by the armature of DC motor is ___
2808	Which of the following motor is suitable for frequent starting and stoppings?
2809	If the back emf in DC motor vanishes ___
2810	If the field connection of a DC Shunt Motor is ___
2811	The output power indicated on the name plate of any motor is ___
2812	The output power of any electrical motor is ___
2813	An electric motor with constant output power will have ___
2814	The no load and full load speed of DC motor are ___
2815	If the back emf in DC motor vanishes suddenly the motor will ___
2816	With the increase in speed of ___
2817	If the field connection of a DC Shunt Motor is changed then ___
2818	Direction of rotation of DC motor is reversed by ___
2819	Which of following winding is connected in series with armature winding of DC machine?
2820	A large series motor is never started without some mechanical load on ___
2821	In DC shunt motor if load is increased, the ___
2822	Eb/Vt ratio of a ___
2823	Speed of DC motor can be controlled by ___
2824	Rotating part of DC motor is known as ___
2825	Width of a carbon brush should be ___
2826	The armature of DC motor is ___
2827	Counter emf of a DC motor ___
2828	Autotransformer makes effective saving on copper and ___
2829	The noise resulting from vibrations of lamination set by ___
2830	In circle diagram for induction motor, diameter of circle represents which of the following?
2831	A motor operates in stable region at which of the following slip?
2832	Which of the following will vary the maximum torque?
2833	The condition for maximum running torque is ___
2834	The speed of rotating magnetic field of ___
2835	At stand still condition the value of ___
2836	A 4 pole 50 Hz induction motor is running at ___
2837	Which of the following motors is/are widely used?
2838	Which of the following induction motor has the highest starting torque?
2839	Which of the following machines have highest power factor with respect to magnetizing current?
2840	Which of the following pairs is/are correct?
2841	The sequence of induction motor is RYB, then the direction of ___
2842	Find the number of poles required, when the frequency is ___
2843	Induction motor operation depends on ___
2844	Generators work on the principle of production of ___
2845	DC machine is a ___
2846	Dynamic braking is employed to brake ___
2847	Dynamic braking is very effective for ___
2848	Dynamic braking can be used for ___
2849	In dc machine armature windings are placed on rotor because of ___
2850	A commutator in dc machine provide ___
2851	Which of the following motor has negative speed regulation?
2852	A triangular mmf wave is produced in the air gap of ___
2853	A 4 pole dc generator is running at 1500 rpm the frequency of ___
2854	The air gap between the yoke and armature is dc machine is ___
2855	For P pole machine relation between electrical degrees and ___
2856	Slot wedges in a dc machine is made up of ___
2857	In a DC motor under constant terminal voltage what is the relation between ___
2858	A flat compound generator is obtained from compound generator by ___
2859	What is the increase in the torque expressed as percentage of ___
2860	A DC series motor is accidentally connected to ___
2861	Which of the following methods are used to control the speed of ___
2862	The current drawn by the a 230 V DC motor of armature resistance ___
2863	Hopkinson test is conducted under which of the following condition?
2864	Swinburne test is conducted under which of the following condition?
2865	Maximum efficiency will occur, when copper loss is ___ to iron loss?
2866	Which of the following are variable losses?
2867	Total core loss is also called as ___
2868	Which of the following represents the rotating losses of machine?
2869	Which of the following starter is sufficient to start the DC series motor?
2870	Diverters are used only in ___
2871	Armature resistance control method is also called as ___
2872	Field weakening method is also called as ___
2873	Armature reaction effect is more in which of the following methods?
2874	Armature resistance control method is used for the ___
2875	Field weakening control method is used for the ___
2876	Which of the following motors has negative speed regulation?
2877	Which motor cannot be started on no load?
2878	In DC machine torque is proportional to which of the following?
2879	In DC motors, under trailing pole tips, flux density will ___
2880	In dc motors, under leading pole tips flux density will ___
2881	Maximum power will be developed when back emf is ___
2882	A DC 4 pole lap wound generator is running at ___
2883	A shunt generator is running at ___
2884	Essential conditions for two DC generators are connecting for ___
2885	In which of the following generators negative voltage regulation can occur?
2886	Ideal value of voltage regulation of a device is?
2887	Which of the following generators are used in arc welding?
2888	Series generators are used in which of the following applications?
2889	In DC machines internal characteristics are plotted between ___
2890	In DC machines shape of net flux density is?
2891	In DC machine shape of armature MMF wave is?
2892	In DC machine shape of main field flux distribution is?
2893	Which of the following below is/are correct?
2894	The functions of inter poles are ___
2895	The size of inter poles is small as compared to ___
2896	Which of the following is/are the advantages of carbon brush over the copper brush?
2897	Find the reactance voltage when current is changed from ___
2898	Direction of the current in the compensating winding is ___
2899	Compensating winding is placed in ___
2900	Which of the following is/are effects of armature reaction?
2901	Flux density under leading pole tips in case of ___
2902	Flux density under trailing pole tips in case of generator will ___
2903	Brushes are always placed on ___
2904	Demagnetization effects which of the following?
2905	Armature flux is ___ with respect to main field flux or main field poles?
2906	The effect of ___ on main field flux is armature reaction?
2907	No load saturation characteristics are plotted between ___
2908	What is/are the necessary conditions for voltage build up in self excited generator?
2909	Series field consists of ___
2910	Shunt field of DC generators consists of ___
2911	For a dc machine shunt resistance and armature resistance values are ___
2912	A 4 pole lap wound dc generator has 4 brushes, if one of the brush is ___
2913	Dummy coils are used for ___
2914	In a 2 pole lap winding dc machine , the resistance of one conductor is ___
2915	Equalizer rings are used in which of the followings?
2916	Wave winding is prefered for which of the following rating?
2917	Lap winding is prefered for which type of machines?
2918	In a lap winding dc machine number of conductors are ___
2919	Inter pole winding is connected in ___
2920	In a dc machine 6 pole wave winding is ___
2921	In a dc machine 4 pole lap winding is ___
2922	Which of the following represents the commutator pitch?
2923	DC machine windings are ___
2924	Which of the following windings are necessary in case of all dc machines?
2925	Which of the following bearings and their uses are correct ___
2926	Which of the following type of brush and their application is/are correct ___
2927	In DC generators brushes are used for ___
2928	In a dc machine 72 number of coils are ___
2929	In DC machine yoke offers ___
2930	A DC generator without commutator is ___
2931	Commutator in DC generator is used for ___
2932	The emf induced in the dc generator armature winding is ___
2933	Commutator pitches of duplex and simplex lap windings are ___
2934	Hysteresis loop represents the area of ___
2935	Thin laminations are used in a machine in order to reduce ___
2936	Hysteresis loss will depends on ___
2937	Eddy current loss will depends on ___
2938	For very sensitive and wide speed control, the preferable ___
2939	Ward-Leonard control is basically ___
2940	In Ward-Leonard system, the lower limit of the ___
2941	What is the shunt resistance component equivalent circuit obtained by ___
2942	What is the mechanical power developed by a DC series motor is maximum?
2943	If field current is decreased in shunt dc motor, the speed of ___
2944	While operating on variable frequency supplies, the AC motor requires ___
2945	Which speed control method preferred for constant torque drive?
2946	What are the constituents in speed time curve of train?
2947	In case of kiln drives, starting torque is ___
2948	High braking torque produced in ___
2949	In 4 quadrant operation of a hoist 3rd quadrant represents ___
2950	A motor has a thermal heating time constant of ___
2951	A four quadrant operation requires ___
2952	Speed control by variation of field flux results in
2953	The basic elements of a electric drive are ___
2954	Electric drive is becoming more and more popular because ___
2955	An elevator drive is required to operate in ___
2956	What type electric drive is used in cranes?
2957	Full form of VVVF control ___
2958	In industries which electrical braking is preferred?
2959	Polarity of supply voltage is reversed in which type of braking?
2960	Which braking is not possible in series motor?
2961	Which of the following state capital is not on broad gauge track?
2962	___ was the first city in India to adopt electric traction
2963	Which of the following are electrical braking methods?
2964	The concept of V/f control of inverters driving induction ___
2965	To save energy during braking ___
2966	Select the correct option from the below?
2967	A variable w is related to three other variables ___
2968	The inductance of a certain moving iron ammeter is ___
2969	Which one of the following meters has maximum loading effect on the circuit under measurement?
2970	The three resistors R1, R2 and R3 have the following ___
2971	A 0-200 V voltmeter has a guaranteed accuracy of 1% of ___
2972	If two 300V full scale voltmeters ___
2973	Dynamic errors are caused by ___
2974	Two capacitance ___
2975	Which one the following statements is correct?
2976	The difference between the indicated value and the true value of ___
2977	The ratio of change in output to the change in the input is ___
2978	A first order instrument is characterized by ___
2979	The total current I = I1 + I2 in a circuit is ___
2980	To measure 5 volts, if one selects a 0-100 volt range voltmeter which is ___
2981	The total current I = ___
2982	0-150 V voltmeter has an accuracy of 1% of ___
2983	A set of independent current measurements taken by ___
2984	The current ‘I’ through a resistance R is measures with the following ___
2985	A voltage of 2.70 V is being measured by an analog indicating ___
2986	The expected value of the voltage across a resistor is ___
2987	The limiting errors of measurement of power consumed by ___
2988	A resistance is measured by the voltmeter-ammeter method employing ___
2989	Consider the following statements ___
2990	A transducer measures a range of 0 – 200 N force with a resolution of ___
2991	For a circuit given that ___
2992	In a wheatstone bridge, a change of 6 Ω in the unknown arm of bridge is ___
2993	An ammeter of range 0-25 A has a guaranteed accuracy of ___
2994	Choose the right statement from the below?
2995	The resistance of a circuit is measured from the relation ___
2996	In flux meter, the controlling torque is produced by ___
2997	A resistance of 105 ohms is specified using significant figures as ___
2998	The maximum percentage error in the sum of two voltage measurements when ___
2999	A 150 V moving iron voltmeter of ___
3000	The errors introduced by an instrument fall in which category?
3001	The resistance of a circuit is found by measuring ___
3002	A voltmeter has 100 scale divisions and can measure up to ___
3003	A 8085 microprocessor consist of ___
3004	Following is a 16-bit register for 8085 microprocessor ___
3005	A thermometer having first order dynamics is subjected to ___
3006	Attraction and repulsion type instruments are the two different types of which instrument?
3007	Schering bridge is used to measure which of the following?
3008	The quantity Which of the following meter is most suitable for measuring radio frequency currents?
3009	The internal resistance of Weston standard cell is of ___
3010	The measurement of a quantity ___
3011	The main advantage of Anderson bridge over Maxwell bridge is ___
3012	An electrodynamic meter can be used to measure ___
3013	To the y input of a CRO a signal defined by ___
3014	Kelvin’s double bridge is used to measure ___
3015	The effect of stray magnetic fields on the actuating torque of ___
3016	An average reading digital multimeter reads 10 V when ___
3017	A PMMC voltmeter is connected across a series combination of ___
3018	Which of following voltmeters would you use for measuring ___
3019	In a CRO which of following is not a part of electron gun?
3020	The coil of a moving iron instrument has a resistance of ___
3021	Which of following below is not correct?
3022	The use of thermocouple meters for AC measurement leads to ___
3023	To increase Q factor of a coil, the wire ___
3024	In which of the transformer is the secondary nearly short circuited ___
3025	Choose the correct statement from the following?
3026	A 1 mA meter is to be converted to ___
3027	How many time-base circuits does a dual face CRO can have?
3028	Ratio of readings of two wattmeter connected to measure power in ___
3029	A meter has a full-scale deflection of ___
3030	A thermo couple ammeter gives full scale deflection of ___
3031	A DC potentiometer is the best means available for ___
3032	Standardization of potentiometer is done in ___
3033	The transfer instrument which is used for standardization of ___
3034	For measuring an AC voltage by an AC potentiometer it is ___
3035	The calibration of a voltmeter can be carried out by ___
3036	When a potentiometer is used for measurement of voltage of __
3037	For the AC bridge circuit shown in figure at balance the value of ___
3038	The given figure shows wein bridge connection for ___
3039	A wheatstone bridge cannot be used for precision measurements because ___
3040	A metal strain gauge has a gauge factor of ___
3041	A DC potentiometer is designed to measure up to about 2V with ___
3042	The circuit in figure is used to measure the power consumed by ___
3043	Which amplifier in used in an electronic amplifier?
3044	A galvanometer with a full scale current of 10 mA has a resistance of ___
3045	A slide wire potentiometer has 10 wires of ___
3046	Piezoelectronic accelerometer ___
3047	What is the approximate input impedance of a CRO?
3048	The measurment of very low and very high frequencies is ___
3049	Consider the following statement ___
3050	A CRO probe has an impedance of 500 kΩ in parallel with a capacitance of ___
3051	In the bridge given in the figure, the reading of the ___
3052	In DC potentiometer measurements, a second reading is often ___
3053	A DC A-h meter is rated for ___
3054	A moving iron ammeter produces a full scale torque of ___
3055	A single phase load is connected between R and Y terminals of ___
3056	A moving coil of a meter has 100 turns, and a length and depth of ___
3057	A 50 Hz bar primary CT has a secondary with 500 turns. el
3058	Find the current statement from the below?
3059	Potentiometer method of DC voltage measurement is ___
3060	Which one of the sentence given below is most suitable for balancing the bridge?
3061	The time/div and voltage axes of an oscilloscope have been ___
3062	A sampling wattmeter is used to measure the average power of ___
3063	Which of following statement are correct in case of power factor meter?
3064	A voltmeter using thermocouple measures ___
3065	Which of following are needed both for protection and metering?
3066	The effect of load resistance is important in ___
3067	When testing a coil having a resistance of 10 ohms, resonance occurred when ___
3068	If an inductance L is connected in one arm of ___
3069	A sinusoidal signal waveform, when observed on ___
3070	A Lissajous pattern on an oscilloscope has ___
3071	The coil of a moving coil meter has ___
3072	A lissajous pattern, as in figure is observed on the screen of ___
3073	The moving coil-meters, damping is ___
3074	A 0-100 V voltmeter has a guaranteed accuracy of ___
3075	A moving coil ammeter has a uniform scale with ___
3076	A wattmeter reads ___
3077	An analog ammeter is ___
3078	If two meters X and Y require 40 mA and 50 mA respectively, to give ___
3079	A pressure measurement instrument is calibrated between ___
3080	In measurement system, the function of the ___
3081	The measured value of a resistance is 10.25 ohm, whereas its ___
3082	Resolution of an instrument is ___
3083	The errors mainly caused by human mistakes are ___
3084	The smallest change in measured variable to ___
3085	Comparison methods are used ___
3086	The use of ___ instruments is merely confined within laboratories as standardizing instrument
3087	A null type instrument as compared to a deflected type instrument has ___
3088	Deflection method direct measurements are most widely used as ___
3089	In two wattmeter method of power measurement if the total power is ___
3090	What is the meter reading?
3091	Piezoelectric effect is carried out in ___
3092	Find the meter reading from below ___
3093	Which of the following is a variable displacement transducer?
3094	When checked with an ohm meter an open resistor ___
3095	Relative error is same as ___
3096	In AC circuits, the connection of measuring instruments cause ___
3097	Potentiometer method of DC voltage measurement is more accurate than ___
3098	A high frequency AC signal is applied to ___
3099	The internal resistance of a milli-ammeter must be ___
3100	The inductance of a certain moving iron ammeter is expressed as ___
3101	A spring-controlled moving iron voltmeter draws a current of ___
3102	A 0-250V voltmeter has a guaranteed accuracy of 2% of ___
3103	Which of following is a vector quantity?
3104	The high torque to weight ratio in an analog indicating instrument ___
3105	A galvanometer with a full scale current of 10 mA has ___
3106	Unit of deflection sensitivity of a CRO is ___
3107	___ is used to measure the flow of air around aeroplane
3108	Relative permittivity can be measured by ___
3109	Resistance of a VARISTOR varies with ___
3110	What is the unit of plane angle?
3111	What is the expression for momentum?
3112	How many fundamental units are there?
3113	What is the expression for acceleration?
3114	Which of the two have same dimensions?
3115	What are the SI units of mass, length and time respectively?
3116	Which devices used to measure the temperature of an object?
3117	The Metric System is also called as ___
3118	What is the name of physical quantities which are independent of each other?
3119	What is the standard unit for length?
3120	Which of the quantity consists of unit as kg m/sec?
3121	Which of the quantity consists of unit as newton-second?
3122	Which of the quantity consists of unit as Pascal?
3123	Which of the quantity consists of SI unit as Candela?
3124	Which one of the following units is a fundamental unit?
3125	Which of the following quantities consists of S.I. unit as Hertz?
3126	What is a resistor?
3127	A piece of copper and another piece of ___
3128	From the circuit diagram, find the maximum power transferred ___
3129	The efficiency in case of maximum power transfer theorem is ___
3130	If the measured value of a capacitor is ___
3131	From the circuit diagram shown below find ___
3132	From the circuit diagram shown find the ___
3133	Bulb in street lighting are connected in ___
3134	Two electric bulbs have transparent filament of ___
3135	In the circuit shown below, find the Thevenin equivalent resistance
3136	From the given figure find ___
3137	For the network shown in figure, the value of ___
3138	If a large resistance is connected in parallel to a small resistance then ___
3139	One atomic mass unit ( amu ) is approximately equal to ___
3140	The number of electrons in the outer most orbits of ___
3141	A 100 ohm resistor is directly connected across ___
3142	Air gap flux density is of the order of ___
3143	Types of rotating machines ___
3144	The synchronous speed for the seventh ___
3145	Efficiency of electrical machines should be calculated by ___
3146	In direct arc furnace which of following is of high value?
3147	What are the points to be mentioned in specifying main switches?
3148	Total instantaneous power supplied by a 3-φ AC supply to ___
3149	Our household apparatus are connected in ___
3150	A 60 Hz frequency voltage would cause ___
3151	Power factor can be defined as ___
3152	What is the reactive power in AC operation?
3153	Third pin of a 3 pin plug is thicker and ___
3154	In which braking back emf exceeds supply voltage?
3155	If the practical units of voltage and current wave each made ___
3156	A capacitor is charged by a constant 10 mA current sources which is ___
3157	If L and C both are doubled than damping in ___
3158	What is Va in the below circuit?
3159	What is I1in the given circuit?
3160	In the circuit shown below if I = 2 A then find V?
3161	Find the total power absorbed by the resistor in the ___
3162	Consider the below circuit ___
3163	In a 3-φ delta connection, two-wattmeter method is used to ___
3164	Three identical inductors are connected in delta with ___
3165	VRN, VYN and VBN are three phase voltage of a balanced ___
3166	For balanced star load, if unbalanced line current are ___
3167	In delta connected circuit when one resistor is ___
3168	A balanced three Phase Y-connected load has ___
3169	Phase voltages of a star connected alternator are ___
3170	A 3 wire, 3-φ supply feeds a load consisting of ___
3171	Condition for a balanced 3-phase load is that, each phase has ___
3172	A 3 – φ delta connected symmetrical load consumes ___
3173	A balanced delta connected load has an impedance of ___
3174	A balanced star connected load with impedance of ___
3175	A delta connection contains three equal impedance of ___
3176	A star connected load has three equal impedance each of ___
3177	The delta equation of given star connected ___
3178	For a given phase connected to the particular line which of the statement is true?
3179	An ideal constant voltage source has ___
3180	Current source has internal impedance connected in ___
3181	A voltage source having an open circuit voltage of ___
3182	A constant current source supplies a electric current of ___
3183	A dependent source can be ___
3184	A series RLC circuit is connected across ___
3185	A series RLC circuit is connected across a 240V, 50 Hz supply ___
3186	A 230V, 50Hz voltage is applied to a coil having ___
3187	The average value of half wave rectified sinusoidal current ___
3188	The maximum value of a current wave is ___
3189	A voltage of v = 100 sin (wt + π/3) is applied to pure resistor of ___
3190	The frequency of EMF generated by a generator depends upon ___
3191	In the above question find the angle between voltage and current?
3192	The active and reactive power in an AC circuit are ___
3193	In which of the circuits power factor can be zero?
3194	Two sinusoidal emfs are given as ___
3195	The rms value of the resultant current in a wire which carries ___
3196	Which of the below statement is incorrect?
3197	Condition for reciprocity in case of ___
3198	Find the Z parameters of the circuit shown in ___
3199	A two port network is defined by ___
3200	The maximum power that can be transferred to the load resistor R from ___
3201	A load is connected to an active ___
3202	How many 200W / 220V bulbs connected in series across 220V supply will consume 100W?
3203	Three resistors each R Ohm is connected to form ___
3204	Two resistors R1 and R2 give combined resistance of 4.5 Ohm when ___
3205	Millman theorem yields equivalent ___
3206	Which of the following theorems can be applied to ___
3207	The Laplace Transform of a shifted unit step ___
3208	The value of unity impulse function at ___
3209	The value of unity impulse function at time (t) = 0 is ___
3210	If a function is shifted by ‘T’, then it is correctly represented as ___
3211	Laplace transform analysis gives ___
3212	Which of the following is the correct relation?
3213	For finding the Z11 parameter at the input port of ___
3214	Which of the following Y-parameters is dimensionless?
3215	The norton equivalent of the circuit shown in the figure is ___
3216	The thevnin equivalent of the circuit shown in the ___
3217	While Thevenizing a circuit between two terminals ___
3218	Which of the following is applicable for both linear and non-linear circuits?
3219	Find the current through 5 Ohm resistor ___
3220	Condition of symmetry in ABCD parameter representation is ___
3221	Condition of symmetry in Z-parameter representation is ___
3222	Cascade connection of two port networks is ___
3223	Condition of reciprocity in Y-parameter representation is ___
3224	Which of the following ABCD parameters is unit less?
3225	Unit of apparent power is ___
3226	To reduce hysteresis loss, we use ___
3227	If the peak value of a sine wave is 100 V, then ___
3228	Flux in a magnetic circuit can be compared in ___
3229	For Norton’s equivalent circuit ___
3230	Kirchhoff’s current law is used for ___
3231	Kirchhoff’s voltage law is used for ___
3232	Three resistors of 4 ohm, 6 ohm and 8 ohm are in ___
3233	When 125 V is applied across a 250 V, 100 W filament incandescent ___
3234	Find the current through 5 Ohm resistor from ___
3235	A 35 V source is connected to a series circuit of 600 Ω and ___
3236	In the figure given, the value of resistance R in Ω is
3237	In given figure, the value of resistance ___
3238	The voltage across the 1kΩ resistor between the nodes A and B of ___
3239	A network contains linear resistors and ideal ___
3240	An alternating voltage = 140 sinθ is supplied to a device which offers ___
3241	The rms value of sine wave is ___
3242	The resistance of a strip of copper of rectangular cross section is ___
3243	The basic circuit elements are ___
3244	Active element of electrical circuit is ___
3245	The linear circuit element is ___
3246	The switch S is the circuit shown in figure is ___
3247	In the circuit given below the value of ___
3248	A particular current is made up of two ___
3249	The energy required to charge a 10 μF capacitor to 100 V is ___
3250	Twelve 6 Ω resistor used as edge to form a cube
3251	The internal resistance of a practical voltage source is considered to be ___
3252	Dependent source of current and voltage are those which have ___
3253	Which of the following characteristics is/are attributed to an ideal independent voltage source?
3254	Which of the following is not a bilateral element?
3255	A branch of a network is said to be passive when it contains ___
3256	A branch of a network is said to be active when it consists ___
3257	If a resistor and a capacitor are connected to form ___
3258	If a resistor and an inductor are connected in series across a ___
3259	If a resistor and an inductor are connected in series across ___
3260	A series circuit consists of R = ___
3261	A series circuit consists of ___
3262	A series circuit consists of R = 20 Ω, L = 20 mH, and AC supply 60 V with ___
3263	A series circuit consists of R = 20 Ω, L = 20 mH, and AC supply ___
3264	Kirchhoff’s second law is based on law of ___
3265	A reactance having an inductor of 0.15 H is connected in series with ___
3266	Which of the following can not be connected in series unless they are identical?
3267	Whenever current is supplied by a source its terminal voltage ___
3268	Link in network theory refers to ___
3269	A capacitor of 50 microfarad is connected in series with ___
3270	What is the relation between line voltage and phase voltage in case of delta connection?
3271	In what connection we get neutral?
3272	An AC voltage of 200 V at 50 Hz is applied to a coil which draws ___
3273	For the resonance circuit ___
3274	A periodic voltage having the Fourier series V(t)= {1 + 4sinω0t}
3275	Can a 250 V, 5 A single way switch be used in place of a 250 V, 15 A Switch?
3276	A circuit with resistor, inductor, capacitor in series is ___
3277	A current in a circuit is given by ___
3278	In Cauer 1st form last element in the network is ___
3279	Disadvantages of constant k type filter ___
3280	Advantage of active filter is ___
3281	In active filter which element is absent?
3282	For the network shown below when I ___
3283	In the given figure, the Thevenins equivalent voltage and impedance as ___
3284	The value of V in the circuit shown in the given figure is ___
3285	Consider the following ___
3286	Three resistances of two ohms each are connected in ___
3287	In the given figure the value of the source voltage is ___
3288	In the figure given, the value of R is ___
3289	Consider the following circuit ___
3290	In the circuit shown in the figure, the value of ___
3291	For the circuit given in the figure the power delivered by the 2 V source is ___
3292	For the circuit shown in the given figure the current I is ___
3293	In the circuit shown below, what is the voltage across 5 Ω resistor?
3294	In the circuit given, I = 1 A for ___
3295	A certain network consists of large number of ___
3296	A 35 V source is connected to a series circuit of ___
3297	In given figure, the value of resistance R in ___
3298	An electrical circuit with 10 branches and 7 nodes will have ___
3299	In the network shown, what is the current I in the direction shown?
3300	The voltage across the 1 Ω resistor between the nodes A and B of ___
3301	The value of current I flowing in the 1 Ω resistor in the ___
3302	In the circuit shown in the figure the voltage across the ___
3303	In the circuit shown in figure if ___
3304	For the circuit shown below the value of R is adjusted so as to ___
3305	Kirchhoffs laws are valid for ___
3306	The phase angle difference between current and voltage is ___
3307	What is represented by the hypotenuse of impedance triangle?
3308	In the figure, the potential difference between points P and Q is ___
3309	The rms value of the voltage ___
3310	Say A point has an absolute potential of 40 V and point B has ___
3311	The value of supply voltage for 400 W, 4 Ω load is ___
3312	If emf in a given circuit is given by e = 100 sinω0t, then maximum value of ___
3313	If one cycle of AC waveform occurs every millisecond, the frequency will be ___
3314	The rms value of sinusoidal voltage wave ___
3315	What will be the rms value of rectangular wave with amplitude 10 V?
3316	The equation for 25 cycles current sine wave having rms value of ___
3317	Two sinusoidal quantities are said to be in ___
3318	The plates of lead acid storage battery are most likely to be ___
3319	The current flowing between electrodes inside a lead acid battery is ___
3320	The value of specific gravity of acid when a lead acid battery is fully charged is ___
3321	During charging, the electrolyte of a lead acid battery becomes
3322	In a lead acid cell ___
3323	Open circuit voltage of a fully charged lead acid cell is ___
3324	The ratio of ampere-hour efficiency to watt-hour efficiency of ___
3325	When the lead acid cell is fully charged the electrolyte assumes ___
3326	The internal resistance of lead acid cell is ___
3327	The watt-hour efficiency of a lead acid cell varies between ___
3328	The lead acid cell should not never be discharged beyond ___
3329	In a lead acid cell, hydrogen is liberated at ___
3330	A 6 V lead acid battery has an internal resistance of ___
3331	The term trickle charge is associated with ___
3332	Fillers in a lead acid battery are provided ___
3333	The capacity of a lead acid cell does not depends on its ___
3334	The life of a lead acid battery is expected to be ___
3335	Which cell has the reversible chemical reaction?
3336	Active materials of a lead acid cell are ___
3337	Container of a lead acid battery ___
3338	Which metal is deposited for electro forming?
3339	Energy efficiency during electroplating is usually in the range ___
3340	Lowest current density is generally recommended for plating of ___
3341	During electroplating the amounts of different substances liberated by ___
3342	Addition of which of the following substance in electrolyte helps in producing bright finish?
3343	Which of the following substance when added to electrolyte promotes smooth deposition?
3344	Zinc cadmium and lead coating is generally provided for ___
3345	During electroplating the weight of substance deposited depends on ___
3346	Electro-chemical equivalent is usually expressed in ___
3347	Highest current density is usually recommended for ___
3348	Coating generally recommended for hard surfacing is ___
3349	Galvanizing is the coating of ___
3350	Aluminium is produced from bauxite by ___
3351	Current efficiency in electroplating is ___
3352	Silver coating is provided for ___
3353	Which law(s) find application in electrolysis?
3354	Electrics supply for electroplating should be ___
3355	Which of following is invariably seen in an electroplating plant?
3356	For cadium plating electrolyte used is ___
3357	Electrolyte for silver plating is ___
3358	Cell short circuit results in ___
3359	Battery charging equipment is generally installed ___
3360	Two battery having unequal emf ___
3361	When the battery is being charged, the terminal voltage decreases ___
3362	The current flow through electrolyte is due to the movement of ___
3363	When the internal resistance of a cell is large compared to the ___
3364	A external resistance R is connected to a cell of ___
3365	The greater the internal resistance of ___
3366	Cells are connected in parallel to ___
3367	The current in a chemical cell is ___
3368	Which battery is used in aeroplanes?
3369	When water is added to sulphuric acid ___
3370	The internal resistance of a dry cell is ___
3371	One ampere hour charge is equivalent to ___
3372	The indication of the state of charge of a battery is ___
3373	Common impurity in battery electrolyte is ___
3374	Cells are connected in series in ___
3375	The storage battery generally used in ___
3376	The capacity of a cell is measured in ___
3377	A gang condenser is ___
3378	Which of following capacitor will have least value of breakdown voltage?
3379	The breakdown voltage for paper capacitor is ___
3380	Which of following capacitors has relatively shorter shelf life?
3381	Mica capacitor are characterised by ___
3382	For closer tolerance which of the following capacitors is usually preferred?
3383	Two wires of A and B of the same material and ___
3384	Which of following capacitors preferred for high frequency circuits?
3385	A ceramic and a mica capacitor have the same ___
3386	A paper capacitor is usually available in form of ___
3387	An electrolytic capacitor can be used for ___
3388	If the sheet of a backelite is inserted between the plates of ___
3389	The capacitance of a capacitor is not affected by ___
3390	Three capacitors each of capacity C are ___
3391	In a capacitor the electric charge is ___
3392	In a capacitive circuit, the capacitive reactance is ___
3393	The sparking between two electrical contacts can ___
3394	The inverse of capacitance is called ___
3395	In a capacitor, the electrical energy is ___
3396	Internal heating of a capacitor is usually attributed to ___
3397	A variable capacitance is one whose capacitance ___
3398	The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor can be ___
3399	For making a capacitor, it is better to select ___
3400	The energy stored by a capacitor is ___
3401	Which of following materials has the least resistivity?
3402	Two resistor are said to be connected in parallel when ___
3403	When current flows through heater coil it glows but supply wiring does ___
3404	The maximum current rating for a 10 k Ω, 0.5 W resistor is ___
3405	The electrical resistance of human body is ___
3406	Two resistances R1 and R2 are connected in ___
3407	A 3Ω resistor having 2A current will dissipate the power of ___
3408	Which of the following quantities remain the same in ___
3409	Three 60 W bulbs are in parallel across the ___
3410	A current of 1 mA flows through a 1M ohm, 2 W carbon resistor ___
3411	Which of the following are typical resistance and power-dissipation values for ___
3412	Which of the following carbon coded resistor has value of 10k ohm with 20% tolerance?
3413	A capacitor ___
3414	A 100 μF capacitor supplied from 3 V source with a frequency of ___
3415	A capacitor passes a current of 12.6 mA when supplied with ___
3416	A 20 μF capacitor and 200 W, 220 V lamp is connected in ___
3417	The capacitive reactance of a capacitor of ___
3418	When AC flows through a pure capacitance then ___
3419	If a capacitors of capacitance 100 μF is connected across a voltage source of ___
3420	A capacitor carries a charge of 0.3 C at ___
3421	A parallel plate capacitor has a capacitance of ___
3422	Which of the followings is the expression for energy stored in a capacitor?
3423	A capacitor is connected to supply with switch and the switch is ___
3424	Ceq of two capacitors connected in series is ___
3425	A capacitor has a capacitance of ___
3426	A capacitor that stores charge of 0.5 C at 10 V has ___
3427	A p.d. of 300 V is applied across series combination of ___
3428	A 50 μF capacitor is charged to retain 10 MJ of energy by ___
3429	The capacitance of a conductor is varying from 2 microfarad to zero in ___
3430	What will be the capacitance when distance between the 2 plates of ___
3431	Purpose of using capacitor is / are ___
3432	The resistance of 100 W, 200 V lamp is ___
3433	200 resistors of 200 Ω each are connected in ___
3434	Which of the following lamp has least resistance?
3435	Which of the following has least resistivity?
3436	For same voltage, the ratio resistance of 100 W lamp to resistance of ___
3437	The hot resistance of a tungsten lamp is about 10 times ___
3438	Resistance of which material does not change with change in temperature?
3439	A cube of material of side 1 cm has a resistance of 0.002 Ω between its ___
3440	A wire of resistance R has it length and ___
3441	Specific resistance is measured in ___
3442	A 10Ω resistor is stretched to increase its ___
3443	A wire of 0.14 mm diameter and specific resistance ___
3444	Three 3Ω resistors are connected to form ___
3445	Two 1 kΩ, 1 W resistors are connected in ___
3446	The resistance of 200 W, 200 V lamp is ___
3447	The ratio of the resistance of a 200 W, 230 V lamp to ___
3448	Two identical resistors are first connected in ___
3449	Two equal resistors R connected in series across ___
3450	Which of the following may be value of resistivity of copper?
3451	Two resistances R1 and R2 give combined resistances 4.5 Ω and 1 Ω when they ___
3452	Which of the following has positive temperature coefficient?
3453	In given figure, the value of resistance R in Ω is ___
3454	The current in the resistor R shown in figure will be ___
3455	The resistivity of semi-conductors at room temperatures is ___
3456	Three resistances have the following ratings 150 Ω at ___
3457	A circuit contains two unequal resistor in ___
3458	Which of the following may be the value of resistivity of copper at ___
3459	If the three colour bands of a resistor are grey, violet and gold, what is the value of the resistor?
3460	What will be the resistance if 10 resistors of 10 ohm each are connected in series?
3461	Which variety of copper has the best mechanical strength?
3462	Which variety of copper has the best conductivity?
3463	Poorest conductor of electricity is ___
3464	Pure metal generally have ___
3465	The electrical conductivity of metal is typically of ___
3466	Which of the following materials has highest electrical conductivity?
3467	Three element having conductance ___
3468	Conductance of any conductor is expressed as ___
3469	An ac voltage source ___
3470	When a lossy capacitor with a dielectric of ___
3471	An electrical motor has rating of 10 MVA at 0.8 lag, represented as ___
3472	Fall time is the time required for a pulse to decrease from 90 to ___
3473	The time required for a pulse to change from 10 % to 90 % of ___
3474	Reactive power drawn by a pure resistor is ___
3475	Under resonance condition the power factor of a system is ___
3476	A parallel plate capacitor contain there dielectric layers of ___
3477	Two point charges of 4μC are placed at a distance of 3 cm apart from ___
3478	A capacitor having a mica dielectric ___
3479	What is the effective capacitance ___
3480	A parallel plate capacitor with air as dielectric, force between plate is ___
3481	A coil with negligible resistance has 50 V across it with ___
3482	Emf induced in a coil rotating in a uniform magnetic field will be ___
3483	Which part of magnetic path requires largest mmf?
3484	Which of following is the unit of magnetic flux density?
3485	The ratio of intensity of magnetisation to the magnetising force is ___
3486	A rectangular magnet of magnetic moment M is cut into two pieces of ___
3487	The stray line of magnetic flux is ___
3488	A conductor of length l meters moves at right angles to a uniform magnetic field of ___
3489	In an AC circuit, containing pure inductance, the voltage applied is ___
3490	The coils having self inductor of 10 mH and 15 mH have an effective inductor of ___
3491	A 2m long conductor, carries a current of 50 A at a magnetic field of ___
3492	The unit of electric field intensity is ___
3493	An electric field can deflect ___
3494	Electric flux is proportional to ___
3495	When a dielectric is placed in an electric field the ___
3496	A positive and a negative charged conductor are initially ___
3497	Which field is associated with the capacitor?
3498	The presence of an uncharged conductor near a charged one ___
3499	The electric field at a point situated at a distance d from ___
3500	The value of E within the field due to a point charge can be found with ___
3501	The ratio of electric flux density to electric field intensity is called ___
3502	Which of following is not a vector?
3503	An electric field line and an equipotential surface are ___
3504	Electric field intensity ( E ) at any point in an electric field is ___
3505	The unit of electric displacement vector is ___
3506	A unit tube of flux is known as ___
3507	Electric displacement is ___
3508	If two point charges are denoted by + Q and-Q and distance between ___
3509	In 2 port network ___
3510	In foster 1 form 1st element is ___
3511	Constant K type HPF (high pass filter) having cut off frequency ___
3512	The strength of current in 1 H inductor changes at rate of ___
3513	A current of 4 A flows in an ac circuit when 100 V dc is applied to ___
3514	The instantaneous values of line current into a delta connected load in ___
3515	A coil of negligible resistance has an induction of ___
3516	A motor having a power factor of 0.8 absorbs in active power of ___
3517	Three identical resistor are connected in star across a ___
3518	The voltage across R and L in a series RL circuit are found to be ___
3519	Ampere second is the unit of ___
3520	The mass of a neutron of atom is ___
3521	The mass of a proton is ___
3522	The charge of an electron is ___
3523	The electron is lighter than a proton by a factor of about ___
3524	What is the mass number of an element that has 19 protons, 19 electrons, and 20 neutrons?
3525	Atoms have no electric charge because they ___
3526	Atoms with fewer than 4 valence electrons are ___
3527	The fixed circular paths around the nucleus are called ___
3528	The absolute charge of an electron is ___
3529	The mass of the atom is determined by ___
3530	A wire 2.5 m long is bent into a ___
3531	While comparing magnetic field and electric circuits, the point of ___
3532	Among the options which metal has the highest electrical conductivity?
3533	Capacitors for P.f correction are rated in ___
3534	Sulphation in a lead acid battery occurs due to ___
3535	Four bulbs of 40 W each are connected in series with a battery across ___
3536	What is called a cycle in case of AC operation?
3537	What is called the instantaneous value of an alternating current?
3538	For making a capacitor it is better to select a dielectric having
3539	There are two capacitors C1 and C2 in parallel , what will be their equivalent capacitance?
3540	An electrolytic capacitor can be used for
3541	What is the real power in AC operation?
3542	What is apparent power in AC operation?
3543	What is the frequency of domestic power in India?
3544	Select the wave that has the least value of ___
3545	What is form factor?
3546	What is referred as the average value in AC opearation?
3547	What is the relation between time period T and frequency?
3548	What is called the frequency in AC operation?
3549	What is time period T?
3550	In a series resonant circuit impedance is ___
3551	What is the dielectric material used in precision small value capacitor and ___
3552	The current through the 2 KΩ resistance ( rest resitances are all 1 ohm each ) in ___
3553	There is a ___ between two nodes of signal flow graph
3554	What is the SI unit of electric current?
3555	What is the value of charge of an electron?
3556	Which property is used to oppose the flow of current?
3557	According to duality principle a series inductor (L) can be represented as ___
3558	A pole of driving point impedance is ___
3559	Reciprocity condition for h parameters is ___
3560	Mesh analysis is prefered when loops are ___
3561	Active filter consists of ___
3562	Basic cut set matrix consists of ___
3563	If N is the number of nodes and b is the number of branches in ___
3564	Given network is having N nodes and B branches, then number of ___
3565	Number of branches of a graph should be ___
3566	In ideal system coefficient of coupling(k) is ___
3567	Poles and zeros are arranged alternatively on imaginary axis, then type of network is?
3568	In the cauer-1 form of LC network ___
3569	Image impedance can be written by using ___
3570	In RLC series circuit R = 2Ω, L = 2mH and C = 1μF and applied voltage is ___
3571	Transients are presents in the circuit when the circuit is ___
3572	Resistor stores the energy in the form of ___
3573	In RLC parallel network R = 2 Ohm, L = 2mH and ___
3574	In RLC series circuit R = 2Ω, L = 2mH and ___
3575	Final value theorem is not applicable for which of the following?
3576	To find the initial value of a function, the highest power of ___
3577	In which of the following networks it is not possible to find the transient free response?
3578	In which of the following oscillations are not present?
3579	Which of the following is the different one in terms of measurements?
3580	Time constant is the time taken for response to rise ___
3581	What is the value of time constant?
3582	Time constant of RC series circuit is ___
3583	Time constant of RL series circuit is ___
3584	In RC series circuit R = 2Ω, C = 2μF and 10V dc is ___
3585	In steady state condition capacitor acts as ___
3586	In RL series circuit R=2Ω and L=10mH and applied voltage is ___
3587	For steady state current inductor acts as ___
3588	Which of the following elements is/are called dynamic element/s?
3589	By which of the following elements transients will not occur?
3590	In RLC parallel circuit to get Q>1 which of the following is required?
3591	In series RLC circuit to get Q>1, which of the following is required?
3592	For ideal tank circuit what is the value of dynamic impedance?
3593	For ideal tank circuit, what is the value of dynamic admittance?
3594	In parallel RLC circuit under resonance condition the value of ___
3595	In RLC series circuit, at resonance condition the value of ___
3596	In RLC series circuit if the Q factor is 1, then the damping of the system is ___
3597	In a series resonance circuit if bandwidth is 1 MHz and inductance is ___
3598	Which of the following represents the resonance frequency ___
3599	In series RLC circuit what is the power factor just above the resonance frequency?
3600	In series RLC circuit what is the power factor just bellow the resonance frequency?
3601	In series RLC circuit which of the following represents the Q factor?
3602	To obtain wide bandwidth, network is designed with which of the following?
3603	To obtain high efficiency, network is designed with which of the following?
3604	At which of the following frequency voltage across capacitor has ___
3605	Current magnification will occur in which of the following case?
3606	Voltage magnification will occur in which of the following case?
3607	Under resonance condition the phase angle between voltage phase ___
3608	For occurrence of resonance which of the following elements are required?
3609	In RLC parallel circuit if current through capacitor and inductor is ___
3610	In parallel RC circuit total current is 5A and current through resistor is ___
3611	Current locus is obtained by which of the following?
3612	When power factor angle is varying, the shape of the current locus is ___
3613	When power factor angle is constant, then shape of the current locus is ___
3614	In RLC parallel circuit circuit current through inductor is ___
3615	In RLC parallel circuit current through resistor, inductor and capacitor are ___
3616	In RLC series circuit, if the voltage across capacitor is greater than ___
3617	In series RLC circuit, voltage across resistor, inductor and capacitor are ___
3618	In ac RC series circuit total voltage is 10V and voltage across resistor is ___
3619	In series R, L circuit power factor can be ___
3620	The alternative names for ___
3621	In a series R, L circuit, voltage across resistor and inductor are ___
3622	Average power taken by the pure capacitor is ___
3623	If a pure inductor is connected across the ac source, the average power taken ___
3624	If a resistor is connected across the voltage source and ___
3625	Form factor is equal to Peak factor in case of ___
3626	For symmetrical wave form average value of ___
3627	Which of the following defined the average value?
3628	Rms value is defined based on which of the following?
3629	When we use super node technique ___
3630	Super mesh analysis is used in case of ___
3631	KVL works on the principle of ___
3632	KCL works on the principle of which of the following ___
3633	Which of the following quantities consists of SI unit as WATT?
3634	Which of the following has no units?
3635	Which quantity consists of a unit 1KWh?
3636	Which quantity should be measured by the voltmeter?
3637	To apply reciprocity theorem response to excitation ratio is ___
3638	Super position theorem is not applicable for ___
3639	Mesh analysis is applicable for ___
3640	Nodal analysis can be applied for ___
3641	Internal resistance of ideal current source is ___
3642	Internal resistance of ideal voltage source is ___
3643	Capacitor does not allow the sudden change of ___
3644	Inductor does not allow the sudden change of ___
3645	Power dissipation in ideal inductor is ___
3646	Which of the following are the passive elements?
3647	Which of the followings is/are active element?
3648	If P is the power of a star connected system then what will be power of ___
3649	In balanced bridge, if the positions of detector and source are ___
3650	If all the elements in a particular network are ___
3651	Magnetic flux has the unit of ___
3652	Absolute permittivity of dielectric medium is ___
3653	The voltage induced in an inductor is ___
3654	Instantaneous power in inductor is proportional to ___
3655	The unit of resistivity is ___
3656	1 F is theoretically equal to ___
3657	Five capacitors each of 5 µF are connected in ___
3658	Four capacitors each of 40 µF are connected in ___
3659	To obtain a high value of capacitance, the permittivity of ___
3660	A capacitor carries a charge of ___
3661	How many coulombs of charge flow through a circuit carrying a current of 10 A in 1 minute?
3662	The resistance of a conductor of diameter ___
3663	The resistivity of the conductor depends on ___
3664	If 1 A current flows in a circuit, the number of electrons flowing through ___
3665	While using a frequency counter for measuring frequency, two modes of ___
3666	A computer has a word length of ___
3667	X = 01110 and Y = 11001 are two 5-bit binary numbers represented in ___
3668	Which one of the following is correct sequence of ___
3669	A system has following negative numbers stored in ___
3670	The base of the number system for the ___
3671	The number A = 01110000 and B = 10101111 are in ___
3672	A signed integer has been stored in a byte using ___
3673	Which one of the following is 2’s complement of -68?
3674	11001, 1001 and 111001 correspond to the 2’scomplement representation of ___
3675	Which of the following is 2’s complement of +12?
3676	What is the 2’s complement of 10110000?
3677	Which of the following is 1’s complement representation of ___
3678	Which of the following is 1’s complement representation of -34?
3679	The 1’s complement of 11010111 is ___
3680	The decimal number 0.246 in binary is ___
3681	The binary number 110011.11 is equivalent to ___
3682	A group of four bits is known as ___
3683	A number system with radix 2 is known as ___
3684	What is the gray code for the binary 101011?
3685	Which is typically the longest?
3686	The number of 1 in 8-bit representation of 127 in 2’s complement form is ___
3687	Which one of the following is an invalid state in ___
3688	A new Binary Coded Pantry (BCP) number system is ___
3689	Choose the right statement?
3690	AND operation of ___
3691	Which of the following notations have two representations of zero?
3692	Consider the following multiplication ___
3693	To get an excess-3 code from ___
3694	The binary equivalent of hexadecimal number ___
3695	The decimal equivalent of hexadecimal number of ___
3696	To add two m-bit numbers, the required number of ___
3697	Which of the following represents the ___
3698	In signed magnitude representation, the binary equivalent of ___
3699	The minimum decimal equivalent of ___
3700	The number of digit 1 present in the binary representation of ___
3701	F’s complement of ___
3702	If two numbers in excess-3 code are added and the result is less than ___
3703	What are the values of R1 and R2 respectively in ___
3704	The hex address of the ___
3705	Which of the following BCD codes with an odd parity bit included in ___
3706	A self-complementing code for the decimal digits is created using ___
3707	16’s complement of BABA is?
3708	10’s complement of 63325600 is ___
3709	9’s complement of 52784630 is ___
3710	What is the correct base of number so that operation is correct?
3711	If in a base b number system, 54/4=13, the base of ___
3712	Which of the following shows the correct attachment of even parity bit to ___
3713	Which one of the following even parity codes are in ___
3714	The decimal equivalent of ___
3715	The maximum positive and negative numbers that can be ___
3716	The largest positive number that can be stored in a computer that has ___
3717	When two n-bit binary numbers are added then the sum will contain ___
3718	The maximum positive and negative numbers which can be ___
3719	The field, which is never present in an assembly language statement, is ___
3720	An EPROM is ___
3721	The process of entering information in EPROM is commonly known as ___
3722	A PROM ___
3723	An EPROM ___
3724	A read only memory in which the present contents must be erased before the ___
3725	In a read-only memory information can be ___
3726	Four ROM chips of 16 × 4 size have their address buses connected ___
3727	It is desired to have ___
3728	A ROM has a 16-bit address bus ___
3729	The data bus width of a ROM of size 2048 × 8 bits is ___
3730	The decimal equivalent of the highest possible address for ___
3731	The address bus with a ROM of size 1024 × 8 bits is ___
3732	An 8 × 4 ROM contains a decoder of ___
3733	A 32 × 10 ROM contains a decoder of ___
3734	Which of the following operations is commutative but not associative?
3735	The most suitable gate to check whether the number of 1s in a digital word is ___
3736	For checking the parity of a digital word, it is ___
3737	Which of the following below statements is true?
3738	The number of rows in the truth table of a 4-input gate is ___
3739	The output of a logic gate is 0 when all its inputs are at logic 0, the gate is either ___
3740	Which of the following statements below is true?
3741	The output of a logic gate is 0 when all its inputs are at ___
3742	The output of a logic gate is 0 when all its ___
3743	The output of a logic gate is 1 when all its inputs are at logic 0
3744	The output of a logic gate is 1 when all its inputs are ___
3745	The output of a logic gate is 1 when all ___
3746	A gate is inhibited when its inhibit input is ___
3747	A gate is enabled when its enable input is ___
3748	Which of the following gates cannot be used as an inverter?
3749	The most suitable gate for comparing two bits is ___
3750	The output of a gate is HIGH when at least one of ___
3751	The output of a gate is LOW when at least one of its inputs is ___
3752	A bubbled NOR gate is equivalent to ___
3753	A bubbled NAND gate is equivalent to ___
3754	A bubbled OR gate is equivalent to ___
3755	A bubbled AND gate is equivalent to ___
3756	An all or nothing gate is the other name of ___
3757	An OR gate can be imagined as ___
3758	An AND gate can be imagined as ___
3759	What is the minimum number of NOR gates required realizing an X-OR gating?
3760	What is the minimum number of NAND gates required to realize an X-OR gate?
3761	How many NOR gates are required to obtain AND operation?
3762	The output of a NAND gate is ___
3763	The output of a NOR gate is ___
3764	Which of the following gates is known as anticoincidence detector?
3765	Which of the following gates is known as a coincidence detector?
3766	What logic function is produced by adding an inverter to each input and output of an OR gate?
3767	What logic function is produced by adding an inverter to each input and output of an AND gate?
3768	What logic function is produced by adding inverters to the inputs of an OR gate?
3769	What logic function is produced by adding inverters to the inputs of an AND gate?
3770	NOT gates are to be added to the inputs of which gate to convert it to a NOR gate?
3771	NOT gates are to be added to the inputs of which gate to convert it to a NAND gate?
3772	What is the minimum number of two-input NAND gates used to perform ___
3773	Which of the following is known as a mod-2 adder?
3774	The logic expression A + B can be implemented by giving ___
3775	The logic expression AB can be implemented by giving ___
3776	The X-OR and X-NOR gates can have how many inputs?
3777	An exclusive NOR gate is logically equivalent to ___
3778	An X-OR gate gives a high output ___
3779	The NOR gate can function as ___
3780	The NAND gate can function as ___
3781	What is the logic which controls a stair case light associated with ___
3782	A combinational circuit can be designed using ___
3783	The number of parity bits in a 12-bit Hamming code is ___
3784	Which of the following is a self-complementing code?
3785	In which of the following codes do the successive characters differ in only 1-bit position?
3786	In which code do the successive code characters differ in only one position?
3787	The XS-3 code is ___
3788	ASCII ___
3789	Which of the following codes is known as the 8421 code?
3790	A 15-bit Hamming code requires ___
3791	EBCDIC code is ___
3792	ASCII code is ___
3793	ASCII and EBCDIC codes are ___
3794	The 7-bit Hamming code is used to ___
3795	2421 code is ___
3796	8421 code is ___
3797	2-out-of-5 code is ___
3798	The parity of the binary number ___
3799	The following code is not ___
3800	For a code to be self-complementing, the sum of ___
3801	Unit distance code is ___
3802	The codes in which each successive code word differs from ___
3803	The code used in digital systems to represent decimal digits, letters, and ___
3804	A device which converts 2421 code into 8421 code is ___
3805	A demultiplexer is ___
3806	A multiplexer is ___
3807	A device which converts BCD into octal is ___
3808	A device which converts decimal number into BCD form is ___
3809	In ULSI, the number of gate circuits per chip is ___
3810	In VLSI, the number of gate circuits per chip is ___
3811	In LSI, the number of gate circuits per chip is ___
3812	In MSI, the number of gate circuits per chip is ___
3813	In SSI, the number of gate circuits per chip is ___
3814	The voltage levels for negative logic system ___
3815	The voltage levels for positive logic system ___
3816	The voltages corresponding to LOW and HIGH levels respectively are ___
3817	The devices commonly used for making ___
3818	Switching circuits are ___
3819	Logic circuits are ___
3820	The AND-OR realization of a combinational circuit requires ___
3821	For the design of a combinational circuit with four inputs using ___
3822	OR-AND realization of a combinational circuit is ___
3823	AND-OR realization of a combinational circuit is ___
3824	The NOR-NOR realization is ___
3825	The NAND-NAND realization is equivalent to ___
3826	Minimization of logical expressions while designing digital systems helps ___
3827	In K-map simplification, a group of four adjacent 1s leads to ___
3828	A 16-square eliminates ___
3829	In simplification of a Boolean function of n variables, a group of ___
3830	The Quine– McClusky method of minimization of a logic expression is ___
3831	The number of cells in a 6 variable K-map is ___
3832	The code used for labeling the cells of ___
3833	The implicants which will definitely occur in the final expression are ___
3834	The terms which cannot be combined further in the tabular method are ___
3835	An 8-square is ___
3836	An 8-square eliminates ___
3837	The binary number designations of the rows and columns of ___
3838	The main criterion in the design of a digital circuit is ___
3839	Each term in the standard SOP form is ___
3840	An n variable K-map can have ___
3841	The set of which logic gates is designated as universal gate?el
3842	The fast logic family is ___
3843	A switch-tail ring counter is made by using a single ___
3844	If a counter having 10 flip flops is initially at 0, What count will if hold after 2060 pulses?
3845	A 10 bit A/D conveter is used to digitize an analog signal in ___
3846	The 2s complement of 17 is ___
3847	Counter is ___
3848	In flip flop clock is present but in latch clock is ___
3849	How many flip flops are required to build a binary counter circuit to count from 0 to 1023?
3850	Excess 3 code is known as ___
3851	The number of comparators in a parallel conversion type 8-bit analog to ___
3852	What will be Excess-3 code for decimal ( 584 )?
3853	The resolution of a 12 bit analog to digital converter in ___
3854	Slowest memory element is ___
3855	Fastest memory element is ___
3856	Which Gate is called inequality comparator?
3857	Which of these circuits will give yield carry with ___
3858	Which of these circuits have higher ___
3859	What is mean by FPU ___
3860	If clock time period is 1ms, what is its frequency ___
3861	One bit full adder has ___
3862	What is the difference between ___
3863	A digital voltmeter has a read out range from ___
3864	The effect of stray magnetic field on the actuating torque of ___
3865	The simplified block diagram of a 10-bit A/D converter of ___
3866	A flip flop is ___
3867	A half adder is ___
3868	For 4 bit parallel addition, we need ___
3869	Which of the following below is correct ___
3870	A graphical representation of a products in a truth table is ___
3871	Simplified form of the function ___
3872	The main equation for a D flip flop is ___
3873	If 4 input MUXes drive a 4 input multiplexer, it results ___
3874	Extremely low power dissipation per gate can be ___
3875	Number of 2 input multiplexers need to construct ___
3876	A small circle or dot on top of ___
3877	A multiplexer is a combinational logic circuit used to ___
3878	1 kb represents ___
3879	1 Gigabyte is equal to ___
3880	A byte is equal to ___
3881	The number FF in base-16 systems will be equal to ___
3882	Odd parity of a bit stream can be tested using ___
3883	XNOR followed by a NOT gate is equivalent to ___
3884	Which of the following is equivalent to ___
3885	X OR X’ will result ___
3886	X’ AND X’ will result ___
3887	The state of a flip-flop can be switched by changing its ___
3888	The momentary change in the output/state of the flip-flops is ___
3889	Master-slave flip flop consists of ___
3890	The switch which clears a flip-flop is know as ___
3891	A half adder has ___
3892	A full adder has ___
3893	Which circuit is used in between two systems having two different codes ___
3894	What is the minimum number of 2 input NAND gates used to ___
3895	Combinations that are not listed for the input variables are ___
3896	At which the digital data can be applied to a a gate is known as ___
3897	Choose the option which is not a code conversion standard ___
3898	The time required for a gate to change its output is ___
3899	A single flip-flop can be cleared (reset) to ___
3900	The two conductors of a transmission line carry equal ___
3901	Which of the following is not a transmission medium?
3902	Which of the following logic circuits is the fastest?
3903	Dual slope ADC has R = 1 KΩ and C = 0.22 nano farad has ___
3904	When will be the output of an exclusive-OR gate is HIGH?
3905	What will be the Boolean expression for an inverter logic gate, where input is ___
3906	What is the Boolean expression for a two-input AND gate?
3907	Why small bubble is given on the output of the NAND gate symbol?
3908	Which of the logical operations is represented by the + sign in Boolean algebra?
3909	How many output is high of NOR GATE?
3910	When will be the output of an AND gate is HIGH if there are three inputs, A, B, and C?
3911	How many numbers are used in the decimal number system?
3912	How many input and output required for multiplexer?
3913	How the digital signals is transmitted through a single conductor?
3914	When will be the output of a NOT gate is LOW?
3915	Why encoder is used in the digital electronics?
3916	When will be the output of an OR gate is LOW?
3917	What is the requirement of fullsubstractor circuit?
3918	What is the radix of octal number system?
3919	Why generic array logic (GAL) device was invented?
3920	How many stable state/states present in flip-flop?
3921	How many input and output required for demultiplexer?
3922	Which is the example of digital device from the given option?
3923	When will be the output of a NOT gate is HIGH?
3924	Why decoder is used in the digital electronics?
3925	When will be the output of an AND gate is LOW?
3926	Latches are ___
3927	A sequence of binary digits is ___
3928	All the integers and decimal numbers are represented by ___
3929	Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code is ___
3930	EBCDIC is abbreviated as ___
3931	Transfer of data from one register to another register is known as ___
3932	The way of representing numbers in the form of 0s and 1s is ___
3933	The difference between the diagram of a NOR and OR gate is ___
3934	The complement of a function A is ___
3935	2’s Complement of 10101011 is ___
3936	Positive integers must be represented by ___
3937	1s Complement of 11001010 is ___
3938	Maximum number in decimal that can be represented by ___
3939	Convert the binary number (1111000011110000) to ___
3940	A binary number system is of base ___
3941	Complement of XNOR and NOR is ___
3942	A . Ā is equal to ___
3943	A + Ā is equal to ___
3944	Complement of NOR and OR gate is ___
3945	Truth table is used to express ___
3946	LSI means ___
3947	X + X.Y =?
3948	In Boolean algebra, OR is represented by ___
3949	In Boolean algebra AND is represented by ___
3950	OR operation is equivalant to ___
3951	AND operation is equivalant to ___
3952	In Boolean algebra A.A is equal to ___
3953	In the boolean algebra, a variable has ___
3954	The boolean algebra is mostly based on ___
3955	A boolean function can be transformed into logical ___
3956	In a T flip-flop no of input circuit is ___
3957	Boolean algebra is also known as ___
3958	Which logic family provide minimum ___
3959	In digital systems, 1 byte is equal to ___
3960	If J = K (J and K are shorted) in ___
3961	If J = K (J and K are shorted) in a JK flip-flop, what circuit is ___
3962	A Nibble is equal to ___
3963	1 Kilo bits are equal to ___
3964	Queue is also known as ___
3965	Stack is also known as ___
3966	A digital circuit that can store on bit is ___
3967	In decimal number system what is ___
3968	In Digital Logic Designs, GAL is abbreviated as ___
3969	Temperature variation is a/an ___
3970	If a Hexadecimal number needs to convert to ___
3971	A Binary number system has how many digits ___
3972	Which of the following is a digital device ___
3973	A three-state buffer has the following output states ___
3974	In the toggle mode a JK flip-flop has ___
3975	Which one of the following is not a vectored interrupt?
3976	Which of these sets of logic gates are designated as universal gates?
3977	A D-flip-flop is said to be transparent when ___
3978	In an SR latch built from NOR gates, which condition is ___
3979	In binary number system the first digit (bit) from right to left is ___
3980	How many bits are required to store one BCD digit?
3981	How many entries will be in the truth table of a 3 input NAND gate?
3982	A latch is ___
3983	Which number system has a base of ___
3984	Which of the following memories uses one transistor and ___
3985	At which frequency does the Bode magnitude plots for the functions ___
3986	The low frequency and high frequency asymptotes of ___
3987	The initial slope of Bode plot for a transfer function having no poles at ___
3988	To achieve the optimum transient response, the indicating instruments are ___
3989	The transfer function of a phase lead compensator is ___
3990	Which of the following is/are represents the lag compensator?
3991	Which of the following is/are represents the lead compensator?
3992	A controller transfer function is given by ___
3993	With regard to filtering property, the lead compensator is ___
3994	Consider the following statements for phase lead compensation ___
3995	The transfer function of phase lead compensator is given by ___
3996	The compensator ___
3997	If the transfer function of a phase lead compensator is (s+a)/(s+b) and that of ___
3998	The maximum phase lag occurs at the ___
3999	Error at corner frequency ___
4000	Find the corner frequency for the following transfer function?
4001	Find the stability for the following transfer function ___
4002	A open loop transfer function is given as ___
4003	When the system gain is doubled the gain margin becomes?
4004	Resonant peak of a marginally stable system is ___
4005	In polar plots if the critical point ‘-1+j0’ is enclosed then the system is ___
4006	A unity feedback control system has forward loop transfer function as ___
4007	The value of ‘a’ in ___
4008	Which of the following is the correct expression for the ___
4009	A property of phase lead compensation is ___
4010	The Laplace transform of a transportation lag of ___
4011	A system has poles at 0.01 Hz, 1 Hz and 80 Hz; zeros at ___
4012	The phase margin of a system having the loop transfer function ___
4013	The transfer function of a plant is ___
4014	A second order system has peak over shoot = 50% and period of ___
4015	If the magnitude of G(jω)H(jω) at phase crossover frequency is ___
4016	A second order under damped system has damping ratio of ___
4017	Find the conditions for the system to be stable?
4018	The magnitude of a transfer function G(jω)H(jω) at gain cross over ___
4019	If the bandwidth of the system is very large, the system response is ___
4020	Find the bandwidth of the system, when rise time of the system is give as 1msec?
4021	For a second order under damped system subjected to ___
4022	A second order control system has ___
4023	Find the relation of damped natural frequency ___
4024	Which of the following represents the value of
4025	In frequency response analysis of second order system, the error at ___
4026	The steady state sinusoidal response will become zero at ___
4027	The open loop transfer function of non unity negative feedback system is ___
4028	The value of damping factor for which the resonant peek is equal to 1.4 is ___
4029	The characteristic equation for closed loop system is ___
4030	Negative feedback in a closed loop control system ___
4031	A lag compensator ___
4032	The closed loop transfer function of a system is ___
4033	The closed loop transfer function of a unity feedback control system is ___
4034	The error of a system to a ramp input is 1/5, if the type of the system is ___
4035	The transfer function of a linear time invariant system is given as ___
4036	The characteristic equation has the following roots for over damped stable system?
4037	The poles of the second order system are at -3 ± j4 ___
4038	Transfer function of a control system depends on ___
4039	The transfer function of the system described by ___
4040	A transfer function has a zero at ___
4041	Consider the function ___
4042	Given the Laplace transform of f(t) = F(s), the Laplace transform of ___
4043	When deriving the transfer function of ___
4044	Electrical analogous element for damper element ___
4045	A transfer function has its zero in the right half of ___
4046	The open loop transfer function of a unity feedback system is given by ___
4047	A unity feed back system has forward transfer function ___
4048	The characteristic equation of a control system is ___
4049	Angle of asymptotes for complimentary root locus is ___
4050	Angle condition for complimentary root locus or ___
4051	Find the angles of asymptotes of the open loop transfer function ___
4052	A control system has open loop transfer function G(s) = k/(s(s + 2)
4053	A control system has open loop transfer function ___
4054	The characteristic equation of a feedback control system is given by s³ + 5s² + (k + 6)s + k = 0
4055	Which of the following statements is/are true?
4056	Find the angle between the asymptotes?
4057	The characteristic equation of a control system is given by ___
4058	Let P = Number of open loop poles and Z = Number of open loop zeros and ___
4059	A unity feedback control system has an open loop transfer function ___
4060	Consider a point S = -3 + j4 in the ___
4061	The magnitude condition for root locus is ___
4062	The angle condition used for checking whether any point lies on ___
4063	The unit step response of the system is ___
4064	What is the value of k?
4065	Find the number of roots which lie on the right half of s-plane?
4066	The number of roots which lie in the right half of s-plane is ___
4067	The optimum values of damping ratio is ___
4068	Settling time for 5% tolerance band is ___
4069	Find the settling time for 2% tolerance?
4070	Two identical first order systems have been cascaded ___
4071	A second order control system has a transfer function ___
4072	Time constant is defined as the time taken by the response of the system to ___
4073	A ramp input applied to an unity feedback system results in 5% steady state error
4074	Transient state analysis depends on which of the following?
4075	In which of the following controller band width is increased?
4076	For unit step input to the system the approximate settling time for ___
4077	Which of the following controller has sluggish response?
4078	Which of the following controller is also known as anticipatory controller?
4079	A proportional plus integral controller ___
4080	Which one of the following is the steady state error for a step input applied to ___
4081	Which one of the following is the response y(t) of ___
4082	A proportional plus derivative controller ___
4083	The device necessarily used for automatic temperature control in ___
4084	The position and velocity error coefficient for the transfer function ___
4085	The Laplace transformation of f(t) is ___
4086	When the input to a system was with drawn at t = 0, its output was ___
4087	The impulse response of an initally relaxed linear system is ___
4088	The unit step error coefficient of ___
4089	The transfer function of a system is given as ___
4090	Based on relation between the arm impedances the filters can be categorized into how many types?
4091	What is the full form of SPICE?
4092	First Foster form of a LC network represents which element in the beginning?
4093	What type of function is in the below ___
4094	Slope of asymptote in Bode plot of 2nd order system is ___
4095	Error constants of a system are a measure of ___
4096	The transfer function of the control system depends on ___
4097	For a transfer function H (s) = P(s) / Q(s), where ___
4098	For a unity feedback control system open loop ___
4099	For a unity feedback control system open loop transfer function ___
4100	For a unity feedback control system open loop transfer function then ___
4101	Time response for a second order system depends ___
4102	Time response for a second order system depends on value of ___
4103	Time response for a second order control system depends on ___
4104	Time response for a second order system depends on ___
4105	When the polynomial is Routh Hurwitz ___
4106	In the integral control of the single area system frequency error is ___
4107	A cascade of three linear time invariant systems is ___
4108	Number of sign changes in the entries in 1st column of ___
4109	None of the poles of a linear control system lie in ___
4110	A system of constant voltage and constant frequency is ___
4111	Find the type of the system given by ___
4112	Find the order of a system given by ___
4113	The transfer function of a system given by ___
4114	The DC gain of a system represented by the transfer function ___
4115	A function of one or more variables which conveys information about ___
4116	If a body has identical properties all over, it is known as ___
4117	The characteristic equation of a feedback control is ___
4118	The amplitude spectrum of a Gaussian pulse is ___
4119	The second order system defined by ___
4120	The value of gain margin of the system having ___
4121	Number of roots in left hand half of s plane if characteristic equation is ___
4122	The phase of lead compensator of the system ___
4123	For a lead compensator, the poles lie ___
4124	In a control system, an integrator is represented by ___
4125	A linear time invariant system has an impulse response ___
4126	Transfer function of zero order hold response is ___
4127	A system is stable for ___
4128	Name test signals used in time response analysis?
4129	Type and order of transfer function ___
4130	Lead network is used to ___
4131	A function y (t) satisfies the following differential equation ___
4132	An open loop control system, represented by ___
4133	Time taken by the response to reach and stay within a specified error is ___
4134	Time taken for the response to rise from zero to 100 % for very first time is ___
4135	A lead compensator used for a closed loop controller has ___
4136	The impulse response of a linear system is ___
4137	What is the Laplace transform of a function δ(t-2)?
4138	For type 1 system with parabolic input, the steady state error is ___
4139	The type number of the control system with ___
4140	Given a unity feedback system with G(s) = k/s(s+4), the value of k for ___
4141	Find the Laplace transform for sinωt?
4142	If the excitation i(t) is a unit step, which of the following is the final value?
4143	The input-output relationship of a linear time invariant continuous time system is ___
4144	The open loop transfer function for unity feedback system is ___
4145	If the excitation i(t) is a unit step, which of the following is the initial value?
4146	Consider a network function ___
4147	The open loop transfer function of a unity feedback control system is ___
4148	Which of the following transfer functions represent under damped second order systems?
4149	The unit impulse response of second order system is ___
4150	A linear time invariant system, initially at rest when subjected to ___
4151	Adding a pole to a system transfer function in terms of compensator represents a ___ compensator?
4152	Lead compensator is used to improve ___
4153	Certain control system has input ___
4154	Its open loop transfer function is ___
4155	What is the open loop DC gain of a unity feedback control system having ___
4156	The impulse response of a system is ___
4157	Weighting function is in terms of ___ele
4158	Differentiation of parabolic response is a ___ eleresponse?
4159	The steady state error due to ramp input for ___
4160	A second order control system is defined by ___
4161	What is the order of a closed loop control system for ___
4162	Which of the following statement is/are true statements?
4163	What is the type of closed loop system for the __
4164	The type of a control system is obtained from ___ transfer function?
4165	The impulse response of the system ___
4166	The impulse response of the system described by ___
4167	The step response of the system described by the differential equation will be ___
4168	When compared to a 1st order LPF, a 2nd order LPF has ___
4169	Open loop transfer function ___
4170	Transient state analysis deals with ___
4171	The transfer function for tachometer ___
4172	Which of the following is/are the example of actuator?
4173	Accurate and reliable output is possible with which of the following system?
4174	Which of the following is/are the characteristics of negative feedback control system?
4175	Which of the following is the electrical analogous element for ___
4176	When writing a transfer function which of the following loops are not valid loops?
4177	In signal flow graph input node is node having only ___
4178	If two blocks having gains A and B respectively are in ___
4179	If a circuit consists of two mass elements, two spring elements and ___
4180	Electrical analogous quantity for dash-pot in force-current analogy is ___
4181	In force-current analogy, electrical analogous quantity for ___
4182	Electrical analogous quantity for spring element (K) in ___
4183	Which of the following is the analogous quantity for mass element in force-voltage analogy?
4184	Which of the following is/are the disadvantages of an open loop control system?
4185	Force balancing equation for elastic element (K) is ___ele
4186	Force balancing equation of a dash-pot element is ___
4187	Which of the following is/are the advantages of a closed loop control system?
4188	Force balancing equation of a mass element is ___
4189	By using which of the following elements, mechanical translational systems are obtained?
4190	The output of the system has an effect upon the ___
4191	Which of the following are the disadvantages of a closed loop control system?
4192	Advantages of open loop control system is ___
4193	Which system is also known as automatic control system?
4194	A box which tells the effect of inputs on control sub system is known as ___
4195	Poles and zeros are arranged alternatively on negative real axis, then ___
4196	Lowest critical frequency is due to zero and it may be present at ___
4197	Lowest critical frequency is due to pole and it may be present at ___
4198	In the cauer-2 form of LC network ___
4199	What is the value of base x in the below?
4200	For emitter bias, the voltage at the emitter is ___
4201	The major advantage of a photo transistor as compared to ___
4202	When testing an npn transistor using ___
4203	If the emitter resistance decreases ____
4204	If the emitter resistance increases, the collector voltage ___
4205	When the current gain increases from 50 to 300 in ___
4206	If the current gain is unknown in an emitter-biased circuit, you cannot calculate ___
4207	The first step in analyzing emitter-based circuits is ___
4208	When there is no base current in a transistor switch, the output ___
4209	When the Q point moves along the ___
4210	The collector current is ___
4211	If the collector resistor opens in a base-biased circuit, the load line ___
4212	If the base resistor has zero resistance, the transistor will ___
4213	If the base supply voltage is disconnected, the collector-emitter voltage will ___
4214	Suppose the base resistor is ___
4215	If the base supply voltage increase, the Q point moves ___
4216	If a transistor operates at the middle of the load line, a decrease in ___
4217	If a transistor operates at the middle of ___
4218	Three difference Q points are shown on ___
4219	In the active region, the collector current is ___
4220	The base-emitter voltage of ___
4221	A small collector current with zero base current is caused by ___
4222	The power dissipated by a transistor approximately equals the ___
4223	The collector-emitter voltage is usually ___
4224	The base-emitter voltage is usually ___
4225	If the current gain is 100 and the collector current is ___
4226	In a pnp transistor, the major carriers in the emitter are ___
4227	In a normally biased npn transistor, the electrons in the emitter have ___
4228	The fact that there are many free electrons in ___
4229	Increasing the collector supply voltage will ___
4230	The β of a transistor is the ratio of ___
4231	Most of the electrons in the base of an NPN transistor do not recombine ___
4232	Most of the electrons in the base of ___
4233	For normal operation of the transistor, the collector diode has ___
4234	In an NPN transistor, the majority carriers in ___
4235	A transistor has how many PN junctions?
4236	Piezoelectric effect is utilized in which of the following filter?
4237	The input voltage to an emitter follower is ___
4238	The output voltage of an emitter follower is ___
4239	The AC base voltage of an emitter follower is ___
4240	The input impedance of the base of an emitter follower is ___
4241	The voltage gain of a loaded differential amp is ___
4242	The input offset electric current is ___
4243	The typical input stage of an opamp has ___
4244	The 741 C has a unity-gain frequency of ___
4245	An opamp has a voltage gain of ___
4246	The voltage follower has ___
4247	The common-mode rejection ratio is ___
4248	The input stage of an op amp is usually ___
4249	A common-mode signal is applied to ___
4250	When the two input terminals of a differential amplifier are ___
4251	The input offset electric current equals the ___
4252	The input signal for an instrumentation amplifier usually comes ___
4253	The opamp can amplify ___
4254	The transit time of the electric current carriers through ___
4255	In an E only MOSFET, drain electric current starts only ___
4256	The main factor which makes a MOSFET likely to breakdown during ___
4257	The main advantage of CMOS is ___
4258	Most small-signal E-MOSFETs are found in ___
4259	Which of the following is expected to have highest input impedance?
4260	What does MOS stand for?
4261	A D-MOSFET is considered to be ___
4262	In modern the MOSFET, the material used for ___
4263	A D-MOSFET can operate in ___
4264	A depletion MOSFET differs from a JFET in the ___
4265	IGFET is a ___
4266	Which of following is the fastest switching device?
4267	In a MOSFET, the polarity of the inversion layer is the same as ___
4268	In MOSFET devices the N-channel type is better the P-channel type in ___
4269	MOSFET uses the electric field of ___
4270	Input impedance of MOSFET is ___ele
4271	The positive part of the output signal in a transistor circuit starts ___
4272	The negative part of the output signal in a transistor circuit starts el___
4273	The CE amplifier circuit are preferred over CB amplifier circuit because ___
4274	In a properly biased NPN transistor most of the electrons from ___
4275	The emitter of the transistor is generally doped the ___
4276	Early effect in BJT refers to ___
4277	The leakage electric current ___
4278	Which of the following components are used for bias compensation in transistor circuit?
4279	Conventional biasing of a BJT has ___
4280	Leakage electric current in ___
4281	In CE configuration, the input V-I characteristics are drawn by ___
4282	Large electric current flow of ___
4283	The electric current ___
4284	The magnitude of electric current ___
4285	The ICBO is the electric current that flows when some DC voltage is ___
4286	For transistor action ___
4287	The emitter of the transistor is ___
4288	The most commonly used transistor circuit arrangement is ___
4289	For an NPN transistor in ___
4290	The silicon transistor are more widely ___
4291	The arrowhead on the transistor symbol points in ___
4292	The emitter electric current in a junction with ___
4293	In CB configuration, the output V-I characteristics of a transistor are ___
4294	In which mode of BJT operation are both junction forward biased ___
4295	In a bipolar junction transistor the base region is ___
4296	A transistor series voltage regulator is called emitter follower regulator because ___
4297	In a zener diode shunt voltage regulator, the diode regulates so long as ___
4298	An ideal voltage regulator has a voltage regulation of ___
4299	A 10 V DC regulator power supply has a regulation of ___
4300	The main job of a voltage regulator is to provide ___
4301	The percentage voltage regulation of voltage supply providing ___
4302	A voltage regulator is ___
4303	If the zener diode in a zener regulator is connected with the ___
4304	When the source voltage increases in a zener regulator, which of ___
4305	If the load resistance increases in ___
4306	The load voltage is approximately constant when ___
4307	In the second approximation, the total voltage across the zener diode is ___
4308	If the series resistance increases in an unloaded ___
4309	The voltage across the zener resistance is ___
4310	Which of following is not an essential element of a DC power supply?
4311	Which of following is the point of reference JFET?
4312	In a JFET, the primary control on drain electric current is ___
4313	When a reverse bias is applied to gate of JFET the depletion region width ___
4314	Pinch-off voltage in a JFET is ___
4315	In a JFET, if the gate voltage Vgs is ___
4316	For a JEFT, when VDS is increased beyond the pinch-off ___
4317	A JFET can operate in ___
4318	When the drain saturation electric current is less than ___
4319	A JFET has disadvantage of ___
4320	The common-source JFET amplifier has ___
4321	When the JFET is no longer able to control the current, this point is ___
4322	When VGS = 0 V, a JFET is ___
4323	How will electrons flow through a p-channel JFET?
4324	What is the input impedance of a common-gate configured JFET?
4325	In the constant-current region, how will the IDS change in an n-channel JFET?
4326	A U shaped, opposite-polarity material built near a JFET-channel center is ___
4327	Junction field effect transistors (JFET) contain how many diodes?
4328	Field effect transistor (FET) operates on ___
4329	When a reverse bias is applied to a diode, it will ___
4330	Avalanche breakdown in a diode occurs when ___
4331	Under normal reverse bias voltage applied to diode, the reverse electric current in ___
4332	When the diode is forward biased, it is ___
4333	The knee voltage (cut in voltage) of silicon diode ___
4334	The arrow direction in diode symbol indicates ___
4335	The diffusion capacitance of a forward biased P+N junction diode with ___
4336	The junction capacitance of linearly graded junction varies with ___
4337	The leakage electric current of a pn junction is caused by ___
4338	The transition capacitance of a reverse biased pn junction having ___
4339	The reverse saturation electric current of a pn junction varies with ___
4340	For a reverse biased pn junction, the electric current through ___
4341	A silicon pn junction in forward condition has ___
4342	The depletion region with in a pn junction is ___
4343	The depletion region of a pn junction is one, that is depleted of ___
4344	When the pn junction is forward biased the sequence of ___
4345	The per unit impedance of a synchorous machine is ___
4346	Common emitter current gain hFE of ___
4347	Secondary breakdown occures in ___
4348	MOSFET requires ___
4349	Peak inverse voltage (PIV) can be termed as ___
4350	The softness factor for soft recovery and fast recovery diodes are ___
4351	Reverse recovery current in a diode depends upon ___
4352	For a diode, reverse recovery time is defined as the time between ___
4353	Single phase, 230 V, 1 KW heater is connected across ___
4354	A schottky device is ___
4355	The trapped energy of an inductive load can be feed back to ___
4356	Depending upon the switching recovery time and ___
4357	A semiconductor diode is ___
4358	Semiconductor Diode is used as ___
4359	When pn junction is reverse biased ___
4360	For Germanium pn junction, the maximum value of ___
4361	Semiconductor material is ___
4362	Acceptor type impurities ___
4363	The room temperature resistivity of pure silicon is ___
4364	Which of the following does not obey the Ohm’s law?
4365	Electron mobility is defined as ___
4366	The resistance of pn junction when it is forward biased in ___
4367	Conduction electrons have more mobility than holes because ___
4368	The majority carrier in P-type extrinsic semiconductor material is ___
4369	The amount of time between the creation and disappearance of ___
4370	Which of the following is Pentavalent impurity?
4371	When Semiconductor materials is heated its ___
4372	N-type extrinsic semiconductor is obtained by ___
4373	The forbidden energy gap between valance band and conduction band in ___
4374	A semiconductor material is formed by ___
4375	A pn junction/Diode is ___
4376	The leakage current in a pn junction is in ___
4377	The most commonly used semiconductor is ___
4378	A Semiconductor has a ___
4379	Which is the pair of acceptor elements?
4380	Why holes are not created in a metal?
4381	Why is silicon preferred than germanium?
4382	Energy gap of semiconductor is ___
4383	Energy gap of conductor is ___
4384	Germanium has ___
4385	Silicon has ___
4386	What will happen if doping of an intrinsic semiconductor with pentavalent impurity atom?
4387	What is the majority carriers of P type material?
4388	Which of the following is trivalent impurity?
4389	How will be the extrinsic semiconductor act at room temperature?
4390	Which of the following is the pentavalent material?
4391	In a N-type semiconductor material holes are ___
4392	What will be the result if pentavalent impurity is added to pure germanium or silicon?
4393	Which impurity is added into to increase its conductivity?
4394	Which process is used for adding impurity into a pure semiconductor material?
4395	In a N-type semiconductor material electrons are ___
4396	Class B amplifier is biased ___
4397	What is the range of energy band gap of semiconductors?
4398	Assume that diode D1, D2 in figure are ___
4399	In a RC phase shift oscillator, the minimum number of R-C networks to be ___
4400	When were the first solid state devices manufactured?
4401	What is an energy gap?
4402	What is mean by the outermost orbit of an atom?
4403	Which is the factor on which total number of electrons in an atom depends?
4404	If temperature increases then conductivity of a semiconductor is ___
4405	What is the condition if no external potential energy is applied to the PN junction then diode?
4406	When P-type substance is connected with positive and N-type is ___
4407	When will be the P-N junction is formed?
4408	What will be the Potential barrier for Ge Diode?
4409	The number of orbiting electrons in germanium atom are ___
4410	Which is the conversion of current done by diode ?el
4411	What will be the Potential barrier for Si Diode?
4412	The number of valence electrons in silicon atom are ___
4413	How many terminal are present in diode device?
4414	Which types of device is the diode?
4415	Which is the third region where no charge carriers are present when ___
4416	Which are the ways to convert an alternating current into a direct current?
4417	What is the majority carriers in “N” type material?
4418	When P-type substance is connected with negative and n-type is ___
4419	Diode is also called as ___
4420	Which are the mobile charge carriers present in semiconductor diode?
4421	When a junction diode is Forward Biased the thickness of ___e
4422	What is the charge of mobile charge carriers of holes?
4423	When a junction diode is Reverse Biased then diode acts like ___
4424	A Schottky diode is ___
4425	A LED produces light when ___
4426	Which of the following is a semiconductors material?
4427	Which material behave like perfect insulators at low temperatures & conductor at higher temperature?
4428	Which of the following cannot actually move?
4429	The conduction loss verses device current characteristics of ___
4430	A 3-phase diode bridge rectifier is fed from ___
4431	A zener diode voltage regulator has load requirement of ___
4432	Darlington connection is achieved in 2 transistors by ___
4433	In n type semiconductor elements of which group of periodic table is ___
4434	An Op-Amp comparator circuit employs ___
4435	The majority carriers in the emitter of ___
4436	In a rectifier circuit, the diode converts ___
4437	Binary Logic is mainly based on arithmetic operation and ___
4438	Base of a number system is also known as ___
4439	Base-10 system is also called as ___
4440	Acceptors impurities are of ___
4441	Example of donor atom is ___
4442	Donors to a semiconductor material is ___
4443	Doping in a semiconductor increases ___
4444	A 555 IC is used to produce ___
4445	Depletion region of a p-n junction is ___
4446	A diode (p-n junction) when reverse biased act as ___
4447	Silicon and Germanium are ___
4448	Electrons in p-type material of a semi-conductor are ___
4449	A working diode must have ___
4450	A diode (P-N junction) has two ___
4451	The expression for frequency of oscillations of ___
4452	Which of the following oscillators are used for ___
4453	LC oscillators are used for produce a waveform with ___
4454	The Barkhausen criterion for ___
4455	The following are the necessary requirements of ___
4456	Feedback circuit in an oscillator can be ___
4457	Relaxation Voltage controlled oscillators are used to ___
4458	One of the following is the primary function of ___
4459	Voltage controlled oscillators are used commonly in ___
4460	Which of the following is not a sinusoidal oscillator?
4461	Which oscillators are easy to fabricate in a monolithic IC?
4462	A quartz crystal oscillator consists of ___
4463	Colpitts oscillator is also called as ___
4464	For audio frequency applications, the popular oscillator used ___
4465	The feedback factor of a Wien bridge oscillator using ___p
4466	In electronic communications, “AM” stands for ___
4467	Speed of data transmission in 4-G network of ___
4468	Purely mechanical instrument cannot be used for ___
4469	FM stands for ___
4470	In the design of a distributor which of the following is the major consideration?
4471	Which of the following test on a transformer provides information about ___
4472	For minimum weight of a transformer, the weight of ___
4473	A transformer, as compared to an amplifier, cannot increase ___
4474	As per the name plate of a transformer, the secondary normal ___
4475	Part of the transformer which is most subject to damage from ___
4476	Which of the following loss in a transformer is zero even at full load?
4477	The function of breather in a transformer is ___
4478	Iron loss of a transformer can be ___
4479	During short-circuit test iron losses are negligible because ___
4480	Helical coils can be used ___
4481	Buchholz’s relay gives warning and protection ___
4482	In a transformer the resistance between its primary and ___
4483	The chemical used in breather is ___
4484	The purpose of providing iron core in a step-up transformer is ___
4485	In a transformer routine efficiency depends ___
4486	In the transformer following winding has got more ___
4487	No-load on a transformer is carried out to ___
4488	Delta-delta power transformer is protected by current transformer having ___
4489	In a transformer, if the magnitude of magnetizing current is ___
4490	While rising and while falling, if a wave is symmetrical, it ___
4491	While performing a short-circuit test on a transformer, usually ___
4492	The magnetizing current, for sinusoidal voltage applied, will be ___
4493	In a transformer on no-load, the ___
4494	Which of the following is not a fitting on a transformer?
4495	Which of the following transformers is smallest?
4496	Buchhalz’s relay is used in ___
4497	Which of the following methods is used for cooling of transformers upto a capacity of 10 MVA?
4498	The colour of fresh dielectric oil for ___
4499	In a power transformer the efficiency should be ___
4500	Pick the correct statement from the following?
4501	In an ideal transformer, on no-load, the primary voltage is ___
4502	The voltage transformation ratio of a transformer is ___
4503	The noise produced by a transformer is ___
4504	The secondary of a current transformer is always short-circuited under ___
4505	A transformer can have regulation closer to ___
4506	Negative voltage regulation is indicative that the load is ___
4507	Which of the following is the main advantage of an auto-transformer over a two winding transformer?
4508	A transformer can have zero voltage regulation at ___
4509	Delta/star transformer works satisfactorily when ___
4510	The highest voltage for transmitting electrical power in ___
4511	Greater the secondary leakage flux ___
4512	The no load current in a transformer lags behind the applied voltage by ___
4513	While conducting short-circuit test on a transformer the following ___
4514	The path of a magnetic flux in a transformer should have ___
4515	Which of the following 3-phase connections of transformer create ___
4516	When 240 V D.C. supply is given to an ___
4517	For given effective applied voltage of ___
4518	The type of load for which the voltage regulation of a transformer is ___
4519	Leakage fluxes of a transformer may be ___
4520	Which of the following parts of a transformer is likely to suffer maximum damage due to ___
4521	The principle of working of a transformer is ___
4522	In high frequency transformer ferrite cores are used because ___
4523	A current transformer is ___
4524	As the supply frequency of a transformer increases its ___
4525	Oil impregnated paper condenser bushing is generally used on ___
4526	Helical coils are very well suited for ___
4527	A transformer is used to change the value of ___
4528	In a transformer, electric power is transferred from one coil to ___
4529	A no-load test is performed on a transformer to ___
4530	Which of the following parts of a transformer is visible from outside?
4531	Which of the following statements regarding an ideal single-phase transformer having a ___
4532	A shell-type transformer has ___
4533	For the parallel operation of single phase transformers it is ___
4534	If the supply frequency to the transformer is ___
4535	Power transformers are generally designed to ___
4536	Which of the following is not a routine test on transformers?
4537	Star/star transformers work satisfactorily when ___
4538	The function of conservator in ___
4539	The use of higher flux density in ___
4540	Spacers are provided between ___
4541	A common method of cooling a ___
4542	Which of the following is not a part of transformer installation?
4543	The no-load current drawn by transformer is usually what per cent of the full-load current?
4544	The function of an instrument transformer is ___
4545	The purpose of performing Sumpner’s test is mainly to ___
4546	The saving in copper achieved by converting two winding ___
4547	In a transformer the magnitude of ___
4548	When a 440/220 V transformer is connected to ___
4549	Most widely used insulating and cooling transformer liquid is ___
4550	For transformers upto a capacity of ___
4551	If a transformer core is made of copper and coils are made up of ___
4552	Which of the following materials is suitable for the manufacture of ___
4553	The short-circuit voltage of a transformer mainly depends on ___
4554	An open-circuit test on a transformer is conducted primarily to ___
4555	Which of the following insulating materials can withstand the highest temperature safely?
4556	In a given transformer for a given applied voltage, losses which remain ___
4557	Short circuit test on transformers is conducted to ___
4558	An ideal transformer will have maximum efficiency at ___
4559	Which winding of the transformer has less cross-sectional area?
4560	Noise level test in a transformer is ___
4561	Which of the following property is not necessarily desirable in the material for transformer core?
4562	The thickness of laminations used in a transformer is ___
4563	In a transformer the tappings are generally provided on ___
4564	No-load current of a transformer has ___
4565	In a given transformer for given applied voltage, losses which ___
4566	The purpose of providing an iron core in a transformer is ___
4567	The degree of mechanical vibrations produced by the laminations of ___
4568	Scott connections are used to ___
4569	While performing back-to-back test, the amount of ___
4570	Transformer for constant voltage applications is ___
4571	For parallel operation of two single phase transformers the ___
4572	A tap changer is used on ___
4573	What is the typical use of an autotransformer?
4574	In a three-phase delta transformer, one of ___
4575	A transformer designed for installation in a tropical country if ___
4576	In a transformer overcurrents affect ___
4577	Harmonic currents in a ___
4578	The distribution transformers are designed to keep the ___
4579	The efficiencies of transformers compared with that of ___
4580	The efficiency of a transformer, under heavy loads, is ___
4581	Losses which occur in rotating electric machines and do not ___
4582	Open circuit test on transformers is conducted to ___
4583	In an actual transformer the iron loss remains practically constant from ___
4584	Silicon steel used in laminations mainly ___
4585	The path of the magnetic flux in ___
4586	Distribution transformers are generally designed for ___
4587	Material used for construction of transformer core is ___
4588	If the percentage impedances of the two transformers working in ___
4589	Transformer breaths in ___
4590	Efficiency of a power transformer is of the order of
4591	No-load current in ___
4592	A transformer core is ___
4593	When a delta connected primary of a 3-phase transformer is ___
4594	All day efficiency is the ratio of output to ___
4595	The rating of a transformer is given in kVA instead of ___
4596	Transformer rating are usually expressed in ___
4597	When two single phase transformers are running in parallel and ___
4598	The advantage of putting tappings at the phase ends of ___
4599	The place of transformer installation is ___
4600	In Scott connections the main transformer has ___
4601	Simple porcelain bushings are used for ___
4602	In case of transformers using cold rolled grain oriented steel, the area of ___
4603	In a step-down transformer, there is a change of ___
4604	The maximum load that a power transformer can carry is ___
4605	Which of the following acts as a protection against high voltage surges due to lightning and switching?
4606	World-class manufacturing qualities?
4607	For given applied voltage, with the increase in frequency of ___
4608	During open circuit test of ___
4609	When a given transformer is run at its rated voltage but ___
4610	The value of flux involved in the e.m.f. equation of a transformer is ___
4611	The main reason for generation of harmonics in ___
4612	Hysteresis loss in a transformer varies as ___
4613	What will happen if the transformers working in parallel are not connected with regard to polarity?
4614	The maximum efficiency of a distribution transformer is ___
4615	Which winding in a transformer has more number of turns?
4616	The efficiency of a transformer will be ___
4617	In a transformer minimum voltage regulation occurs when the ___
4618	Current transformers for meters and ___
4619	Increase in secondary current of a transformer brings about increase in ___
4620	The output current corresponding to the maximum efficiency for ___
4621	Burden of a current transformer is usually expressed in ___
4622	The yoke sections of transformers using hot-rolled laminations is ___
4623	The humming sound in a transformer is ___
4624	Spiral core transformer which has core made up of steel strip has ___
4625	Which value of flux is involved in the e.m.f. equation of the transformer?
4626	Which of the following insulating materials is used in power transformers?
4627	In some transformers, the tappings are ___
4628	Minimum voltage regulation occurs when the power factor of ___
4629	The hum in a transformer is ___
4630	Which of the following protection is normally not provided on small distribution transformers?
4631	In a power or distribution transformer about 10 percent end turns are ___
4632	Natural air cooling is generally restricted for ___
4633	Which type of winding is used in 3- phase shell-type transformer?
4634	An ideal transformer is ___
4635	The full-load copper loss of a transformer is ___
4636	Which of the following properties is not necessarily desirable for the material for transformer core?
4637	Gas is usually not liberated due to dissociation of ___
4638	The noise resulting from vibrations of laminations set by ___
4639	If R2 is the resistance of secondary winding of ___
4640	Power transformers are designed to ___
4641	Primary winding of a ___
4642	The permissible flux density in case of cold rolled grain oriented steel is ___
4643	Which of the following does not change in a transformer?
4644	In a transformer maximum voltage regulation occurs when ___
4645	Which of the following statement concerning parallel operation of transformers is incorrect?
4646	Dust should never be allowed to accumulate on the windings and ___
4647	The transformation ratio of a transformer, for ___
4648	Which of the following can be reduced when the flux density in the transformer core is increased?
4649	Buchholz relay is used in ___
4650	In core-type transformers, the concentric windings are ___
4651	A sinusoidal e.m.f ___
4652	A distribution transformer has low flux density because ___
4653	The kVA rating ratio of transformers operating in parallel, as ___
4654	H.R.C. fuses on a transformer provide protection against ___
4655	Which of the following: statements about a transformer having ___
4656	A transformer is working at its full load and its efficiency is ___
4657	Auto-transformer makes effective saving on copper and ___
4658	If a transformer is continuously operated the maximum temperature rise will ___
4659	For a transformer, operating at constant load current, maximum efficiency will ___
4660	Reduction in core losses and increase in permeability are ___
4661	The size of a transformer core will ___
4662	The transformer laminations are insulated from ___
4663	The changes in volume of transformer cooling oil due to variation of ___
4664	Which of the following does not change in an ordinary transformer?
4665	A Buchholz relay can be ___
4666	For a 1.8°, 2-phase bipolar stepper motor, the stepping rate is ___
4667	Which of the following methods are suitable for the speed control of squirrel cage induction motors?
4668	For starting 3-phase squirrel cage induction motors reactors are ___
4669	A Cascade method of speed control involves the use of ___
4670	The power factor of a power transformer on no load will be ___
4671	A stepper motor is ___
4672	The starting current and torque of three phase induction motor on ___
4673	Induction motors, when directly switched on across their ___
4674	A wound rotor induction motor runs with a ___
4675	A single-phase transformer when supplied from 220 V, 50 Hz has ___
4676	AC servomotor has the drawback of ___
4677	___ starter is used for starting a 3-phase induction motor that needs frequent starting
4678	With the increase in supply frequency ___
4679	While operating on variable frequency supplies, the ac motor requires variable voltage as well in order to ___
4680	When voltage is transformed from primary to secondary then it is ___
4681	Which of the following types of motors are not the induction motors?
4682	Which of the following induction motors will operate on the lowest value of ___
4683	If one of the 3-phases of supply to an induction motor fails may be due to ___
4684	The speed regulation of a 3-phase induction motor at full load is ___
4685	The two windings of a ___
4686	Decrease in supply voltage to a 3 phase induction motor will ___
4687	Which of the following ac motor is widely used?
4688	For slip-ring induction motors, rotor resistance starting is ___
4689	The most advantageous number of anodes for a mercury arc rectifier is ___
4690	Ceiling fan is ___
4691	A slip-ring induction motor is recommended for ___
4692	Squirrel cage induction motors have the advantages of ____
4693	With DOL start of an induction motor the heating during acceleration of ___
4694	The voltage drop at anode in a mercury arc rectifier is ___
4695	The rotor of a hysteresis motor is ___
4696	In double cage induction motor the inner cage has ___
4697	In a 3-phase induction motor, the nether of slots on stator is ___
4698	If a 3-phase 350V, 50Hz, 1440 rpm induction motor is ___
4699	A single phase transformer has primary to secondary turns ratio of ___
4700	In a repulsion motor speed control is affected by varying the ___
4701	Increase in length of air gap in an induction motor causes ___
4702	If two induction motors A and B are identical except that the airgap of ___
4703	An induction motor is fed from a balanced three phase supply at ___
4704	In a motor-convertor, induction machine acts as ___
4705	In a repulsion motor, commutator provides a means of ___
4706	In an induction motor, when the number of stator slots is equal to ___
4707	The crawling in the induction motor is caused by ___
4708	Slip-ring motors have the disadvantages of ___
4709	A stepping motor has four concentric coils on its ___
4710	Under no load operating condition, the speed of a universal motor is ___
4711	An induction motor is said to be crawling when ___
4712	If the rotor power factor of a 3-phase induction motor is ___
4713	The deep-bar rotors or double cage rotors are employed to ___
4714	The rotor of a stepper motor has ___
4715	For improvement of commutation in ac series motors shunted commutating poles are ___
4716	The power scale of circle diagram of an induction motor is determined from ___
4717	Short-circuit test is performed on an induction motor to ___
4718	Jogging of an induction motor is ___
4719	Which one of the following statements is not true for anac servomotor?
4720	AC series motors in comparison to ___
4721	Open-circuit test is usually conducted on ___
4722	In a 3-phase induction motor when the load is increased from ___
4723	”Cogging” in induction motor occurs when ___
4724	Which of the following motors is relatively free from mechanical and ___
4725	The correct sequence of these in the ascending order of magnitude of ___
4726	The equivalent circuit per phase of a three phase transformer is similar to that of ___
4727	The synchronous watt is ___
4728	Which of the following types of ac motors are synchronous type?
4729	In a shaded-pole motor, shading coils are used to ___
4730	Rotor input of a three phase induction motor is equal to ___
4731	The presence of a dominant 7th harmonic in the winding distribution of a 3-phase, 6-pole, 50Hz induction motor may ___
4732	If the centrifugal switch fails to open when the motor attains ___
4733	Two capacitor type single phase induction motor is generally coupled with the ___
4734	With the increase in load on a squirrel cage induction motor ___
4735	The torque-slip characteristic of an induction motor is approximately a/an
4736	A Circle diagram of an induction motor can be ___
4737	The electric motor generally used in household food mixers is ___
4738	A capacitor start induction motor is switched on to supply with its ___
4739	The supply voltage to an induction motor is reduced by ___
4740	In a 3-phase induction motor, the torque developed is maximum when the ___
4741	A hysteresis motor ___
4742	For a single phase capacitor start induction motor which of the following statements is valid?
4743	When the applied voltage per phase is reduced to one-half, the starting torque of a ___
4744	For achieving high starting torque and high operation efficiency an ___
4745	Reluctance motor ___
4746	Why is a centrifugal switch used in a single-phase induction motor?
4747	Insertion of resistance in the rotor circuit of an induction motor to ___
4748	In a repulsion induction motor, the rotor has ___
4749	Which of the following tests are performed on single phase ac motors?
4750	A 3-phase star-connected induction motor is connected to ___
4751	A centre zero ammeter connected in the rotor circuit of a ___
4752	In a compensated repulsion motor, an additional stator winding is ___
4753	A 230 V, 50 Hz, 4 pole, single-phase induction motor is rotating in the ___
4754	What is the operating slip of a 400 V, 50 Hz, 6-pole, 3-phase induction motor, while ___
4755	In case of a high speed universal motor ___
4756	A 3-phase induction motor is fed from a balanced 3-phase supply on the ___
4757	The 3-phase induction motor with rotor circuit open will ___
4758	Synchronous speed is defined as the speed at ___
4759	Which of the following statements associated with universal motor is incorrect?
4760	Synchronous-induction motors ___
4761	The rotor slots are slightly skewed in squirrel-cage induction motor to ___
4762	Stator flux induces emf in the rotor bars ___
4763	Which of the following statements associated with an ae series motor is/are incorrect?
4764	The insulating materials employed for motor windings are classified according to ___
4765	Uneven gap in an induction motor is likely to cause ___
4766	For induction motors normally ___
4767	A dc shunt motor does not operate on ac due to ___
4768	During plugging of an induction motor ___
4769	Induction motors normally use diecast aluminium rotor because aluminium is ___
4770	In a 3-phase slip-ring induction motor, brushes are connected to ___
4771	Which of the following statements associated with shaded pole induction motor is incorrect?
4772	A voltage source inverter is used to control the speed of a ___
4773	The polyphase induction motors are, by a very considerable margin, the most ___
4774	The induction motor shaft should be ___
4775	In comparison to resistance start induction motor the ___
4776	For the applications requiring speed ratio other than ___
4777	An infinite bus-bar has ___
4778	A loss-less cylindrical rotor synchronous generator is floating on the system bus-bar after ___
4779	If the capacitor of a capacitor start induction motor fails to open when it picks up ___
4780	Synchronous speed of an induction motor can be increased by ___
4781	If the voltage of one of the two machines operating in ___
4782	A salient-pole synchronous generator connected to an infinite bus will deliver ___
4783	A capacitor selected for capacitor-start induction motor should be ___
4784	A starting torque of 80 Nm is developed in an induction motor by ___
4785	Which of the following conditions are to be satisfied for proper synchronization of alternators?
4786	Two generators rated 200 MW and 400 MW having governor droop characteristics ___
4787	The torque-speed characteristic of two phase induction motor is ___
4788	A squirrel cage induction motor having a rated slip of 2% on ___
4789	The negative phase sequence in a 3-phase synchronous motor exists when ___
4790	Two alternators are operating in parallel. For taking one of the alternators out from ___
4791	The two windings provided on the stator of a single phase induction motor, one ___
4792	The starting current of a 3-phase induction motor is about ___
4793	When a salient pole 3-phase synchronous motor is started by ___
4794	Synchronous motors are not used ___
4795	A rotating magnetic field is produced by cunent in two windings displaced by ___
4796	A squirrel cage induction motor having a rated slip of 4% of fullload has a ___
4797	In a synchronous motor hunting can be reduced to ___
4798	The efficiency of a properly designed synchronous machine is of ___
4799	The rotor slots in an induction motor are, usually not kept parallel to ___
4800	Unbalanced 3-phase voltage supply to an induction motor causes excessive heating of ___
4801	Synchronous capacitor is ___
4802	If the field winding of a synchronous motor is short circuited and the motor stator is ___
4803	The motor that requires the most complicated arrangement for ___
4804	The advantage of the double squirrel-cage induction motor over ___
4805	Armature reaction in a synchronous motor at rated voltage and ___
4806	The synchronous motor can be started by ___
4807	Linear induction motor is used in ___
4808	In an induction motor, skewing of rotor bars reduces ___
4809	Variation in dc excitation of a synchronous motor causes ___
4810	The phenomenon of oscillation of the rotor of a synchronous motor about its ___
4811	A 3-phase induction motor runs at super synchronous speed ___
4812	The 3-phase induction motor provided with open slots has ___
4813	A smooth cylindrical synchronous motor will always stop when ___
4814	In Scott-connections, the teaser transformer operates on 0.866 of ___
4815	In a 3-phase induction motor, the regenerative braking occur when ___
4816	The stator of a 6-pole, 3-phase induction motor is fed from a ___
4817	Synchronizing power of a synchronous motor varies ___
4818	Which motor can conveniently operate at lagging as well as leading power factor?
4819	Slip-changing method of speed control can be used in case of ___
4820	Blocked rotor test of an induction motor corresponds, in case of ___
4821	The coupling magnetic field reaction with ___
4822	A salient pole synchronous motor continues running even if ___
4823	In rotor resistance control method, ___ with the increase in speed
4824	If the load on an induction motor is increased from n load to full load, its ___
4825	A 3-phase synchronous motor connected to an infinite bus is operating at ___
4826	In ac motor control V/f is kept constant to ___
4827	The power input to a 415 V, 50 Hz, 6 pole 3-phase induction motor running at 975 rpm is ___
4828	When a balanced 3-phase distributed type armature winding is ___
4829	The interaction torque in a synchronous motor depends upon ___
4830	An induction motor can run at synchronous speed if it is ___
4831	A three-phase squirrel cage induction motor has a starting torque of 150% and a ___
4832	If the excitation of a 3-phase alternator operating on infinite bus bars is ___
4833	The phase of emf induced in the armature of a ___
4834	The starting torque of a 3-phase slip-ring induction motor can be ___
4835	If the rotor circuit resistance is increased in an induction motor, the ___
4836	When a 3-phase alternator is suddenly short-circuited at its ___
4837	A 10 pole, 25 Hz alternator is directly coupled to and is ___
4838	A 3-phase induction motor is started by direct-online (DOL) switching at the ___
4839	In a 3-phase induction motor, the ___
4840	The four methods of calculation of voltage regulation of a 3-phase alternator are ___
4841	A synchronous machine is revolving armature and stationary field type ___
4842	The following starting method for an induction motor is inferior from the point of ___
4843	The torque developed in an induction motor is nearly proportional to ___
4844	The zero power factor characteristic for the Potier diagram can be obtained by ___
4845	The mmf produced by single phase winding is ___
4846	A 3-phase. 480 V, 60 Hz induction motor is to be operated at ___
4847	The direction of rotor current produced in an induction motor can be ___
4848	The direct axis reactance ___
4849	Single phase preventer ___
4850	A 6-pole, 3-phase alternator running aI 1,000 rpm supplies to ___
4851	In an alternator, short.circuít current is limited by the ___
4852	Which is the value of load angle when the power output of a salient pole synchronous generator is maximum?
4853	Slip-ring induction motors have the advantages of ___
4854	The mmf produced by the current of a ___
4855	The armature reaction effect in a synchronous machine depends on ___
4856	Which one of the following methods would give higher than actual value of ___
4857	Motor A has shallow and wider ___
4858	A three-phase 6 pole, 50 Hz, induction motor is running at ___
4859	The rating of a synchronous machine is usually governed by its ___
4860	The short-circuit characteristic of an alternator is ___
4861	Which of the following statements regarding skewing of rotor bars in a squirrel cage induction motor are correct?
4862	Two of the supply terminals to a 3-phase induction motor get ___
4863	The angle between induced emf and terminal voltage on no-load for a ___
4864	Unbalanced 3-phase stator currents cause ___
4865	The stator of a small (up to 5 hp) induction motor is ___
4866	Skewing of rotor slots in a 3-phase induction motor (cage rotor) may ___
4867	In a synchronous generator, a divided winding rotor is preferable to a ___
4868	Drop in terminal voltage of an alternator due to armature reaction is ___
4869	Cogging of induction motors occurs at ___
4870	In an induction motor, if the air gap is ___
4871	The short-pitch winding is preferred over full-pitch winding for ___
4872	In a synchronous generator ___
4873	An induction motor when started on load does not ___
4874	The squirrel cage rotor of a 6-pole induction motor cm be used for ___
4875	Two mechanically coupled alternators deliver power at ___
4876	The rating of the prime mover driving an alternator is determined entirely by ___
4877	In the circle diagram of an induction motor the diameter of ___
4878	The stator frame in an induction motor is used to ___
4879	Larger diameter salient pole rotors have shorter axial length because ___
4880	EMF induced per phase in an alternator depends on ___
4881	What is the shunt resistance component in equivalent circuit obtained by ___
4882	A 3-phase, 11 kV, 5 MVA alternator has synchronous reactance of ___
4883	The open slots are more commonly used in the stator of a ___
4884	Distributed winding and short chording employed in ___
4885	The power factor of an induction motor at full load is likely to be ___
4886	The electrical stiffness of a synchronous generator connected to a very large grid can be ___
4887	In modern alternators, the rotating part is ___
4888	The armature winding of a 2-pole, 3-phase alternator for each phase is ___
4889	.A 400 V. 50 Hz, 30 hp three-phase induction motor is drawing 50 A current at ___
4890	What are the conditions to be satisfied for alternator to be ___
4891	If the drying out operation of a transformer is unduly shortened and ___
4892	Concentrated winding has ___
4893	The losses that occur in an induction motor are ___
4894	A synchronous motor may fail to pull into synchronism owing to ___
4895	The output voltage can be varied by a variac transformer over a ___
4896	In cylindrical rotor ___ portion of rotor is wound
4897	The torque-slip characteristic of a polyphase induction motor becomes almost linear at small values of ___
4898	While starting a 3-phase synchronous motor by ___
4899	The salient pole rotors have ___
4900	An induction motor has a rotor resistance of ___
4901	In a synchronous machine, damper windings are used to ___
4902	A two-winding 220 V/110 V, 1.5 kVA transformer is reconnected as a ___
4903	The stater core of a synchronous machine is built up of ___
4904	Synchronous condensers, when operated at power factor ranging from ___
4905	Auto transformer can do the ___
4906	In a synchronous machine, if the field flux axis is ahead of the ___
4907	In an induction motor the phase reactance is ___
4908	A synchronous motor on load draws a current at a ___
4909	Two transformers operating in parallel will share the load depending upon their ___
4910	The excessive temperature rise will cause maximum damage to ___
4911	The frequency of rotor currents at standstill is equal to ___
4912	If the field of a synchronous motor is underexcited, the power factor will be ___
4913	The harmonic currents in a power transformer does not cause increase in ___
4914	The rated secondary voltage of 220 V for a transformer means the ___
4915	A 6-pole, 50 Hz wound rotor induction motor when supplied at the ___
4916	For a 3-phase, 4-pole, 50 Hz synchronous motor the frequency, pole number and ___
4917	When one transformer is removed from a Δ-Δ bank of 30 kVA transformer, the ___
4918	For on-load tap changing the best method is to ___
4919	A balanced 3-phase induction motor runs at ___
4920	A 3-phase synchronous motor will operate on ___
4921	The resistance and reactance of a ___
4922	The saving in copper achieved by converting ordinary two ___
4923	The rotor of an induction motor rotates in the dïrection of the rotation of ___
4924	The torque angle δ is defined as the space angle between ___
4925	The winding used in a 3-phase shell type transformer is ___
4926	Neglecting tosses, if the power transformed inductively is equal to power transformed conductively in ___
4927	The principle of operation of a 3-phase induction motor is almost similar to that of ___
4928	As the load is increased on a synchronous motor, its ___
4929	SpiraI core transformer, in which core is made up of steel strip has the ___
4930	Two 10 kV/440 V 1-phase transformers of ___
4931	In an induction motor, the air gap flux density is usually kept low so as ___
4932	In a 3-phase synchronous motor ___
4933	Consider the following statements relating to the constructional features of a ___
4934	If all other requirements for parallel operation of transformers are fulfilled, which ___
4935	The rotor of a 3-phase wound rotor induction motor is provided with ___
4936	Synchronous motors generally have ___
4937	Major insulation in a transformer is the insulation between the ___
4938	For the parallel operation of transformers, which of the following conditions must be satisfied?
4939	The stator core of a 3-phase induction motor is taminated in ___
4940	An alternator with higher value of SCR has ___
4941	The primary and secondary windings are interlaced for ___
4942	In a transformer fed from a fundamental frequency voltage source, the source of ___
4943	A large ac generator supplying power to an infinite bus, has a ___
4944	In the measurement of ___
4945	In order to reduce the hysteresis loss ___
4946	Which of the following 3-phase connections of a transformer causes ___
4947	A 3-phase synchronous generator with constant power input is ___
4948	3.A single-phase, 2,000 V alternator has armature resistance and reactance of ___
4949	The size of the transformer core depends upon ___
4950	Two similar synchronous generators are working in parallel to supply a ___
4951	A leading pf load on an alternator implies that its voltage regulation shall be ___
4952	The ail day efficiency of a distribution transformer will be high with low
4953	Natural air cooling is used for transformers of rating up to ___
4954	While synchronising a 3-phase alternator to the busbar the ___
4955	A 100 kVA. 41.5 V (line), star-connected synchronous machine generates rated ___
4956	Transformer will operate at maximum efficiency when ___
4957	With stepping in construction of transformer core ___
4958	Which of the following is not the disadvantage of a synchronous motor?
4959	In an alternator, the armature mmf will be in phase with the ___
4960	Short-circuit test is performed on a transformer with a ___
4961	Which of the following statements associated with Buchholz relay is not TRUE?
4962	Electrical machines (ac) should have proper ___
4963	The magnitude of leakage flux depends on ___
4964	Which of the above tests are to be conducted for the determination of voltage regulation of a transformer?
4965	The core and windings of a transformer are put in a steel tank in ___
4966	When a synchronous motor is started, the field winding is ___
4967	The seventh space harmonics in the mmf produced by ___
4968	The full-load copper loss and iron loss of a transformer are ___
4969	When a transformer winding suffers a short circuit, the adjoining turns of ___
4970	When a synchronous motor is running at synchronous speed, the ___
4971	In a cylindrical rotor synchronous machine, the phasor addition of ___
4972	If the percentage resistance of a power transformer for secondary side is ___
4973	The degree of mechanical vibrations caused by core laminations in a ___
4974	A 3-phase induction motor draws 1,000 kVA at a pf of ___
4975	Harmonics in the emf generates in an alternator can be ___
4976	The phasor diagram of a transformer on load can be drawn only ___
4977	If the iron core of a transformer is replaced by an air core, then the ___
4978	A synchronous motor with negligible armature resistance runs at a load angle of ___
4979	Consider the following statements regarding the design of the ___
4980	The core flux of a practical transformer with a ___
4981	The use of higher flux density in the transformer design ___
4982	A three-phase, salient pole synchronous motor is connected to an ___
4983	The most appropriate operating speeds in rpm of generators used in ___
4984	On no-load phasor diagram of transformer the core loss component of the ___
4985	A single phase transformer has a maximum efficiency of 90% at ___
4986	In a 3-phase synchronous motor, the magnitude of back emf set up in the ___
4987	The number of poles on turbo-alternator is usually ___
4988	The applied voltage of a certain transformer is increased by ___
4989	The full-load copper loss and iron loss of a ___
4990	The slip rings employed in a 3-phase synchronous machine are ___
4991	The iron core in a transformer provides a ___
4992	During short-circuit test, the core losses are ___
4993	A synchronous motor is supplying a load at ___
4994	Which one of the following is the primary reason for placing field on rotor in an alternator?
4995	Overlap in a mercury arc rectifier ___
4996	The open-circuit test on a transformer gives ___
4997	The total steady state torque to drive the synchronous motor and the load at ___
4998	In a transformer when two or more dielectrics, having different permittivities are ___
4999	Which one of the following voltage control methods does reduce the ___
5000	In a power transformer, if in place of sinusoidal wave, a peaked wave voltage is ___
5001	A synchronous motor is operating with ___
5002	In a single phase induction regulator, the boost will be maximum when the ___
5003	In a 12-phase double chord connection, voltage of each chord is ___
5004	Positive voltage regulation is an indication of ___
5005	The flux per pole in a synchronous motor with the field circuit ON and ___
5006	High leakage reactance transformers are of ___
5007	In a rotary convertor armature currents are ___
5008	A transformer is supplying pure resistive ___
5009	A two-winding transformer is converted into an ___
5010	Switched reluctance motor means ___
5011	At 50Hz operation, a single phase transformer has hysteresisloss of 200W and ___
5012	A round rotor synchronous generator has a leakage reactance of ___
5013	When two transformers of different kVA ratings are connected in parallel, they will ___
5014	A linear servomotor must have ___
5015	If the applied voltage to a transformer primary is increased by keeping the ___
5016	Slip test is performed to determine ___
5017	The magnetizing current in a transformer is rich in ___
5018	Consider the following statements regarding ___
5019	The flux created by the current flowing through the primary winding induces emf in ___
5020	Armature reaction mmf and leakage reactance of a synchronous machine are ___
5021	Scott-connections are used for ___
5022	The stator and rotor pole number may be different in a ___
5023	___ depends upon loading in a mercury arc rectifier
5024	The leakage reactance of a three-phase alternator is determined by ___
5025	A 3-phase transformer has rating of 20 MVA, 221) kV (star) -33 kV (delta) with ___
5026	Starting or auxiliary winding of a single phase motor used in a refrigerator is ___
5027	___ method provides automatic and smooth voltage control over a wide range
5028	As the leading power factor of the load of an alternator decreases, the magnitude of ___
5029	Transformers are rated in leVA instead of kW because ___
5030	If a single phase motor fails to start but gives humming noise, this may be due to ___
5031	The magnitude of each of the voltage phasors represented by the sides of a ___
5032	A synchronous generator is feeding a zero power factor (lagging) load at ___
5033	Distribution transformers are designed to have maximum efficiency nearly at ___
5034	The main reason for using a hysteresis motor for high quality tape recorders and ___
5035	The motor-convertor does not suffer from the drawback of ___
5036	A 3-phase 50 MVA, 10 kV generator has reactance of 0.2 ohm per ___
5037	Consider the following statements regarding transformers ___
5038	Hysteresis motor is a ___
5039	Stepper motors are widely used because of ___
5040	A 500 MW 3-phase Y-connected synchrnous generator has a rated voltage of ___
5041	In a transformer, an insulating material may fail due to ___
5042	Single phase synchronous motors ___
5043	For a given stepper motor, the following torque has the highest numerical value ___
5044	The stator winding of an alternator is normally connected in star to ___
5045	The concentric windings are used in core type transformers with ___
5046	Which of the following statements regarding repulsion start induction motor is/are correct?
5047	If a conventional motor is used for servo applications, the system becomse ___
5048	Theifnerated due to nth harmonic component of flux in an alternator will be ___
5049	When are eddy-current losses in a transformer reduced?
5050	In a repulsion motor by shifting the ___
5051	AC servomotor is basically a ___
5052	Distributed winding is preferred over concentrated winding as it ___
5053	What is the core loss in a high frequency ferrite core transformer used in SMPS power supply?
5054	In repulsion motor ___
5055	Which single phase induction motor has the lowest speed?
5056	Armature winding is one in which ___
5057	The transformer efficiency will be maximum at a power factor of ___
5058	The speed of a universal motor is usually reduced by ___
5059	Maximum transient currents flow through a transformer winding when it is ___
5060	Which of the following statements about a phase advancer is incorrect?
5061	Which of the following statements regarding permanent capacitor motor is false?
5062	In Scott-connections, the teaser transformer operates on 0.866 of its ___
5063	A 230 V dc series motor is connected to a ___
5064	Possible three-to-three phase transformer connection for parallel operation is ___
5065	In a grid control of mercury arc rectifier when grid is made positive relative to ___
5066	A single phase induction motor is running at ___
5067	The direction of rotation of a shaded pole ___
5068	Which of the following statements regarding ratios of line voltages and ___
5069	Which of the following statements about Schrage motor is incorrect?
5070	In a capacitor-start capacitor-run induction motor ___
5071	The percentage resistance and percentage reactance of a ___
5072	___ motor is usually employed in motor-generator sets
5073	A 3-phase induction machine draws active power ‘P’ and reactive power Q from ___
5074	The value of capacitor for a capacitor-start induction motor is ___
5075	Two 3-limb, 3-phase delta-star connected transformers are supplied from the ___
5076	The motor which can produce uniform torque from standstill to ___
5077	In a self excited induction generator, to keep the frequency of generated voltage constant with ___
5078	The direction of rotation of a split-phase induction motor can be reversed by ___
5079	The distribution transformers are designed with ___
5080	Ratio of the rotor reactance X to the rotor resistance ___
5081	If an induction motor hums during starting up. the possible cause could be ___
5082	In a single phase induction motor ___
5083	For system voltages exceeding 66 kV, condenser bushings are ___
5084	The drag cup rotor is employed in a two phase induction motor to give ___
5085	In a slip power recovery scheme for a 3-phase induction motor, if slip power is ___
5086	Field created by rotor currents is at right angle to the field created by ___
5087	In a power transformer, the breather is provided in order to ___
5088	Which of the following is not the induction motor?
5089	The method that gives continuous speed control of a slip-ring induction motor is ___
5090	When a single phase induction motor is excited with single phase ac voltage, the ___
5091	The colour of fresh dielectric oil used in transformers is ___
5092	When a ceiling fan using a capacitor run motor is switched on, it ___
5093	Line voltage control is used only with small squirrel cage motors driving fans and ___
5094	Position synchros normally have ___ phase stator winding
5095	In a power transformer ___
5096	A ceiling fan uses ___
5097	The speed of a slip-ring three phase induction motor can he controlled from the ___
5098	Increase in the length of air gap in an induction motor causes ___
5099	Crawling of induction motor occurs due to ___
5100	Circle diagram is employed to determine the performance of ___
5101	When the induction motor is stand still the ___
5102	The power factor of the 3 phase induction motor will be ___
5103	In an induction motor, the variable mechanical load is represented electrically by ___
5104	The no-load current in an induction motor is ___
5105	In an Induction motor slip depends on ___
5106	The induced voltage in a single loop reverses ___
5107	If a current carrying conductor is placed in the uniform magnetic field with its plane perpendicular to the direction of ___
5108	Which type of emf is induced in the dc generator ___
5109	Sparkless commutation can be achieved by employing ___
5110	Eddy currents are induced in the pole shoes of ___
5111	The ventilating ducts in dc machines are generally ___
5112	The yoke in the dc machine is laminated ___
5113	Reluctance torque in rotating machines is present when ___
5114	In a dc generator the residual magnetism is of the order of ___
5115	The efficiency of a dc motor when developing maximum power will ___
5116	Which of the following induction motor will be operating at lowest value of ___
5117	Under which of the following starting methods an induction motor draws ___
5118	The size of high speed motor will be ___
5119	The starting torque of induction motor varies as ___
5120	Squirrel cage induction motors are not favored when ___
5121	Unbalanced three phase voltage supply to an ___
5122	In double cage induction motor the resistance of the upper cage is ___
5123	The yoke of the dc machine is made of ___
5124	The induced voltage in a single loop ___
5125	In DC machine ___
5126	If a current carrying conductor is placed in the uniform magnetic field with its plane perpendicular to the ___
5127	Which type of emf is induced in the ___
5128	In DC machine, commuataor converts ___
5129	Comutator in DC machine acts as ___
5130	Sparkless commutation can be achieved by ___
5131	In DC Generator the residual magnetism will be of ___
5132	In DC Generator the critical resistance refers to ___
5133	Eddy currents are induced in the pole shoes of dc ___
5134	The armature of the dc machines are laminated to ___
5135	The ventilating ducts in dc machines are ___
5136	The armature of the dc machine is made of ___
5137	Poles of the dc machine is ___
5138	The yoke in the dc machine is ___
5139	The DC generator is considered as ___
5140	Reluctance torque in rotating machines is ___
5141	A conductor is rotating within a magnetic field ___
5142	Fleming’s Left hand rule is applicable to ___
5143	The direction of rotation of dc shunt motor can be reversed by ___
5144	In a dc compound motor field regulator is ___
5145	The output indicated on the name plate of any motor is ___
5146	With the increase in the speed of a ___
5147	In an arc welding in order to obtain steady arc one should ___
5148	Flashing of field of dc generator means ___
5149	In a rotating electrical machine the torque produced will be ___
5150	For parallel operation, the dc shunt generator normally preferred are ___
5151	The terminal voltage of the dc shunt generator on ___
5152	In a dc generator the residual magnetism is of ___
5153	If we increase the field of the dc generator, its ___
5154	In a separately excited dc generator the field is connected to ___
5155	The speed of dc shunt motor can be increased above its ___
5156	When the torque of dc series motor is tripled, the ___
5157	If the supply voltage to a dc shunt motor is increased by 15%, which of the ___
5158	The dc motor that draws almost same power at different loads is:
5159	The dc motor, that has poorest speed regulation is ___
5160	A DC shunt motor may have rising speed-torque characteristics due to ___
5161	The starting torque of dc shunt motor is ___
5162	In a dc motor, the shaft torque is less than ___
5163	In an electrical motor, the electromagnetic torque developed is ___
5164	A DC shunt motor is running at light load, what happens if the field winding gets opened?
5165	The direction of rotation of a dc compound motor can be reversed by ___
5166	A dc motor having full load speed of 75 rpm and speed regulation of ___
5167	The efficiency of a dc motor when developing maximum power will be ___
5168	The horse power obtained from the motor shaft is ___
5169	In conversion of 3-phase to 2-phase supply with T connection, the transformation ratio of the teaser will be ___
5170	The harmonic currents in a power transformer does not ___
5171	An auto transformer is preferred over an ordinary two ___
5172	Zero sequence currents can flow from a line into a transformer bank if ___
5173	In a transformer, with closed magnetic coupling between primary and ___
5174	Booster transformer should ___
5175	Distortion of the whole core and subsequent damage to the coil insulation due to ___
5176	The rating of the Transformer ___
5177	About the Electrical Machines MCQ category