5000+ Electrical Engineering Questions

Explore 5000+ Electrical Engineering questions covering electrical machines, power systems, switchgear, protection systems, industrial electrical equipment, troubleshooting, maintenance, and practical engineering concepts.

This collection includes technical questions and discussions related to:

• Electrical Machines
• Power Systems
• Switchgear & Protection
• Transmission & Distribution
• Power Electronics
• Industrial Electrical Systems
• Electrical Circuits
• Motors and Drives
• Transformers
• Circuit Breakers
• Earthing & Grounding
• Electrical Safety
• Industrial Maintenance
• Electrical Troubleshooting

The questions are based on real industrial applications, engineering fundamentals, practical field knowledge, and troubleshooting scenarios commonly used in power plants, manufacturing industries, substations, oil & gas industries, process plants, and industrial facilities.

These Electrical Engineering questions help improve technical knowledge, practical understanding, troubleshooting skills, and engineering problem-solving abilities for students, technicians, maintenance engineers, and industrial professionals.

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Electrical Engineering Questions

S.No.	Electrical Question
1	The number of starts for an electric motor in a given period of time should be limited because overheating of the ___ can occur due to the ___ counter electromotive force produced at low rotor speeds
2	What is the primary reason for limiting the number of starts for an electric motor in a given period of time ___
3	The frequency of start/stop cycles for an electrical motor is limited to prevent ___
4	Motor winding temperature will be reduced by ___
5	The frequency of starts for large AC motors should be limited to prevent excessive ___
6	Which one of the following is the primary reason for limiting the number of motor starts in a given time period ___
7	The discharge valve for pump A is fully open and the discharge valve for pump B is fully closed ___
8	To minimize the duration of high starting current, an AC induction motor should be started ___ to ___ the stator counter electromotive force
9	The discharge valve for pump A is fully shut and the discharge valve for pump B is fully open ___
10	Which one of the following is a characteristic of a typical AC induction motor that causes starting current to be greater than running current ___
11	Two identical AC induction motors are connected to identical radial-flow centrifugal pumps in identical but separate cooling water systems ___
12	Frequent starts of large motors will result in overheating of the motor windings due to high current flow caused by ___
13	Which one of the following describes when the highest stator current will be experienced by an AC induction motor ___
14	Two identical AC induction motors are connected to identical radial-flow centrifugal pumps being used to provide cooling water flow in separate systems in a nuclear power plant ___
15	The starting current in a typical AC induction motor is usually much higher than the full-load running current because ___
16	Which one of the following AC induction motor events is characterized by maximum rotor slip and a motor current five to six times full-load current ___
17	The average starting current for a typical AC induction motor is approximately ___
18	Which one of the following describes the motor current indications that would be observed during the start of a large motor-driven radial-flow centrifugal pump with a closed discharge valve ___
19	Refer to the partial drawing of two identical centrifugal pumps in a cooling water system ___
20	Initially, an AC induction motor is operating with the following steady-state conditions ___
21	The fan is operating at 90 percent of rated flow rate with its discharge damper partially closed ___
22	The rate of heat production in the stator windings of an AC induction motor is ___ proportional to the ___ of the stator current
23	An air-cooled AC induction motor is initially operating at steady-state conditions, producing a work output of 50 hp ___
24	The pump is being driven by a single-speed AC induction motor. Pump flow rate is being controlled by a throttled discharge flow control valve ___
25	Consider two identical single-speed AC induction motors, one of which is connected to a radial-flow centrifugal pump and the other to a rotary-type positive displacement pump (PDP) ___
26	An axial flow ventilation fan is being driven by an AC motor ___
27	An AC induction motor is connected to a radial-flow centrifugal pump in a cooling water system ___
28	The pump is being driven by a single-speed AC induction motor ___
29	Consider two identical single-speed AC induction motors, one of which is connected to a radial-flow centrifugal pump and the other to a reciprocating-type positive displacement pump (PDP) ___
30	Refer to the pump performance curves for a centrifugal cooling water pump ___
31	Which one of the following describes the relationship between the current drawn by an AC induction motor and the amount of heat generated in the motor windings ___
32	A motor-driven centrifugal pump is operating with a flow rate of 3,000 gpm and a motor current of 150 amps ___
33	A multi-speed centrifugal pump is operating with a flow rate of 1,800 gpm at a speed of 3,600 rpm ___
34	What will be the approximate value of pump head if pump speed is increased to 1,200 rpm ___
35	What will be the approximate values of pump head and motor current if pump speed is increased to 1,600 rpm ___
36	What will be the new value of pump head if the pump speed is increased such that the current requirements are now 640 amps ___
37	A multi-speed motor-driven centrifugal pump is operating with the following parameters ___
38	A motor-driven centrifugal pump is operating at 600 rpm with the following parameters ___
39	A motor-driven centrifugal pump is operating with the following parameters ___
40	A motor-driven centrifugal pump is operating with a flow rate of 3,000 gpm and a current requirement of 200 amps ___
41	Given the following conditions for a variable-speed motor-driven centrifugal pump ___
42	A shutdown nuclear power plant is operating normally when an electrical fault causes a sustained 20 percent voltage reduction on all phases of the onsite three-phase AC electrical distribution system ___
43	A 4,000 KW rated diesel generator (DG) is supplying 2,000 KW to a 4.16 KV emergency bus ___
44	A main generator is connected to an infinite power grid with the following generator output parameters ___
45	A 4,000 KW diesel generator (DG) is supplying 2,000 KW to a 4.16 KV emergency bus ___
46	A nuclear power plant startup is in progress ___
47	Refer to the partial drawing of two identical radial-flow centrifugal pumps in a cooling water system ___
48	A main generator that is connected to an infinite power grid has the following generator indications ___
49	An AC generator is supplying an isolated electrical system with a power factor of 1.0 ___
50	A large AC motor has a maximum ambient temperature rating of 40°C ___
51	Which one of the following will provide the initial motor protection against electrical damage caused by gradual bearing failure ___
52	Which one of the following will result from prolonged operation of an AC induction motor with excessively high stator temperatures ___
53	Continuous operation of a motor at rated load with a loss of required cooling to the motor windings will eventually result in ___
54	When a motor-driven centrifugal pump was started, the motor ammeter reading immediately increased to, and stabilized at, many times the normal operating value ___
55	A motor-driven centrifugal pump exhibits indications of pump failure while being started in an idle cooling water system ___
56	A motor-driven cooling water pump is operating normally ___
57	A cooling water pump is being driven by an AC induction motor ___
58	If a locked rotor occurs on an operating motor-driven pump, motor amps will ___
59	Refer to the drawing of a water storage tank with a differential pressure (D/P) level detection system. Assume that the initial temperature of the reference leg and the water in the tank ___
60	Which one of the following is a characteristic of a venturi flow device ___
61	The direction of rotation of a ___ AC induction motor cannot be changed with the motor running in either direction (referred to as “reverse on the fly”) ___
62	Due to the difference in strength of the two electromagnetic fields (the ___ magnetic path for the power contactor that is energized has a much stronger field);
63	Interlock in a control circuit, which can be performed by either control contacts (___ interlock), or mechanical linkage (___ interlock) can also be used to ensure that one or more operations occur simultaneously
64	When the control circuit for a single motor is modified to include electrical reversing, a(n) ___ circuit (gate) must be created with the addition of the reversing control circuit
65	In a single-phase AC induction motor, the phase connections or polarities of the ___ or ___ windings must be interchanged in reference to supply lines 1 and 2 to command the change in direction of rotation
66	The direction of rotation of a single-phase AC induction motor cannot be changed with the motor running in either direction (referred to as “reverse on the ___”)
67	If the motor must be allowed to coast to a stop before the direction of rotation is electrically reversed; the circuit must be modified with an ___ switch (___ switch)
68	At rest, one set of control contacts on a single-direction plugging switch is NO; the other set is NC ___
69	Anti-plugging switches are normally used in conjunction with either 2-wire, selector-switch reverse, or 3-wire, reverse-through-stop circuits ___
70	A single-direction motor-starter consists of a 3-pole ___ and a 3-pole thermal ___
71	Because the opposing electromagnetic fields in the rotor circuit are ___ by the rotation of the stator fields in a 3-phase AC induction motor, the rotor surface will be caused to follow
72	Plugging of the motor can be limited to just ___ the motor (when the rotor stops, the reverse-circuit ___ ), or plugging can be used as a means of ___ of the motor’s direction of rotation
73	Cross -connection is required for reversing, and it creates a possible short-circuit condition between line 1 and line 3 of the 3-phase AC supply power ___
74	Due to the difference in strength of the two electromagnetic fields (the complete magnetic path for the power contactor that is energized has a much stronger field); the ___
75	Interchanging the connection of the motor-circuit conductors with any two of the three winding configurations in a 3-phase AC induction motor causes the ___ rotation
76	The direction of rotation of a ___ AC induction motor cannot be changed with the motor running in either direction (referred to as “reverse on the fly”)
77	The reversing electromagnetic motor -starter consists of two 3-pole power contactors, ___ and ___, with a single overload protection device (usually a thermal ___) for the electric motor
78	___ protection (as it is normally referred to) will not prevent the direction of rotation of a motor rotor from being reversed;
79	A single-direction motor-starter consists of a 3-pole power contactor and a 3-pole thermal overload relay ___
80	The electrical displacement of the three single-phase AC supplies within a 3-phase AC induction motor creates a ___ electromagnetic field that can be electrically reversed while running in either direction
81	As a rule, connecting the motor-circuit conductors (line supply) to the motor-terminal leads in a configuration of (line) L1 to (terminal) L1 to T3, L2 to T2, and L3 to T1 will result in ___
82	Reversing the direction of rotation of an AC induction motor requires a change in the ___ relationship of the phase windings in the motor stator assembly
83	The single-direction plugging switch contains a set of NO switch contacts and a set of NC switch contacts ___
84	On a bi-directional ___ switch, both sets of contacts are NC when the plug switch is at-rest
85	The long straight line drawn between the two power-contactor solenoids on a reversing motor-starter, with two dashed lines connecting the solenoid symbols at a diagonal to ___
86	A plugging switch is mounted on the non-power end of the motor to monitor the ___ of the rotor shaft
87	The two forms of electrical interlock are ___ interlock and ___ interlock:
88	As a rule, connecting the motor-circuit conductors (line supply) to the motor-terminal leads in a configuration of (line) ___ to (terminal)
89	The reversing electromagnetic motor-starter consists of two 3-pole power contactors, forward and reverse, with a single overload protection device (usually a thermal overload relay) for the electric motor ___
90	The single-direction plugging switch contains a set of ___ switch contacts and a set of ___ switch contacts
91	___ interlock normally requires two or more stacked or combination NO and NC PB switches
92	Anti-plugging ___ (as it is normally referred to) will not prevent the direction of rotation of a motor rotor from being reversed; instead, anti-plugging circuits are used to reduce the ___ placed on bearings
93	As with any type of pilot device, the plugging switch has a ___ (different value of ___) between the opening and closing of the contacts
94	A ___ AC induction motor is technically a split-phase motor: the second phase is generated within the motor from a single-phase supply
95	On a bi-directional plugging switch, both sets of contacts are NO when the plug switch is at-rest ___
96	As with any type of pilot device, both the anti-plugging and the plugging switch have a ___ (different value of rpm) between the opening and closing of the contacts
97	___ is a control-circuit method of applying power to a reversing electromagnetic motor -starter that will generate a retarding force (counter-torque) within the electric motor for quick stopping or instant reversing;
98	Interlock with stack switches or multiple auxiliary contacts on a motor -starter is used for the ___ of two operations
99	The heat will build up rapidly in the motor windings and housing (enclosure) during plugging, which will have an effect on the lifetime of the winding ___, the ___ in the bearings, as well as, metal ___
100	On a bi-directional anti-plugging switch, both sets of contacts are NC when the plug switch is at-rest ___
101	Plugging the electric motor in the opposite direction of rotation while it is running in either direction also places electrical stress on the supply and winding conductors ___
102	A 3-phase AC induction motor can be reversed by interchanging the lead connections (between line and terminal) of any ___ of the ___ motor-supply conductors
103	Connecting the motor-circuit conductors to the motor-terminal conductors in a configuration of (line) ___ to (terminal)
104	___ interlock is used to assure priority: one function or operation has to precede a second function or operation (sequence control)
105	The wiring and drawing of the 3-position selector switch in a 2-wire reversing control circuit is similar to a(n) ___ control circuit
106	One of the simplest 3-wire reversing circuits parallels the forward and reverse control circuits through a common Stop PB switch ___
107	Interlock in a control circuit, which can be performed by either control contacts (___ interlock) or mechanical linkage
108	___ interlock is used to assure priority: one function or operation has to precede a second function or operation
109	Reverse-torque applied to an electric motor commands the rotor to stop as the reverse-direction electromagnetic field attempts to force it to run in the reverse direction ___
110	In a ___ AC induction motor, the phase connections or polarities of the start or run windings must be interchanged in reference to supply lines 1 and 2 to command the change in direction of rotation
111	The wiring and drawing of the 3-position selector switch in a 2-wire reversing control circuit is similar to an H-O-A control circuit ___
112	The two common failures of motor control and motor load circuits are opens and shorts, and of the two: the ___ are the more common
113	When the switch controlling overhead lighting, the solenoid of a relay, contactor, or motor starter, or the power supplied to an electric motor is closed, then ___ should be measured across the switch
114	In combination circuits, voltage, resistance, and current rules are obeyed according to the type of circuit seen ___
115	As with the line-to-line voltage test, if zero volts are measured on both the line and load sides of the fuse, the fuse is not necessarily open ___
116	All loads supplied by individual or multioutlet branch circuits, and all the load centers, either supplied by the service or by feeder circuits, operate in ___, and at the same ___ as established for the building
117	Because the measured value is displayed as a numerical (digital) value on digital multimeters, errors can occur when reading a digital display if the displayed ___ are not properly applied
118	As used with electrical test instruments: The term ___ refers to a continuous, non-interrupted, smooth change in an electrical or electronic process
119	In most cases, a loss of voltage due to a ___ connection makes the load inoperative
120	Electrical-power distribution and process control circuits are normally referenced to earth ground ___
121	For any parallel circuit: The ___ of the individual-branch load-resistance wattages must equal the total circuit wattage
122	When the fuse, circuit breaker, or control switch is ___, the circuit or power-supply voltage appears as voltage drop across the is ___ device (assuming the load is still connected and provides circuit continuity)
123	For any parallel circuit: The total circuit resistance will be less than the least value of resistance found in any one parallel branch ___
124	For line-to-line voltage measurements (readings); with the disconnecting means closed and the motor-starter at rest ___
125	Testing for the proper supply ___ is usually the first step when troubleshooting a circuit
126	Without load current flowing in a rung of a ladder diagram / control process, the ___ through the light filament, through the coil of the solenoid, or through the windings of the motor
127	All the loads supplied by individual or multioutlet branch circuits, and all the load centers, either supplied by the service or by feeder circuits operate in ___, and at the same ___ is ___ as established for the building
128	The acronym DMM stands ___
129	If the letters OL appear on the digital display when a measure is being attempted, these letters indicate the measure is of higher value than the digital multimeter can read the meter is ___
130	Ideally no ___ will occur across a switch or an overcurrent protection device when wired in series with a connected load
131	In series-parallel circuits, fuses, circuit breakers or other types of overcurrent protection devices are wired in ___ with the circuits they protect at the point where the circuit receives its supply
132	As each individual parallel load is added, the circuit current will increase according to the full-load ___ rating of the individual loads added
133	A(n) ___ multimeter can be destroyed and in some cases cause bodily injury by exploding, if an attempt is made to measure voltage on an ohmic scale
134	The principal types of electrical circuits include ___
135	The same value of circuit ___ is applied to all the utilization-equipment loads connected in parallel
136	An ___ multimeter is a meter that can measure two or more electrical properties and display the measured properties along calibrated scales using a pointer
137	A voltmeter offers high resistance to the flow of current; however, a minute amount of current ― enough to drive the meter, but not enough to energize the connected load does flow
138	For any parallel circuit: The circuit (applied) voltage will be ___ or the ___ for each branch according to the value of the supply voltage
139	Two ways are available to check for an open fuse ___
140	The basic electrical circuit is described as a series-parallel ___ circuit when a second load is added
141	The electrical-power distribution system within a building or other structure has three major circuit classifications ___
142	If a blown or open fuse is detected, it is not enough to just replace the fuse ___
143	Never attempt to replace a fuse or CB with the power ___ and the load ___
144	There are three principle types of electrical circuits: ___; ___; and ___ series/parallel or parallel/series
145	To check the continuity of a fuse with the power on, two methods are available for taking voltage readings ___
146	Any electrical utilization equipment supplied by the two ungrounded busses in the service equipment will operate at the higher phase-to-phase, or “line voltage” of ___ volts
147	If ___ volts is measured from the line side of the fuse in reference to the metal enclosure and ___ volts is measured from the load side, the fuse is open
148	The principal quantities of measure in an electrical circuit are ___
149	Basic digital meters can measure values of ___, ___, and ___ as the analog meters they were developed to replace
150	The total circuit current depends on the resistance of both loads. In parallel ___
151	___ switches are pilot devices that are often used to sense a change of position, motion, or relocation
152	A digital multimeter, which is set to measure voltage, may display a voltage reading before it is connected to a powered electrical circuit ___
153	A ___ is a meter that is capable of measuring two or more electrical quantities, such as voltage, current, continuity, resistance, capacitance, frequency, or duty cycle
154	A phenomenon referred to as “___ error” occurs when reading the pointer against the selected scale on an analog meter:
155	The ___ lead of the transformer is normally fused and extended in the ladder diagram of the control circuit as the left-side vertical bus
156	A ___ circuit does not supply a connected load directly
157	In the ladder diagram of a control process ___
158	In manufacturing or other types of process control, the supply to one or more motors is normally broken down into the ___ or ___ circuit and the ___ or ___ circuit within a motor control center
159	If any terminal reading from a CB does not give the rated voltage measurement, the CB should be ___
160	As the name implies, in a series-parallel or ___ circuit, part of the circuit components are wired in a series configuration, and other parts of the circuit are wired in a parallel configuration
161	Most analog multimeters have several ___ for the single meter movement
162	In the control of overhead lighting, all the luminaires on a single branch circuit must be wired in ___
163	In troubleshooting a circuit, the location of the ___ normally has to be located by dismantling the affected circuit in parts and taking resistance checks of different parts of the circuit
164	The standard single-phase AC service is normally rated 120/240-volt, 3-wire ___
165	___ switches normally offer only ON/OFF control of a fan, the flow of water or steam, or the electrical power being applied to different types of heating elements
166	In Principle to the ___ of individual-load voltage drops in a series circuit and to the ___ of individual branch-circuit currents in a parallel circuit
167	To provide a fast and easy understanding of the connections and use of the components, ___ or ___ diagrams show the logic of an electrical circuit or system using standard symbols
168	Indicating lights, which indicate either an alarm or the run status of process pumps or blowers, are normally of the ___ type, which is mounted with NO and NC contacts
169	Indicating lights in a ladder diagram or other drawing are symbolized with a ___
170	An electric motor draws locked-rotor current on starting, which can be ___ to ___ times higher than its full-load current rating
171	The forms of electrical interlock include ___
172	Limited to a single set of NC control-relay contacts: running overload protection poses a problem with a reversing motor-starter simply because the reversing circuit consists of only one other 3-pole contactor ___
173	Plugging a 3-phase AC induction motor in the opposite direction of rotation while it is running in either direction places electrical stress on the supply and winding conductors ___
174	A reversing motor-starter consists of two 3-pole ___ and a single 3-pole thermal ___
175	Because some building or other-structure 3-phase AC electrical-power distribution systems operate with the center leg (Line ___ or Phase ___) referenced or connected directly to earth ground
176	Reversing the direction of rotation of an AC induction motor requires a change in the magnetic relationship of the phase windings in the motor stator assembly ___
177	The normal forward direction of rotation for an AC induction motor is ___ when looking at the non-drive end of the motor. The normal reverse direction is ___
178	The normal forward direction of rotation for an AC induction motor is ___ when looking at the non-drive end of the motor
179	Most power contactors have openings or protruding pins or parts that will allow the contact block to be closed manually ___
180	For all practical purposes, the term ___ refers to a system of quick braking of the motor’s rotation
181	Because some building or other-structure 3-phase AC electrical-power distribution systems operate with the center leg (Line 2 or Phase B) referenced or connected directly to earth ground ___
182	The single-direction, 3-wire control circuit for a 3-phase AC induction motor can be modified with a reversing electromagnetic motor -starter for plug braking of the electric motor ___
183	The combined effect of the electrical displacement of the three single-phase AC sources in the 3-phase power supply and the mechanical displacement of the generated electromagnetic fields in the ___
184	A single-phase AC induction motor is technically a ___ motor: the second phase is generated within the motor from a single-phase supply
185	How to calculate the consumption of electrical in a camp under construction?!
186	The relation between the breakdown voltage V and the thickness t of the dielectric –
187	The ratio of charge stored by two metallic spheres raised to the same potential is 6. The ratio of the surface areas of the sphere is
188	For a group of cells when internal resistance of the group is ___
189	The energy capacity of a storage battery is ___
190	What happens during the charging of acid cell?
191	What causes lower efficiency of alkali cell as compared to the acid cell?
192	The relative density of the electrolyte of acid accumulator should not be ___
193	Which of the following acts as depolariser in Lechlanche cell?
194	The amount of ions liberated by 96500 C of charge passed through the electrolyte is called?
195	The current capacity of the charged secondary cell does not ___
196	What happens during the discharging of Edison cell?
197	What carries current in ___
198	The current capacity of a cell is measured in ___
199	Which of the following cells is more likely to be damaged due to short circuiting?
200	Through an electrolyte an electric current is due to ___
201	During charging and discharging of an Edison cell ___
202	The arrangement of 12 cells, each of internal resistance 1.5 ω, to ___
203	For keeping the lead acid battery terminals free from corrosion it is ___
204	Rust, scales and oxides can be removed from a surface with ___
205	A battery is connected to a resistance causing a current of ___
206	The capacity of a lead acid battery does not depend upon ___
207	Short circuiting of a cell may be caused by ___
208	In a lead acid battery, separators are provided to ___
209	For achieving uniform thickness of deposit on ___
210	Cells are connected in parallel in order to ___
211	If the specific gravity of the electrolyte in a lead acid cell increases beyond ___
212	Sulphated cells are indicated by ___
213	In a battery, cover is placed over the elements and sealed at ___
214	Oil and grease can be removed from a surface with the help of ___
215	A 24 V battery of internal resistance r = 4 ω connected to ___
216	Five cells are connected in series in a row and then four such rows are ___
217	The condition of a fully charged lead acid battery cannot be ascertained by ___
218	During electrodeposition the amounts of different substances liberated by ___
219	A floating battery is ___
220	Battery charging equipment should be ___
221	During electroplating the weight of a substance deposited depends upon ___
222	In comparison to constant current charging method, the constant ___
223	In which of the following cells polarisation is the major defect?
224	First electrochemical cell was designed by ___
225	Within the electric cell, the charge is ___
226	Who was the first to design storage cell?
227	Which of the following is not the name of a secondary cell?
228	Overhead lines generally use ___
229	Most of the high voltage transmission lines in ___
230	Which of the following methods is used for laying of underground cables?
231	Which of the following are the constants of the transmission lines?
232	In the cables sheaths are used to ___
233	Which of the following is a static exciter?
234	Which of the following equipment should be installed by the consumers having low power factor?
235	If the height of transmission tower is ___
236	By which of the following methods the protection against ___
237	When a conductor carries more current on the surface as compared to ___
238	For transmission of power over a distance of 500 km, the transmission voltage should ___
239	Pin type insulators are generally not used for ___
240	In aluminium conductors, steel core is ___
241	Which of the following characteristics should the line supports for transmission lines possess?
242	A feeder, in a transmission system, feeds power to ___
243	Large industrial consumers are supplied electrical energy at ___
244	The loads on distributors systems are ___
245	The cause of damage to the lead sheath of a ___
246	The operating voltage of supertension cables is ___
247	The usual spans with R.C.C. poles are ___
248	___ are the conductors, which connect the consumer’s terminals to the distribution
249	Transmission lines link ___
250	If the voltage is increased x times, the size of the conductor would be ___
251	Skin effect exists only in ___
252	As compared to cables, the disadvantage of transmission lines is ___
253	When the load at the receiving end of a long transmission line is ___
254	Basically the boosters are ___
255	With which of the following are step-up substations associated?
256	The effect of ice on transmission line conductors is to ___
257	Which of the following bar schemes is the most expensive?
258	The conductors are bundled primarily to ___
259	The voltage regulation in magnetic amplifier type ___
260	The current drawn by the line due to corona losses is ___
261	By which of the following methods string efficiency can be improved?
262	Which of the following distribution systems is more reliable?
263	The presence of ozone due to corona is ___
264	The spacing between phase conductors of a 220 kV line is ___
265	The material commonly used for insulation in ___
266	Which of the following faults is most likely to occur in cables?
267	The operating voltage of high voltage cable’s is ___
268	Galvanised steel wire is generally used as ___
269	The size of the earth wire is ___
270	By using bundle conductors, the critical voltage for the formation of ___
271	In case of transmission line conductors with the increase in ___
272	The effect of wind pressure is more predominant on ___
273	Power system stability is least affected by ___
274	In which of the following cases shunt capacitance is negligible?
275	Which of the following is neglected in the analysis of short transmission lines?
276	A booster is connected in
277	Out of the following which type of poles are bulky?
278	A tap changing transformer is ___
279	310 km line is considered as ___
280	Series capacitors on transmission lines are of little use ___
281	On which of the following factors skin effect depends?
282	The use of strain type insulators is made where the ___
283	Owing to skin effect ___
284	The steel used in steel cored conductors is ___
285	For an overhead line, the surge impedance is ___
286	The minimum clearance between the ground and a 220 kV line is ___
287	Distribution lines in India generally use ___
288	Besides a method of trial and error, which of the following methods is ___
289	Low voltage cables are meant for use up to ___
290	Which of the following materials is not used for transmission and distribution of electrical power?
291	Solid grounding is adopted for ___
292	High voltage is primarily used, for long distance power transmission, to ___
293	Due to which of the following reasons aluminium is being favoured as busbar material?
294	Corona is likely to occur maximum in ___
295	Skin effect is noticeable only at ___
296	For which of the following, the excitation control method is satisfactory?
297	A gay wire ___
298	In a distribution system major cost is that of ___
299	Poles which carry transformers are ___
300	Which of the following is the main advantage of A.C. transmission ___
301	When a live conductor of public electric supply breaks down and touches the earth which of ___
302	Electro-mechanical voltage regulators are ___
303	Constant voltage transmission entails the ___
304	The voltage drop, for constant voltage transmission is ___
305	Which of the following bus-bar schemes has the lowest cost?
306	Which of the following relays is used on long transmission lines?
307	Which of the following is usually not the generating voltage?
308	The material commonly used for sheaths of underground cables is ___
309	Multicore cables generally use ___
310	Which of the following is the demerit of a ‘constant voltage transmission system?
311	The wooden poles well impregnated with creosote oil or ___
312	Resistance grounding is used for voltage between ___
313	High voltages for transmitting power is ___
314	Which of the following short-circuits is most dangerous?
315	Impedance relay is used on ___
316	Surge absorbers protect against ___
317	The area of cross-section of the neutral in a 3-wire D.C. system is ___
318	Which of the following cause transient disturbances?
319	Power loss due to corona is not directly proportional to ___
320	Which of the following distribution systems is the most economical?
321	The skin effect of a conductor will reduce as ___
322	The angular displacement between two interconnected stations is ___
323	In a tap changing transformer, the tappings are ___
324	Corona usually occurs when the electrostatic stress in ___
325	In A.C.S.R. conductors, the insulation between aluminium and ___
326	There is a greater possibility of occurence of ___
327	As compared to a 2-wire D.C. distributor, a 3-wire distributor with same ___
328	Transmission line insulators are made of ___
329	High voltage transmission lines use ___
330	Which of the following D.C. distribution system is the simplest and lowest in first cost?
331	The square root of the ratio of line impedance and shunt admittance is ___
332	If variable part of annual cost on account of interest and depreciation on the ___
333	Earthing is necessary to give protection against ___
334	The string efficiency of an insulator can be ___
335	By using bundled conductors which of the following is reduced?
336	A.C.S.R. conductor having 7 steel stands surrounded by ___
337	A synchronous condenser is generally installed at the of ___
338	By which of the following factors is the sag of a transmission line least affected?
339	Which of the following are connected by the service mains?
340	In context of corona, if the conductors are polished and smooth, which of ___
341	By which of the following methods voltage of transmission can be regulated?
342	When an alternator connected to the bus-bar is shut, down the ___
343	Which of the following equipment, for regulating the voltage in distribution feeder, will be most economical?
344	A conductor due to sag between two supports, takes the ___
345	Which of the following is not a constituent for making porcelain insulators?
346	A uniformly-loaded D.C. distributor is fed at both ends with ___
347	The material generally used for armour of high voltage cables is ___
348	The conductors of the overhead lines are ___
349	Due to which of the following reasons the cables should not, be operated too hot?
350	The phenomenon of rise in voltage at the receiving end of ___
351	Ground wire is used to ___
352	The ground ring transmission lines are ___
353	To increase the capacity of a transmission line for transmitting power which of ___
354	If the height of transmission tower is increased, which of the following; parameters is likely to change?
355	Induction regulators are used for ___
356	The limit of distance of transmission line may be ___
357	On which of the following does the size of a feeder depend?
358	Which of the following has least effect on corona?
359	In transmission and distribution system the ___
360	The frequency of voltage generated, in case of generators, can be ___
361	For aluminium, as compared to copper, all the following ___
362	For which of the following equipment current rating is not necessary?
363	Skin effect is proportional to ___
364	Which of the following materials is used for overhead transmission lines?
365	Transmitted power remaining the same, if supply voltage of ___
366	In transmission lines the cross-arms are made of ___
367	Which of the following is the source of heat generation in the cables?
368	The underground system cannot be ___
369	The charging current in the cables ___
370	The electrostatic stress in underground cables is ___
371	Conductors for high voltage transmission lines are suspended from ___
372	Which of the following can be used for bus-bars?
373	The purpose of using a booster is ___
374	Corona results in ___
375	In A.C.S.R. conductor the function of steel is ___
376	When the interconnector between two stations has ___
377	For transmission of power over a distance of 200 km, the ___
378	A circuit is disconnected by isolators when ___
379	Which of the following regulations is considered best?
380	A 3-phase 4 wire system is commonly used on ___
381	In a D.C. 3-wire distributor using balancers and having ___
382	The surge resistance of cables is ___
383	The effective resistance of a conductor will be the same as ___
384	System grounding is done so ___
385	For exact compensation of voltage drop in the feeder the ___
386	Which of the following equipment is used to limit short-circuit current level in a substation?
387	If string efficiency is 100 percent it ___
388	In which of the following voltage regulators the effect of dead zero is found?
389	The top most conductor in a high transmission line is ___
390	The following system is not generally ___
391	In the analysis of which of the following lines shunt capacitance is neglected?
392	Aluminium has a specific gravity of ___
393	By which of the following a bus-bar is rated?
394	Transmission voltage of 11 kV is normally used for ___
395	The power transmitted will be maximum when ___
396	In a D.C. 3-wire distribution system, balancer fields are ___
397	The power factor of industrial loads is ___
398	The voltage of the single phase supply to residential consumers is ___
399	The operating voltage of extra high tension cables is ___
400	The corona is considerably affected by which of the following?
401	By which of the following systems electric power may be transmitted?
402	The colour of the neutral of three-core flexible cable is ___
403	Floating neutral, in 3-phase supply, is undesirable because it ___
404	In overhead transmission lines the effect of capacitance can be ___
405	In medium transmission lines the shunt capacitance is ___
406	The material used for the manufacture of ___
407	The angle between the rotor poles and stator poles, in ___
408	The speed of the synchronous motor ___
409	In a circuit breaker ionisation is not facilitated by ___
410	The over-voltage surges in power systems may be caused by ___
411	The use of oil immersed reactors is generally restricted upto ___
412	Which fuse material is more susceptible to oxidation as compared to the remaining?
413	Least number of faults are generally reported for ___
414	A circuit breaker will normally operate ___
415	Air used in air blast circuit breaker ___
416	A fuse wire possesses
417	The information to the circuit breaker under fault conditions is ___
418	A fuse is never inserted in ___
419	The power loss is an important factor for the ___
420	Air blast circuit breakers for 400 kV power system are ___
421	Which of the following devices will receive voltage surge first travelling on the transmission line?
422	___ relays are used for phase faults on long line
423	Discrimination between in a in and back up protection is provided by ___
424	To protect most of the electrical equipment handling low ___
425	The time of closing the cycle, in modern circuit breakers is ___
426	When a transmission line is energized, the wave that propagates on ___
427	Circuit breakers are essentially ___
428	Thermal circuit breaker has ___
429	The main function of a fuse is ___
430	The most serious result of a major uncleared short-circuit fault could be ___
431	Which of the following protective devices can be used against lightning surges?
432	Basically a lightning arrester is ___
433	The pilot relay is provided to ___
434	In a circuit breaker the time duration from the instant of the fault to ___
435	The transient voltage that appears across the contacts at ___
436	A short-circuit is identified by ___
437	Protection by fuses is generally not ___
438	The inductive interference between power and communication line can be ___
439	The single phasing relays are used for ___
440	The short circuit in any winding of the transformer is ___
441	With which of the following a circuit breaker must be equipped for remote operation?
442	In a circuit breaker ionisation is not ___
443	The over-voltage surges in power systems may be ___
444	Current limiting reactors may be ___
445	The use of oil immersed reactors is ___
446	The under voltage relay can be ___
447	Bus coupler is very essential in ___
448	The interaction between a transmission line and communication line is minimized
449	Resistance grounding is used for ___
450	Interruption of large currents by ___
451	A differential relay measures the ___
452	The relay operating speed depends ___
453	Fault diverters are ___
454	The contact space in circuit breakers is ___
455	Which portion of transmission system is least prone to faults?
456	A lightning arrester provides ___
457	An arc in a circuit behaves like ___
458	The total time for high speed breakers in ___
459	In a contactor, interrupting medium may be ___
460	A switchgear is device used for ___
461	On which of the following effects of electric current a fuse operates?
462	If the fault occurs near the impedance relay, the V/I ratio will be ___
463	___ transmission line has reflection coefficient as one
464	A ___ is used to measure the stator winding temperature of the generator
465	To reduce short circuit fault currents ___
466	Which of the following is the least expensive protection for overcurrent is low voltage system?
467	Overheating of relay contacts or contact born out is ___
468	Directional relays are based on ___
469	D.C. shunt relays are made of ___
470	In the event, of a fault on connected circuit, a circuit breaker will ___
471	Breaking capacity of a circuit breaker is usually expressed in ___
472	Which of the following is used in liquid fuses?
473	Oil switches are employed for ___
474	The material used for fuse must have ___
475	Arc in a circuit breaker is ___
476	For which of the following ratings of the transformer differential protection is recommended?
477	Short-circuit currents are due to ___
478	For the protection of power station buildings against ___
479	The delay fuses are used for ___
480	In a circuit breaker the basic problem is ___
481	Burden of a protective relay is ___
482	Magnetic circuit breaker has ___
483	Which of the following medium is employed for extinction of arc in air circuit breaker?
484	The advantage of neutral earthing is ___
485	Surge modifiers are used to ___
486	An earth conductor provided on the top of the transmission line ___
487	In circuit breakers, the advantage of using oil as ___
488	Minimum arcing voltage will be least in ___
489	In a single bus-bar system there will be ___
490	The fuse rating is expressed in terms of ___
491	Which of the following circuit breakers has high reliability and minimum maintenance?
492	Distance relays are generally ___
493	Pick the right statement from the following?
494	The reflection co-efficient at the open circuited end of ___
495	The ground wire should not be smaller than ___
496	Ionization in circuit breaker is ___
497	An efficient and a well designed protective relaying should ___
498	Thermal overload relays are used to protect the motor against over ___
499	The arcing contacts in a circuit breaker are ___
500	SF6 gas is transported in ___
501	The main factor in favour of the use of aluminium as ___
502	Reactance relays are used for phase fault in ___
503	____ gives rise to symmetrical fault?
504	H.R.C. fuses provide best protection in ___
505	A balanced 3-phase system consists of ___
506	H.R.C. fuse, as compared to a rewirable fuse, has ___
507	Series capacitors are used ___
508	Series reactors should have ___
509	____ relay is preferred for phase fault on ___
510	A.C. network analyser is used to ___
511	Ungrounded neutral transmission system is not recommended because of ___
512	H.R.C. fuses provide best protection against ___
513	The voltage appearing across the contacts after opening of ___
514	Air blast circuit breaker is ___
515	Overload relays are of ___
516	SF6 gas ___
517	Outdoor switchgear is generally used for ___
518	The material used for bus-bars should ___
519	Merz-Price protection is used for ___
520	The rating of a circuit breaker is generally determined on ___
521	Which of the following relays is used for protection of motors against overload?
522	To limit short-circuit current in a power system ___
523	A fuse is ___
524	Overfluxing protection is recommended for ___
525	Which of the following parameter can be neglected for a short line?
526	For which of the following protection from negative sequence currents is provided?
527	Induction cup relay is operated due to ___
528	Wave trap is used to ___
529	Insulation resistance of high voltage circuit breakers is ___
530	Protective relays are devices that detect abnormal conditions in ___
531	The current zero interruption, in oil and air blast circuit breakers, is ___
532	Relays can be designed to respond to ___
533	Capillary tube is generally made up of ___
534	Which system is not used in ___
535	Freezing point of water is ___
536	Whích is not a part of electrical system in ___
537	Hot water of condenser is ___
538	Belt driven unit is ___
539	The purpose of a dehydrator is ___
540	What is the cause of a pump runs ___
541	Which is the type of liquid circulating pump out of ___
542	Out of which is not a part of ___
543	Freon gas is a ___
544	Out of following which is ___
545	Generally which gas is used in ___
546	How much temperature is maintained in freezer of ___
547	For voltage regulation for domestic refrigerator which is ___
548	Motor used for a domestic refrigerators is ___
549	The refrigeration process is ___
550	Refrigeration capacity is measured in ___
551	Mercury, in arc rectifiers, is chosen for ___
552	Normally, which of the following is used, when ___
553	Which of the following are the applications of D.C. system?
554	A commutating rectifier consists of ___
555	The metal rectifiers are preferred to valve rectifiers due to which of the following advantages?
556	Which of the following rectifiers are primarily used for charging of ___
557	Choose incorrect statement from the following?
558	On which of the following factors the number of phases for ___
559	To produce cathode spot in a ___
560	Which of the following rectifiers have been used extensively in ___
561	In a phase-shift control method, the phase shift, between anode and ___
562	In a mercury arc rectifier ___
563	If cathode and anode connections in a mercury arc rectifier are ___
564	In a rotary converter I2R losses as compared to a D.C. generator of ___
565	Which of the following metals is generally manufactured by electrolysis process?
566	The applications of selenium rectifiers are usually limited to ___
567	In phase-shift control method the control is carried out by ___
568	In a glass bulb mercury arc rectifier the maximum current rating is ___
569	The internal efficiency of a mercury arc rectifier depends on ___
570	In which of the following equipment direct current is needed?
571	Which of the following is reversible in action?
572	The ignited or auxiliary anode in mercury arc rectifier is ___
573	Ageing of a selenium rectifier may change the ___
574	In mercury arc rectifiers having grid, the arc can be ___
575	Which of the following mercury arc rectifier will deliver least undulating current?
576	The voltage drop at anode, in a mercury arc rectifier is ___
577	In a rotary converter armature currents are ___
578	A rotary converter combines the ___
579	In a mercury arc rectifier, the anode is ___
580	In selenium rectifiers efficiencies ranging from ___
581	In a mercury arc rectifier characteristic blue luminosity is ___
582	Glass rectifiers are usually made into units capable of ___
583	Which of the following A.C. motors is usually used in large motor-generator sets?
584	A rotary converter is a single machine with ___
585	The metal rectifiers, as compared to mercury arc ___
586	Selenium rectifier can be operated at temperatures as ___
587	In a three-phase mercury arc rectifiers each ___
588	The voltage drop between the anode and cathode, of ___
589	In which of the following applications, direct current is absolutely essential?
590	A synchronous converter can be ___
591	Which of the following is the loss within the mercury arc rectifier chamber?
592	Copper oxide rectifier is usually designed not to ___
593	It is the ___ of the transformer on which the magnitude of angle of overlap
594	In a mercury pool rectifier the voltage drop across its ___
595	The potential drop in the arc, in ___
596	A rotary converter operates at ___
597	The efficiency of an electrolytic rectifier is ___
598	The efficiency of the copper oxide rectifier seldom ___
599	A mercury arc rectifier possesses ___
600	The advantage of mercury arc rectifier is ___
601	The ionization potential of mercury is ___
602	A rotary converter in general construction and design, is ___
603	A network consists of linear resistors and ___
604	Two resistors R1 and R2 give combined resistance of 4.5 ω when in ___
605	If the length of a wire of resistance R is uniformly stretched to ___
606	Three parallel resistive branches are connected across ___
607	Temperature co-efficient of resistance is ___
608	The resistance of a few metres of wire conductor in ___
609	The resistance of a parallel circuit consisting of ___
610	Conductance is reciprocal of ___
611	Two copper conductors have ___
612	A 3 ω resistor having 2 A current will dissipate the ___
613	A light bulb draws 300 mA when the voltage across it is ___
614	The resistance of a conductor varies inversely as ___
615	With three resistances connected in parallel, if ___
616	Specific resistance of a substance is ___
617	In a series circuit with unequal ___
618	In a circuit a 33 ω resistor carries a current of ___
619	Voltage dependent resistors are used
620	The temperature coefficient of resistance of ___
621	Resistance of a material always decreases if ___
622	Varistors are ___
623	The resistance of two wires is 25 ω when connected in ___
624	Voltage dependent resistors are usually made from ___
625	Which of the following quantities remain the same in all parts of a series circuit?
626	A resistance having rating 10 ohms, 10 W is ___
627	Three resistances of 10 ohms, 15 ohms and 30 ohms are ___
628	An open resistor, when checked with an ___
629	Heat in a conductor is produced on the passage of ___
630	Two resistors are said to be connected in ___
631	The resistance of a copper wire 200 m long is ___
632	A rheostat differs from potentiometer in ___
633	A closed switch has a resistance of ___
634	You have to replace 1500 ω resistor in ___
635	Which resistor will be physically larger in size?
636	Two resistances R1 and R2 are connected in series across the ___
637	A current of 16 amperes divides between two branches in parallel of ___
638	With rise in temperature the resistance of ___
639	Which of tite following materials has the least resistivity?
640	If a wire conductor of 0.2 ohm resistance is doubled in ___
641	Four wires of same material, the same cross-sectional area and the ___
642	For which of the following substances the temperature co-efficient of resistivity is positive?
643	The temperature coefficient of resistance of some material is ___
644	The specific resistance of ___
645	The example of non-ohmic resistance is ___
646	The specific resistance of all metals is ___
647	The resistance of a straight conductor does not ___
648	Which of the following is an ohmic conductor?
649	In a circuit containing two unequal resistors connected in ___
650	Three resistances each of R Ω  are corrected to ___
651	The temperature-coefficient of resistance of ___
652	In an ordinary heater if the length of the coil is halved, then ___
653	The insulation resistance of a cable of length 10 km is ___
654	In the case of diamagnetic materials, the magnetic susceptibly is ___
655	Which of the following is the unit of magnetic flux density?
656	Substances winch have permeability less than the permeability of ___
657	The unit of relative permeability is ___
658	The direction of magnetic lines of force is ___
659	In order tominimise loss due to hysteresis the ___
660	In case all the flux from the current in coil 1 links with ___
661	There is a constant homogeneous magnetic field pointing in ___
662	Linkage flux per unit current is ___
663	Reluctance offered by the magnetic circuit ___
664	When a plane wave propagates in ___
665	The magnetic field strength of an air-cored coil can be ___
666	The hysteresis loss is ___
667	The shape of B-H curve for air gap is___
668	The coupling between two magnetically coupled coils is ___
669	Lower the self inductance of ___
670	A ferromagnetic core subjected to cycles of magetisation will ___
671	Two parallel wires separated by a distance dare carrying ___
672	Hard steel is suitable for making permanent magnets because ___
673	The conductance of electrical circuit is ___
674	Those magnetic materials are best suited for making armature and ___
675	If a current carrying conductor is placed in ___
676	An air gap is usually inserted in magnetic circuits to ___
677	A ferrite core has less eddy current loss than ___
678	If the area of hysteresis loop of a material is large, the ___
679	The relative permeability of a ferromagnetic material is ___
680	The transformer cores operating at microwave frequency range, are ___
681	The unit of reluctance is ___
682	Those materials are well suited for making permanent magnets which have ___
683	Permanent magnets are normally made of ___
684	According to steinmetz hysteresis law, hysteresis loss in a material is ___
685	When a piece of iron is placed in ___
686	While comparing magnetic and electric circuits, the flux of ___
687	Choose the correct statement(s) from the following?
688	In a magnetic material hysteresis loss takes place primarily due to ___
689	The magnetising force (H) and magnetic flux density (B) are connected by ___
690	Permeance is to reluctance as ___
691	Reciprocal of reluctance is ___
692	Conductivity is analogous to ___
693	Relative permeability of vacuum is ___
694	The area of hysteresis loss is a measure of ___
695	The unit of retentivity is ___
696	A material for good magnetic memory should have ___
697	Point out the wrong statement ___
698	Laminated cores, in electrical machines, are used to ___
699	The property of a material which opposes the creation of ___
700	The initial rate of rise of current through a coil of ___
701	Permeability in a magnetic circuit corresponds to ___
702	Conductance is analogous to ___
703	When both the inductance and resistance of ___
704	The unit of magnetic flux is ___
705	For a perfect conductor, the field strength at a distance equal to ___
706	In order to minimise loss due to hysteresis, the magnetic material should have ___
707	Silicon steel is used in electrical machines because ___
708	The rate of rise of current through an inductive coil is ___
709	Which of the following statements should be true if one compares the ___
710	The coils having self-inductance of 10 mH and 15 mH and ___
711	For which of the following materials the net magnetic moment should be zero?
712	If in an iron cored coil the iron core is removed so ___
713	How does the magnetic compass needle behave in a magnetic field?
714	In all cases of electromagnetic induction, an induced voltage will ___
715	The uniform magnetic field is ___
716	The force per unit length between two stationary parallel ___
717	A permanent magnet ___
718	A coil wound over an iron ring carries certain ___
719	The tubes of force within the magnetic material are ___
720	Two coils having equal resistances but different inductances are ___
721	The magnitude of force acting on a current carrying conductor placed in ___
722	When two ends of a circular uniform wire are joined to the terminals of ___
723	Which of the following associated with magnetic field is correct?
724	The magnetism left in the iron after exciting field has been removed is known as
725	In a magnetic material, hysteresis loss takes ___
726	The magnetic susceptibility of ___
727	A conductor of length L has current I passing through ___
728	The magnetic field required to reduce the residual magnetisation to ___
729	The overall inductance of two coils connected in series, with ___
730	Tesla is a unit of ___
731	Strength of an electromagnet can be ___
732	The magnitude of induced emf in a conductor depends upon ___
733	If the two conductors carry current in opposite directions there will ___
734	Which part of the magnetic path requires largest m.m.f?
735	An electric field is parallel but opposite to ___
736	If a copper disc is rotated rapidly below a freely suspended ___
737	Supermagnetic materials are composed of ___
738	The change of cross-sectional area of conductor in ___
739	What is the value of the magnetic vector potential due to ___
740	If a copper disc is rotated rapidly below a ___
741	A keeper is used for ___
742	Supermagnetic materials are ___
743	The commonly used material for shielding or ___
744	One maxwell is equal to ___
745	The relative permeability is less than unity is ___
746	Degaussing is the process of ___
747	The left hand rule correlates to ___
748	Air gap has ___ reluctance as compared to iron or steel path
749	Main causes of noisy solenoid are ___
750	The susceptibility of paramagnetic materials generally lies between ___
751	The magnetic reluctance of ___
752	An electromagnetic field is ___
753	A keeper is used to ___
754	The energy stored in the magnetic field of ___
755	The most effective and quickest may of ___
756	The area of hysteresis loop is ___
757	When a magnet is in motion relative to ___
758	The coercive force in a ferromagnetic material is ___
759	Reciprocal of permeability is ___
760	Paramagnetic materials have relative permeability ___
761	Magnetising steel is normals difficult because ___
762	The laws of electromagnetic induction ___
763	Ferrites are ___
764	Temporary magnets are used in ___
765	Which of the following type of materials are not very important for engineering applications?
766	At a certain current, the energy stored in an iron-cored coil is ___
767	An infinitely long straight conductor located along Z-axis carries a ___
768	A certain amount of current flows through a ringshaped coil with ___
769	A rectangular magnet of magnetic moment M is ___
770	The electromagnet has 50 turns and a current of ___
771	Materials subjected to rapid reversals of ___
772	Out of the following statements, concerning an electric field, which statement is not true?
773	The working of a meter is based on the use of ___
774	The principle of dynamically induced emf is ___
775	The use of permanent magnets is ___
776	According to Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction an ___
777	The ratio of intensity of magnetisation to the magnetisation force is known as ___
778	Choose which the following statements is a correct statement?
779	Aluminium and platinum are ___
780	The force experienced by a current carrying conductor lying parallel to ___
781	Magnetism of a magnet can be destroyed by ___
782	In which of the materials the spin moments associated with ___
783	Which of the following materials are diamagnetic?
784	Choose correct statements from the below?
785	Hysteresis loop in case of magnetically hard materials is ___
786	A 200 turn coil having an axial length of 30 mm and a radius of ___
787	Gilbert is a unit of ___
788	The main constituent of permalloy is ___
789	Fleming’s left hand rule is ___
790	A magnet does not ___
791	The magnetisation and applied field in ferromagnetic materials are ___
792	What will be the magnetic potential difference across the ___
793	The ____ materials are a bit inferior conductors of magnetic flux than air
794	The Biot-savart’s law is ___
795	A 300 mm long conductor is carrying a current of 10 A and is ___
796	One tesla is equal to ___
797	Ferrites are a sub-group of ___
798	Indicate which of the following material does not ___
799	When an iron piece is placed in ___
800	A magnetic field exists ___
801	Pick the correct from the following statements?
802	The stray line of magnetic flux is defined as ___
803	What will be the current passing through the ___
804	The relative permeability of ___
805	Unit for quantity of electricity is ___
806	Two long parallel conductors carry ___
807	Which of the following is expected to have the maximum permeability?
808	Which of the following is a ferromagnetic material?
809	A coil with a certain number of turns has a ___
810	Materials subjected to rapid reversal of magnetism should have ___
811	A material which is slightly repelled by ___
812	Two conducting thin coils X and ___
813	The materials having low retentivity are ___
814	Mutual inductance between two magnetically coupled coils depends on ___
815	The attraction capacity of electromagnet will increase if ___
816	When a single turn coil rotates in a uniform magnetic field, at ___
817	In a simple magnetic field the strength of ___
818	The magneto-motive force is ___
819	An air gap is usually inserted in ___
820	The retentivity (a property) of material is useful for ___
821	Which of the following statements holds of the divergence of ___
822	The unit of flux is the same as ___
823	Remanent magnetism is ___
824	Susceptibility is positive for ___
825	Which of the following is not a unit of flux?
826	In the left hand rule, forefinger always ___
827	The force between two long parallel conductors is ___
828	The two conductors of a transmission line carry equal current ___
829	When a battery of E volts is suddenly applied across an ___
830	Magnetostriction is a phenomenon whereby the magnetisation of ___
831	Two identical coils of negligible resistance, when connected in series across a ___
832	The field at any point on the axis of a current carrying coil will be ___
833	Two coils are coupled in such a way that the mutual inductance between ___
834	The inductance of a long solenoid of length 1,000 mm wound ___
835	A magnetic circuit requires 800 AT to produce a certain quantity of ___
836	The magnetic field intensity (in A/m) at the centre of ___
837	For which of the following applications motor has to start with high acceleration?
838	Which of the following motors is preferred when smooth and ___
839	In case of ___ speed control by injecting e.m.f. in the rotor circuit is possible
840	___ has relatively wider range of speed control
841	Belted slip ring induction motor is almost invariably used for ___
842	Which of the following motors are best for the rolling mills?
843	Which of the following motors are preferred for overhead travelling cranes?
844	The selection of an electric motor for any application depends on which of the following factors?
845	For a D.C. shunt motor which of the following is incorrect?
846	Which of the following motors is preferred when quick speed reversal is the main consideration?
847	___ has the least value of starting torque to full load torque ratio
848	Heat control switches are used in ___
849	For blowers which of the following motors is preferred?
850	The starting torque in case of centrifugal pumps is ___
851	While selecting an electric motor for a floor mill, which ___
852	For a particular application the type of electric and ___
853	Which of the following happens when star-delta starter is used?
854	By the use of which of the following D.C. can be obtained from A.C.?
855	___ has least range of speed control
856	Which of the following motors is usually preferred for kiln drives?
857	The size of an excavator is usually expressed in ___
858	___ motor is a constant speed motor
859	Light duty cranes are used in which of the following?
860	In series motor which of the following methods can ___
861	Which of the following motors has series characteristics?
862	Besides a constant speed a synchronous rotor possesses which of the following advantages?
863	Battery operated scooter for ___
864	For a motor-generator set which of the following motors will be preferred?
865	A reluctance motor ___
866	Which feature, while selecting a motor for centrifugal pump, will be of least significance?
867	The load cycle for a motor driving a power press will be ___
868	The cost of an induction motor will ___
869	A wound rotor induction motor is preferred, as compared to ___
870	The travelling speed of cranes varies from ___
871	For derries and winches which of the following drives can be used?
872	In jaw crushers a motor has to often start against ___
873	In a paper mill where constant speed is ___
874	___ need frequent starting and stopping of electric motors
875	When the load is above ___
876	Which of the following alternatives will be cheaper?
877	Which of the following motors is preferred for boom hoist of a travelling crane?
878	Heavy duty cranes are used in ___
879	Which of the following machines has heavy fluctuation of load?
880	In ___ method of starting three phase induction motors the starting voltage
881	For which of the following applications ‘D.C. motors are still preferred?
882	Which part of a motor needs maximum attention for maintenance?
883	___ is preferred for automatic drives
884	The diameter of the rotor shaft for an electric motor depends on ___
885	The characteristics of drive for crane hoisting and lowering are which of the following?
886	In which of the following applications variable speed operation is preferred?
887	Flame proof motors are ___
888	___ method of starting a three phase induction motor needs six terminals
889	Rotor of a motor is usually supported on ___
890	Which of the following motors is used for elevators?
891	Which of the following motors always starts on load?
892	While selecting motor for an air conditioner which of ___
893	The capacity of a crane is expressed in ___
894	In ___ the speed can be varied by changing the position of brushes
895	In which of the following application the load on motor changes in cyclic order?
896	Reluctance motor is ___
897	The starting torque of a D.C. motor is independent of which of the following?
898	Ward-Leonard controlled D.C. drives are generally used ___
899	Which of the following motors is preferred for traction work?
900	Which of the following types of motor enclosure is safest?
901	For crane travel which of the following motors is normally used?
902	A pony motor is used for the starting which of the following motors?
903	In squirrel cage induction motors which of the following methods of starting cannot be used?
904	Which of the following is essentially needed while selecting a motor?
905	___ is not a part of ball bearing?
906	___ is preferred for synthetic fibre mills
907	Reflectors are provided with slits at ___
908	Stroboscopic effect due to use of discharge lamps in ___
909	Sometimes the wheels of rotating machinery, under the influence of ___
910	In electric discharge lamps for ___
911	Due to moonlight, illumination is ___
912	On which of the following factors does the depreciation or maintenance factor depend?
913	Fine diameter tungsten wires are ___
914	Soft shadows are produced by ___
915	In an incandescent lamp bird cage filament is usually used in ___
916	A mercury vapour lamp gives ___
917	Most affected parameter of a filament lamp due to ___
918	___ will need lowest level of illumination
919	Desired illumination level on the working plane ___
920	The filament of a GLS lamp is ___
921	Luminous efficiency of a fluorescent tube is ___
922	A poor man for his kitchen will make use of ___
923	The vapour discharge tube used for domestic lighting has ___
924	In case of ___ power factor is the power factor
925	In sodium vapour lamp the function of the leak transformer is ___
926	The purpose of coating the fluorescent tube from inside with ___
927	Carbon arc lamps are commonly used in ___
928	Filament lamps operate normally at a power factor of ___
929	The level of illumination on a ___
930	Sky appears blue because of ___
931	A substance which change its electrical resistance when ___
932	___ does not have separate choke
933	A reflector is provided to ___
934	The colour of sodium vapour discharge lamp is ___
935	The unit of luminous flux is ___
936	Choose the correct statements from the following?
937	The tungsten filament lamps when compared with fluorescent tubes have ___
938	Due to which of the following reasons the light of a tube appears cooler than that of a bulb?
939	The gas filled in vacuum filament lamps is ___
940	In electric discharge lamps light is ___
941	The function of capacitor across the supply to ___
942	Filament lamp at starting will take ____
943	The illumination is directly proportional to the cosine of ___
944	A solid angle is expressed in terms of ___
945	When a fluorescent lamp is to be operated on ___
946	When an electric bulb is broken it produces bang, this is ___
947	Which gas can be filled in GLS lamps?
948	For normal reading the illumination level required is ___
949	___ cannot sustain much voltage fluctuations
950	In houses the illumination is in ___
951	Illumination of one lumen per square metre is ___
952	In incandescent lamps, coiled coil filaments are ___
953	Which of the following is present inside the fluorescent tube?
954	Which of the following applications does not need ultraviolet lamps?
955	In case of ___
956	In the fluorescent tube circuit the function of choke is ___
957	For the same power output ___
958	Which of the following is not the standard rating of GLS lamps?
959	Colour of light depends upon ___
960	In fluorescent tubes ballast resistance is connected in ___
961	Glare is reduced by ___
962	The flicker effect of fluorescent lamps is ___
963	___ is a cold cathode lamp
964	For the same lumen output, the running cost of ___
965	Which of the following lamps is the cheapest for the same wattage?
966	Candela is the unit of which of the following?
967	In sodium vapour lamp neon gas ___
968	Co-efficient of utilisation depends upon ___
969	Which of the following bulbs operates on least power?
970	For precision work the illumination ‘level required is of ___
971	Which of the following instruments is used for the comparison of candle powers of different sources?
972	In lighting circuit using filament lamps 1% voltage drop results ___
973	What percentage of the input energy is radiated by filament lamps?
974	Two 300 μH coils in series without mutual coupling have a ___
975	A conductor carries 125 amperes of current under ___
976	In case all the flux from the current in ___
977	Which of the following circuit elements will oppose the change in circuit current?
978	The direction of induced e.m.f. can be found by ___
979	The property of coil by which a counter e.m.f. is induced in it ___
980	Lenz’s law is a consecluence of the law of ___
981	Two coils have self-inductances of 10 H and 2 H, the ___
982	In case of an inductance, current is ___
983	If current in a conductor increases then according to ___
984	As per Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction, an e.m.f. is ___
985	A coil induces 350 mV when the current changes at ___
986	A conductor 2 metres long moves at right angles to ___
987	A 200 turn coil has an inductance of ___
988	Which of the following is not a unit of inductance?
989	Both the number of turns and the core length of an inductive coil are ___
990	Which of the following inductor will have the least eddy current losses?
991	Two coils have inductances of 8 mH and 18 mH and a co-efficient of ___
992	The law that the induced e.m.f. and current always oppose the ___
993	A coil is wound on iron core which carries ___
994	A 500 turns solenoid develops an average induced voltage of ___
995	The self inductances of two coils are ___
996	The co-efficient of self-inductance for a coil is ___
997	In an iron cored coil the iron core is removed so that the coil becomes an ___
998	An average voltage of 10 V is induced in a 250 turns solenoid as ___
999	The core of a coil has a length of ___
1000	A laminated iron core has reduced eddy-current losses because ___
1001	A crack in the magnetic path of an inductor will result in ___
1002	The co-efficient of coupling between two ___
1003	An e.m.f. of 16 volts is induced in a coil of ___
1004	Mutually inductance between two magnetically coupled coils depends on ___
1005	The inductance of a coil will increase under all ___
1006	Which circuit element(s) will oppose the change in circuit current?
1007	A coil with negligible resistance has 50 V across it ___
1008	Which of the following is unit of inductance?
1009	The magnitude of the induced e.m.f. in a conductor depends on ___
1010	Which of the following circuit element stores energy in the electromagnetic field?
1011	Current changing from 8 A to 12 A in one second induced 20 volts in ___
1012	Find the force acting on a conductor 3m long carrying a current of 50 amperes at ___
1013	For a purely inductive circuit which of the following is true?
1014	Air-core coils are practically free from ___
1015	Potential difference across a capacitor of ___
1016	When the plate area of a parallel plate capacitor is increased keeping the ___
1017	Two electrons moving parallel to each other at the same velocity will ___
1018	The relation between the breakdown voltage V and the thickness ___
1019	The capacitor charged up to 5 ms, as per the current profile given in the figure, is ___
1020	The relation between electric polarization and susceptibility indicates ___
1021	The electric field intensity at a point situated at a distanced from ___
1022	A condenser suitable for D.C. only is ___
1023	To prevent the generation of static charges on rubber or ___
1024	The minimum value of potential gradient in a cable occurs in
1025	The condensers of 20 μF and 40 μF capacitance are connected in ___
1026	For a good 0.05 μF capacitor ohmmeter reading should ___
1027	The capacitance between two plates increases with ___
1028	The time constant and R-C circuit may also be defined as ___
1029	___ is that property of a capacitor which delays any change of voltage across it
1030	The direction of the lines of force at any point is the direction along which a ___
1031	An equipotential surface is one which has all points at ___
1032	The area of plates of the parallel plate capacitor, to obtain capacity of ___
1033	The units of volume charge density are ___
1034	The breakdown voltage for paper capacitors is ___
1035	The capacitor preferred for high frequency circuits is ___
1036	A capacitor in a circuit became hot and ultimately exploded due to ___
1037	When a dielectric slab is introduced in a parallel plate capacitor, the ___
1038	Which of the following materials has the highest value of dielectric constant?
1039	Voltage applied across a ceramic dielectric produces an ___
1040	The ability of charged bodies to exert force on one another is ___
1041	The force between two charges is ___
1042	When a dielectric is placed in an ___
1043	A region around a stationary electric charge ___
1044	A potential of 400 V is applied to a capacitor, the plates of ___
1045	An uncharged conductor is placed near a ___
1046	One volt is the same as ___
1047	The time constant of an R-C circuit is defined as the ___
1048	The property of a capacitor to store electricity is ___
1049	Electric intensity at any point in an electric field is equal to ___
1050	___ capacitors are used for audio frequency and radio frequency coupling
1051	The electrostatic force between two charges of ___
1052	Which of the following capacitors will have the least value of breakdown voltage?
1053	While checking a good 0.05 μF capacitor by ohmmeter, its ___
1054	With steady D.C. voltage from a battery applied to a ___
1055	Which of the following statements with capacitors is wrong?
1056	A capacitor charged to 200 V has ___
1057	In a capacitive circuit ___
1058	The unit of polarization is the same as ___
1059	In a capacitor the electric charge is stored in ___
1060	Which of the following statement(s) is/are valid in case of conductors in ___
1061	If AC. voltage is applied to capacitive circuit, the alternating current can ___
1062	The electric field inside a perfectly conducting media is ___
1063	An electrolytic capacitor can be ___
1064	A field line and an equipotential surface are ___
1065	The mass of an electron is ___
1066	Which is the most superior dielectric out of the following?
1067	While testing a capacitor with ohmmeter, if the capacitor shows ___
1068	If a third equal and similar charge is placed between two ___
1069	Three capacitors each of breakdown voltage 500 V are ___
1070	A variable capacitor of 100 μF carries a charge of ___
1071	On a conducting surface boundary, electric field lines are ___
1072	Out of the following capacitors of identical rating which one will have the smallest dimensions?
1073	Fields are said to be circularly polarized if ___
1074	1 volt/metre is same as ___
1075	Two copper spheres A (hollow) and B (solid) are of ___
1076	In a cable capacitor, voltage gradient is maximum at ___
1077	Across the surface of ___
1078	The relation between the breakdown voltage V and the thickness (t) of ___
1079	___ at a point may be defined as equal to the lines of force passing normally
1080	The relative permittivity has the ___
1081	A single core cable used of 33000 V has ___
1082	___ capacitors are used in transistor circuits
1083	For closer tolerances which of the following capacitors is usually preferred?
1084	Which of the following material has least value of dielectric constant?
1085	When 4 volts e.m.f is applied across ___
1086	The unit of capacitance is ___
1087	Which of the following expression is correct for electric field strength?
1088	Two plates of a parallel plate capacitor after being charged from ___
1089	A dielectric material must be ___
1090	The direction of electric field due to ___
1091	A ceramic and a mica capacitor have the ___
1092	When a capacitor undergoes a ___
1093	The force of attraction or repulsion between ___
1094	In order to remove static electricity from ___
1095	Voltage applied across a dielectric produces an ___
1096	Which medium has the least dielectric strength?
1097	Dielectric strength ___
1098	The value of E within the field due to a point charge can be ___
1099	The total deficiency or excess of electrons in ___
1100	A capacitor having capacitance of 5 μF is charged to ___
1101	___ capacitors can be used only for D.C
1102	Paper capacitors usually have a tolerance of ___
1103	A mica capacitor and a ceramic capacitor both have the ___
1104	Air capacitors are generally available in ___
1105	The power dissipated in a pure capacitor is ___
1106	A conducting body has surface charge density of ___
1107	If three 10 μF capacitors are connected in parallel, the ___
1108	The electric field at a point situated at ___
1109	If a current of 2 A passes through a lamp for 200 seconds, the number of ___
1110	In a multilayer dielectric material on either side of ___
1111	A capacitance is a circuit component that opposes the ___
1112	A positive and a negative charge are ___
1113	An, electrolytic capacitor is generally made to ___
1114	Paper condenser is ___
1115	A capacitance of ___
1116	What will happen to an insulating medium if ___
1117	The unit of dielectric strength is ___
1118	The unit of electric instensity is ___
1119	___ field is associated with the capacitor
1120	___ capacitors are mainly used for radio frequency tuning
1121	What is the value of capacitance that must be connected in ___
1122	The relative permittivity of free space is ___
1123	A paper capacitor is usually available in the form of ___
1124	In the case of a lossy capacitor, its series equivalent resistance value will be ___
1125	For which of the following parameter variation, the capacitance of ___
1126	Electric field inside a hollow metallic charged sphere is ___
1127	If three 15 μF capacitors are connected in ___
1128	The line of force due to charged particles are ___
1129	If C be the capacitance, V be the potential difference and ___
1130	If the dielectric of a capacitor is replaced by ___
1131	Which of the following capacitor is preferred in case of single phase motor?
1132	Which of the following medium will have highest value of relative permittivity?
1133	Which of the following capacitors preferred for high frequency circuits?
1134	The presence of an uncharged conductor near ___
1135	If an ohmmeter reading immediately goes practically to ___
1136	___ at a point is equal to the negative potential gradient at that point
1137	The number of Faraday tubes of flux passing through a ___
1138	The potential gradient across the material of ___
1139	The dielectric constant (relative permittivity) of ___
1140	Which of the following capacitors can be used for temperature compensation?
1141	For removing static charge from ___
1142	Which capacitor will be physically smaller for the same ratings?
1143	In a cable capacitor, voltage gradient is ___
1144	The absolute permittivity of free, space is ___
1145	A gang condenser is a ___
1146	Two spheres of ___
1147	The sparking between two electrical contacts can be ___
1148	Coulomb’ s law for the force between electric charges most ___
1149	Three capacitors each of ___
1150	Two metal plates distance ‘d’ apart form ___
1151	The units of capacitance are ___
1152	Electric intensity (E) at any point in an electric field is ___
1153	In case of lossy capacitor, its series equivalent resistance value will be ___
1154	Dielectric strength of a medium is ___
1155	Pick the correct statements?
1156	Which of the following capacitors is marked for polarity?
1157	If a 6 iF capacitor is charged to 200 V, the charge in ___
1158	Which of the following capacitors has relatively shorter shelf life?
1159	The total electric flux through any closed surface surrounding charges is ___
1160	Electric flux in coulombs emanating from any surface of ___
1161	For making a capacitor, it is better to ___
1162	The electric field intensity at a point situated 4 metres from ___
1163	Internal heating of a capacitor is ___
1164	A variable capacitance is ___
1165	A charge which when placed in vacuum from ___
1166	Which of the following capacitors will have least energy stored in it?
1167	The bridge used for the measurement of the value of ___
1168	A capacitor consists of ___
1169	The surface integral of normal component of ___
1170	The phenomenon of an uncharged body getting charged merely by ___
1171	The inverse of capacitance is ___
1172	The value of dielectric constant for vacuum is ___
1173	Energy density in a static electric field is ___
1174	While testing a capacitor with ohm. metre, if ___
1175	The ratio of electric flux density to electric field intensity is ___
1176	Capacitance increases with ___
1177	The dissipation factor of a good dielectric is ___
1178	Which of the following is not a vector?
1179	A capacitor stores 0.24 coulombs at ___
1180	As per Coulomb’s law ___
1181	In a capacitor, the electric charge is ___
1182	A capacitor having a capacitance of 40 μF is ___
1183	Dielectric strength of ___
1184	The ohmmeter reading for a short circuited capacitor is ___
1185	The capacitance G is charged through a ___
1186	The capacitance of a capacitor is ___
1187	In a concentric cable capacitor the diameters of ___
1188	Electric displacement is a ___
1189	It was suggested by ___ that the electric field should be imagined
1190	If three capacitors C1, C2 and C3 of values of ___
1191	The surface integral of the normal component of ___
1192	Dielectric constant for mica is ___
1193	The capacity of capacitor bank used in power factor correction is ___
1194	Which of the following capacitors will have the least variation?
1195	If the sheet of a bakelite is inserted between the plates of ___
1196	Two capacitors each having capacitance C and ___
1197	The value of one Farad in ___
1198	Capacity of a parallel plate condensor can be ___
1199	The potential gradient at which the dielectric of ___
1200	Check the correct relation ___
1201	The capacity of a spherical conductor is ___
1202	The energy of a charged capacitor resides in ___
1203	Putting the plates of a charged capacitor apart ___
1204	A glass slab is put within the plates of ___
1205	The dissipation factor of good dielectric is of ___
1206	The electric field between the two spheres of ___
1207	An electric dipole is placed in an electric field generated by a ___
1208	The electric potential due to an electric dipole of ___
1209	Two conductors having the same type of charges are connected by ___
1210	Electric potential at the centre of a charged conductor is ___
1211	Inside a charge hollow conducting sphere, potential will be ___
1212	The point charges Q and 2Q are placed at a ___
1213	A large sphere P of radius R is ___
1214	A hollow sphere of charge does not produce an ___
1215	Equal charges are given to two spheres of ___
1216	The equipotential line due to ___
1217	A positively charged glass rod attracts an ___
1218	A soap bubble is given a negative charge then its ___
1219	The electric potential at the surface of ___
1220	A charge q is divided into two ___
1221	The electric potential due to an electric dipole at ___
1222	For induction motors requiring speed control or ___
1223	The diameter of commutator generally lies ___
1224	Which of the following methods may be adopted to reduce the effects of armature reaction?
1225	The weight of copper of both armature and ___
1226	Which of the following in an application of D.C. motors?
1227	The space factor depends on all of ___
1228	The yoke of a D.C. motor is generally made of ___
1229	The ratio of magnetising current to ideal short circuit current is ___
1230	The harmonic fields are produced due to which of the following?
1231	For 275 kV transformers, using cold rolled grain ___
1232	Multi-layer helical windings are commonly used in ___
1233	The winding where dummy coils are used is ___
1234	The value of exciting or magnetizing current depends upon which of the following factors?
1235	The resistivity of water should not be ___
1236	The density of hydrogen is ___
1237	Electrical machines having power outputs ranging from ___
1238	Which of the following is the major consideration to evolve a good design?
1239	The number of poles in D.C. machines is ___
1240	Large values of air gap flux density can be ___
1241	The cost of an induction motor as compared to that of ___
1242	In case of phase wound induction motors the ___
1243	Which of the following, primarily, determines the magnetizing current drawn by three phase induction motor?
1244	It is a common practice to use deep bar rotors when ___
1245	In a D.C. generator the number of commutator segments is ___
1246	The operation of a D.C. machine with large air gap lengths is ___
1247	Which of the following problem arises in D.C. motors which are fed from thyristor bridge circuits?
1248	The surge phenomenon is particularly important in case of ___
1249	The usual values of maximum flux densities for ___
1250	Helical windings are used in ___
1251	The distance between the starts of two consecutive coils measured in ___
1252	The slot leakage can be calculated by making which of the following assumptions?
1253	With direct water cooling it is possible to have ratings of ___
1254	Which of the following is an advantage of hydrogen cooling?
1255	___ has a low relative permeability and is used principally in field frames when cost
1256	Electrical machines having a power output upto ___
1257	___ impose limitation on design
1258	Tap changing facility is generally provided on ___
1259	____ of lots are generally used in induction motors
1260	In case of electrical machines, the intermittent rating as ___
1261	A semi-enclosed slot gives ___
1262	Which of the following factors should be considered when estimating the length of air gap?
1263	The great majority of present day induction motors are ___
1264	The conductors for large sizes of D.C. machines are ___
1265	In D.C. machines, the ___
1266	___ is the common method of applying brushes to the commentator
1267	The cylindrical windings using circular conductors are ___
1268	Cylindrical windings using circular conductors, employed in ___
1269	___ are always double layer type
1270	By which of the following methods the temperature rise of windings and other parts may be determines?
1271	In direct cooled system using hydrogen both stator and ___
1272	Multiple inlet system of air cooling of turbo-alternators can be used for ___
1273	Materials exhibiting zero value of resistivity are known as ___
1274	The length of air gap to be provided in ____ is primarily determined by power factor
1275	Transformer oil should have ___
1276	The slip rings of wound rotor machines are made of ___
1277	A wire of ___
1278	In an induction motor, closed slots are ___
1279	Due to which of the following, harmonic fields are produced?
1280	Frames of electrical machines are used to serve which of the following purposes?
1281	D.C. windings are ___
1282	In D.C. machines, in order to prevent excessive distortion of ___
1283	Which of the following brushes can be used for high values of current density?
1284	The insulation between windings and grounded core and ___
1285	The voltage control in electric supply networks in required on account of which of the following reasons?
1286	The cold rolled grain oriented steel has ___
1287	When the two coil sides forming a coil are ___
1288	Which of the following methods is most accurate?
1289	Machines cooled by direct cooling method may be ___
1290	Which of the following methods is used for air cooling of turbo-alternators?
1291	Which of the following materials is used in the manufacture of resistance grids to ___
1292	In ___ machines, the size of the shaft is decided by the critical speed
1293	Short time rating machines have ___
1294	Which of the following limits the output of a rotating electrical machine?
1295	The transformer ID nise is mainly due to ___
1296	Current density in the rotor bars of an induction motor may be ___
1297	The flux density in the stator core of an induction motor should not ___
1298	On which of the following factors, does the brush friction loss depend?
1299	In D.C. machines the number of ___
1300	D.C. machines designed with a large value of ___
1301	___ brushes are fragile and cause excessive wear of commutator
1302	A practical formula for determining the thickness of ___
1303	The flash point of transformer oil should be ___
1304	Yokes with rectangular cross-section are ___
1305	The design of electromagnets is based upon which of the following fundamental equations?
1306	Which of the following methods does not take into account the ___
1307	___ cooling is the process of dissipating the armature and field winding losses to
1308	On which of the following variables heat convected depends?
1309	Aluminium when adopted as a conductor material in ___
1310	In induction motors, the length of air gap in kept as ___
1311	Flame proof motors are used in ___
1312	Turbo-alternators have ___
1313	Which loss occurs in the yoke of a D.C. machine?
1314	Which of the following methods is used for reduction/elimination of harmonic torques?
1315	In general, the ratio of core length to pole pitch, in ___
1316	The area of each individual brush should be ___
1317	In D.C. machines the usual limit of ___
1318	In D.C. machines the width of the duct is ___
1319	___ is usually used for brush rockers
1320	Which of the following is the basic consideration in the design of insulation?
1321	The forced oil and air circulation method is ___
1322	In transformers using hot rolled steel, the cross-section of ___
1323	___ are used for construction of core of electromagnets
1324	The design of mechanical parts is particularly important in ___
1325	By which of the following methods motor rating for variable load drives can be determined?
1326	The noise produced by a ___
1327	The increase in heat dissipation by air blasts is ___
1328	___ is universally used for windings of electrical machines
1329	The design of mechanical parts is particularly important in case of ___
1330	The electric motor provided on refrigerators is ___
1331	A synchronous machine with large length of ___
1332	The regulation of a transformer is least affected by ___
1333	If the number of rotor slots is equal to the number of ___
1334	For a normal design of an induction motor, the diameter should be ___
1335	The thickness of brush should be so selected that it ___
1336	In a D.C. machine, the value of ___
1337	The laminations of the armature of a D.C. machine are ___
1338	The high voltage winding is usually which of the following type?
1339	Transformers with a capacity of ___
1340	The change in flux linkages can be caused in which of the following ways?
1341	If an insulating material is operated beyond the ___
1342	A short time intermittent rating of electric motors is ___
1343	The use of salient poles on high speed alternators will ___
1344	If the frequency is changed without altering the number of ___
1345	Power transformers should be designed to ___
1346	Which of the following is the commonly used type of electroinagnets?
1347	In self cooled motors the cooling time constant is ___
1348	With conventional hydrogen cooling it is possible to ___
1349	The heat dissipated by from a surface depends upon its ___
1350	The number of stator slots should ___
1351	The air gap of an induction motor is made as ___
1352	Pitch of commutator segment should not be ___
1353	In a D.C. machine the current per brush arm should not be ___
1354	The stator of a D.C. machine comprises of ___
1355	A current density of ___
1356	The heat dissipating capability of transformers of ratings higher than ___
1357	Power transformers have ___
1358	___ electromagnets generally function as holding magnets
1359	The time taken by the machine to attain 0.632 of its ___
1360	The thermal conductivity of hydrogen is ___
1361	The heated parts of an electrical machine dissipate heat into their surroundings by ___
1362	The action of electromagnetic machines can be related to which of the following basic principles?
1363	The efficiency of a machine should be as ___
1364	The shafts of electric motors is generally supported in
1365	Arc welding transformer is ___
1366	A large value of short-circuit current indicates ___
1367	A 3-phase winding carrying sinusoidal currents produces harmonics of ___
1368	The slip rings for wound rotor machines are made of ___
1369	The higher commutator peripheral speeds ___
1370	In a D.C. machine the number of brush arms ___
1371	D.C. servomotors are used in ___
1372	For large power transformers, self oil cooled type or air blast type which of the following values af current density may be used?
1373	Disc windings are primarily used in ___
1374	Dummy coil should not be ___
1375	Tractive magnets are operated from ___
1376	Direct water cooling of rotor winding presents ___
1377	Hydrogen has a heat transfer co-efficient ___
1378	Hot rolled sheets have ___
1379	Commercial available medium size machines have a speed range of ___
1380	Electric arc welding process produces temperature upto ___
1381	The ideal core material for small reactors and transformers employed in ___
1382	For ferro-magnetic materials the ___
1383	Ferro-electric materials are the dielectrics analogous to ___
1384	When the temperature exceeds a certain value called the ___
1385	Which of the following kind of breakdown is possible in solid dielectrics?
1386	Dielectrics have ___
1387	Electronegative gases are ___
1388	The insulating materials to be used for most of electronic equipment should ___
1389	Insulators have which of the following?
1390	Emitter arrow, in a transistor, shows the direction of ___
1391	In a semiconductor, the hole formed is ___
1392	___ is an element used in semiconductors whose atoms have three valence
1393	Effect of moisture on the insulating materials is ___
1394	The conduction of electricity, in semiconductors, takes place due to ___
1395	Which of the following is an advantage of stranded conductor over equivalent single conductor?
1396	Carbon resistors are used extensively because they are ___
1397	In graphite, bonding is ___
1398	Most of the common metals have ___
1399	In thermocouples which of the following pairs is commonly used?
1400	If the domain walls in a magnetic material can be easily moved the ___
1401	The transition temperature of mercury is ___
1402	The value of critical field below the transition temperature will ___
1403	A perfect conductor has ___
1404	If the domain walls in a magnetic material can be ___
1405	Magnetically hard materials possess which of the following characteristics?
1406	Curie temperature is the temperature above which a ___
1407	The ___ polarisation vanishes at Curie temperature of the material
1408	A ferro-electric material contains small regions which are polarised in ___
1409	Dielectric strength is expressed in ___
1410	By which of the following methods the insulation can be protected against moisture?
1411	Which of the following gases is classified as electronegative?
1412	Insulators are the materials in which valence electrons are ___
1413	In a P.N.P. transistor the collector current is ___
1414	Germanium possesses ___
1415	For a hole which of the following statements is incorrect?
1416	Which of the following factors affect resistivity of metals?
1417	Due to which of the following fact, in India, aluminium is replacing copper?
1418	Platinum is used in ___
1419	Which of the following material is not a semiconductor?
1420	Which of the following materials does not have covalent bonds?
1421	A good electric contact material should have all of ___
1422	Piezoelectric materials serve as a source of ____
1423	The conductors have transport phenomena of ___
1424	The superconductivity is due to ___
1425	The covalent bond is ___
1426	Fahy permeameter entails which of the following advantages?
1427	In carbon steels if the percentage of carbon is increased it has which of the following effects?
1428	___ is that property of material which opposes the production of magnetic flux in it
1429	Above the Curie temperature the materials have no ___
1430	If the centre of gravity of the positive and negative charges in ___
1431	The moisture absorbed by an insulating material causes which of the following?
1432	Insulating gases entail which of the following major problems?
1433	Porcelain insulators are employed for insulating terminals of ___
1434	The change of resistance in a magnetic field is ___
1435	In a P.N.P. transistor majority charge carriers are ___
1436	A pure semiconductor, under ordinary conditions, behaves like ___
1437	The current due to electron flow in conduction band is ___
1438	The forbidden gap in an insulator is ___
1439	Thermocouples are mainly used for ___
1440	Low resistivity materials are used in ___
1441	The impurity atoms is ___
1442	A carbon resistor contains ___
1443	___ is the main constituent of glass
1444	___ has zero temperature co-efficient of resistance
1445	The coils of D.C. motor starter are wound with wire of ___
1446	Superconductivity is observed for ___
1447	The co-ordination number of a simple cubic structure is ___
1448	___ is the most detrimental impurity in the magnetic materials
1449	Practically all organic substances are ___
1450	The ratio of intensity of magnetisation to magnetising force is ___
1451	The ferro-electric materials ___
1452	The dielectric susceptibility determines the value of ___
1453	The behaviour of real dielectrics is ___
1454	Which of the following is a consequence of ionisation?
1455	Which of the following effects is produced by ‘sludge’ formation?
1456	Which of the following processes is used to produce porcelain?
1457	Hall effect may be used for which of the following?
1458	When radiation is incident on a semiconductor, its ___
1459	The conductivity of an extrinsic semiconductor ___
1460	Spark plug makes use of which of the following materials for insulation?
1461	___ is the property of absorbing moisture from atmosphere
1462	Steel wire is used as ___
1463	Due to which of the following reasons aluminium does not corrode in atmosephere?
1464	Non-linear resistors ___
1465	___ is an example of piezoelectric material
1466	Which of the following is the poorest conductor of electricity?
1467	Which of the following resistive materials has the lowest temperature co-efficient of resistance?
1468	The conductivity of a conductor can be increased by ___
1469	The tiny block formed by the arrangement of a small group of ___
1470	The eddy currents produce a magnetic field of their own which ___
1471	Uniaxial anisotropy can be induced in bulk materials by which of the following methods?
1472	High-frequency transformers cores are generally made from ___
1473	In potassium Dihydrogen Phosphate the Curie points are ___
1474	Polarisation is ___
1475	The dielectric loss is affected by which of the following factors?
1476	Flash point temperature of fresh dry oil is ___
1477	The dielectric strength of asbestos is ___
1478	Photo-voltaic cells find applications in which of the following?
1479	A thermistor has ___
1480	For a particular material the Hall coefficient was ___
1481	If the resistance of a conductor does not vary in accordance with ___
1482	Which of the following materials is the best conductor of electricity?
1483	Which of the following high resistance materials has the highest operating temperature?
1484	In a crystal, an atom vibrates at a frequency determined by ___
1485	Super conductivity can be destroyed by ___
1486	Overhead telephone wires are made of ___
1487	Constantan contains ___
1488	An H.R.C. fuse is ___
1489	A highly conductive material must have ___
1490	The formula ___ determines the number of electrons that can be accommodated
1491	The value of steinmetz co-efficient k is approximately ___
1492	The spontaneous magnetisation is the most important characteristic of ___
1493	The readiness of a material to accept magnetism is ___
1494	Rochelle salt has ___
1495	The dielectric strength of gaseous dielectrics depends on which of the following factors?
1496	The dielectric losses occur in all solid and liquid dielectrics due to which of the following?
1497	Presence of even a trace of water in transformer oil ___
1498	Mica is usually avoided for slot linings of high voltage machines because its ___
1499	Thermistors possess ___
1500	In a semiconductor the resistivity decreases ___
1501	The carbon percentage is least in ___
1502	The photo-electric effect occurs only when the incident light has ___
1503	Substances whose specific resistance abruptly decreases at ___
1504	Carbon bearings are used under which of the following conditions?
1505	The resistivity of a metal is a function of ___
1506	___ is most commonly used for making magnetic recording tape
1507	Which of the following variety of copper has the best conductivity?
1508	Mercury as an electric contact material is ___
1509	The kinetic energy of a bounded electron is ___
1510	___ is a negatively charged particle present in an atom
1511	The relative magnetisation under a given field ___
1512	The permeability of iron is ___
1513	Capacitors with very high dielectric constants have been developed by ___
1514	Which of the following is a ferro-electric material?
1515	The power arc following a flashover or the breaking of contacts over the ___
1516	The value of dielectric strength is useful in which of the following?
1517	Which of the following tests is carried out on transformer oil?
1518	The dielectric strength of ___
1519	Non-linear resistors are also called ___
1520	Thermistors find use in which of the following?
1521	In conductors conduction of electricity takes place due to ___
1522	___ has the best damping properties
1523	Which of the following materials is used for making coils of standard resistances?
1524	Which of the following are non-conductors of electricity?
1525	The conductivity of a metal is ___
1526	___ is a hard solder
1527	At transition temperature the value of ___
1528	High resistivity materials are used in ___
1529	Which of the following materials is preferred for transmitting electrical energy over long distance?
1530	Which of the following factors cause magnetic ageing?
1531	___ materials have relative permeability slightly less than unity
1532	The materials having permanent electric moment are ___
1533	Which of the following is not a ferroelectric material?
1534	___ breakdown normally occurs when the temperature is very high and surrounding air has high humidity
1535	The resistivity of the insulator ___
1536	The function of insulating liquids is ___
1537	A good insulating material should possess which of the following characteristics?
1538	Conduction of heat in a semiconductor takes place in which of the following ways?
1539	The conductivity of semiconductors depends on which of the following factors?
1540	For germanium the forbidden energy gap is ___
1541	Superconducting metal in super conducting state has ___
1542	Selenium is ___
1543	Copper, even though costly, finds use in the windings of ___
1544	Due to which of the following factors the brush wear rate is altered?
1545	The number of atoms per unit cell in B.C.C. structure is ___
1546	Thermonic emission occurs in ___
1547	Carbon electrodes are not used in ___
1548	The structure sensitive property of ___
1549	Superconductors are becoming popular for ___
1550	Commonly used conducting materials are ___
1551	The converse of hardness is known as ___
1552	The magnetic domains, during the process of magnetisation of ___
1553	Alnico magnet alloys have the ___
1554	For which of the following materials the relative permeability is much greater than unity?
1555	The major use of ferro-electrics is ___
1556	Ferro-electric materials have which of the following characteristics?
1557	Which of the following conditions go a long way in causing the electrothermal breakdown of the dielectric?
1558	Dielectric materials are ___
1559	Insulation resistance ___
1560	The ionically and covalently bonded materials are ___
1561	As compared to thermionic tubes, transistors claim which of the following advantages?
1562	In ___ semiconductor, the Fermi level lies midway between the conduction
1563	The minority carrier concentration is largely a function of
1564	Surface resistance of an insulating material is reduced due to the ___
1565	Which of the following is a semiconductor material?
1566	Due to which of the following reasons copper and aluminium are not used for heating elements?
1567	Carbon rods are used in wet and ___
1568	Total number of crystal systems is ___
1569	Which of the following affect greatly the resistivity of electrical conductors?
1570	___ is viscoelastic
1571	By increasing impurity content in the ___
1572	In a superconductor the value of critical density depends upon ___
1573	The metal having the lowest temperature co-efficient of ___
1574	On which of the following factors does the resistivity of a material depend?
1575	The change in dimensions during the process of ___
1576	A SWG electrode usually operates in ___
1577	Steel pipes are manufactured by ___
1578	The tips of the electrodes, for spot welding, are ___
1579	During arc welding as the thickness of the metal to be ___
1580	Welding leads have ___
1581	Resistance welding cannot be ___
1582	During resistance welding heat produced at the joint is ___
1583	Which of the following automatic welding processes is likely to give maximum rate of metal deposition?
1584	Arc blow (a welding defect) is generally encountered in ___
1585	In electrical resistance welding the greatest resistance is offered by which of the following?
1586	In argon arc welding argon is ___
1587	Due to which of the following reasons aluminium is difficult to weld?
1588	Electronic components are joined by which of the following methods?
1589	For the welding of aluminium alloys which of the following methods would you recommend?
1590	In welding weld spatter defect is generally the result of ___
1591	The porosity of welded joint may be ___
1592	Plain and butt welds may be used on materials upto thickness of ___
1593	Helium produces which of the following?
1594	Which of the following is not an inert gas?
1595	Flux used in TIG welding is ___
1596	During carbon arc welding ___
1597	In atomic hydrogen welding the electrode is ___
1598	Motor-generator set for D.C. arc welding has ___
1599	In spot welding composition and thickness of ___
1600	Which of the following equipment is used for arc welding generally used for arc welding?
1601	In ultrasonic welding the frequency range is ___
1602	TIG welding is ___
1603	The welding of aluminium alloy entails which of the following problems?
1604	In which of the following methods of welding the molten metal is poured for joining the metals?
1605	A seamless pipe has ___
1606	In arc welding major personal hazards are ___
1607	___ welding process uses consumable electrodes
1608	Steel rails are welded by ___
1609	The welding load is ___
1610	Which of the following methods is normally not preferred for welding of chromium-molybdenum steels?
1611	During carbon arc welding if electrode is connected to ___
1612	Galvanising is a process of applying a layer of ___
1613	In seam welding ___
1614	For arc welding, D.C. is produced by which of the following?
1615	The welding electric circuit is ___
1616	Grey iron is usually welded by ___
1617	The power factor of a spot welding machine is expected to ___
1618	A percent duty cycle of a welding machine means ___
1619	Spot welding is used for ___
1620	Arc blow results in which of the following?
1621	In a welded joint poor fusion is due to which of the following?
1622	The danger of shock is ___
1623	Which of the following is not a welding accessory?
1624	___ welding is not a resistance welding process
1625	The purpose of coating on arc welding electrodes is ___
1626	For arc welding current range is ___
1627	Increased heat due to shorter arc is harmful on ___
1628	The metal surfaces for electrical resistance welding must be ___
1629	Which of the following electrodes will have least diameter?
1630	A rectifier for welding has voltage/current characteristic as ___
1631	During spot welding the current flows for ___
1632	In D.C. arc welding ___
1633	Air craft body is ___
1634	Electric arc welding process produces ___
1635	Overhead lines for power supply to tramcars are at ___
1636	In India diesel locomotives are manufactured at ___
1637	Suri transmission is ___
1638	In main line service as compared to ___
1639	Which of the following braking systems is used on steam locomotives?
1640	Which of the following is the disadvantage of electric traction over other systems of traction?
1641	The number of passanger coaches that can be attached to a ___
1642	In case of locomotives the tractive power is ___
1643	Main traction systems used in India are ___
1644	The rate of acceleration on suburban or urban service is ___
1645	In India electrification of railway track was done for the first time in ___
1646	In case of ___ free running and coasting periods are generally long
1647	Specific energy consumption becomes ___
1648	The pulsating torque exerted by steam locomotives causes which of the following?
1649	Quadrilateral speed-time curve pertains to which of the following services?
1650	The speed of a superfast train is ___
1651	Which of the following drives is suitable for mines where explosive gas exists?
1652	The speed of a locomotive is controlled by ___
1653	The braking retardation is usually in ___
1654	Power for lighting in passenger coach in ___
1655	Specific energy consumption is affected by which of the following factors?
1656	For three-phase induction motors which of the following is the least efficient method of speed control?
1657	The normal value of adhesion friction is ___
1658	Due to which of the following co-efficient of adhesion improves?
1659	The efficiency of diesel locomotives is ___
1660	In a steam locomotive electric power is ___
1661	Long distance railways use which of the following?
1662	___ watt-hours per tonne km is usually the specific energy consumption
1663	For 25 kV single phase system power supply frequency is ___
1664	___ have maximum unbalanced forces
1665	The voltage used for suburban trains in D.C. system is ___
1666	The air resistance to the movement of the train is ___
1667	Co-efficient of adhesion reduces due to the presence of which of the following?
1668	Automatic signaling is used for which of the following trains?
1669	In tramways which of the following motors is used?
1670	If the co-efficient of adhesion on dry rails is 0.26, which of the following could be the value for wet rails?
1671	___ frequency is not common in low frequency traction system
1672	An ideal traction system should have ___
1673	The value of co-efficient of adhesion will be ___
1674	The friction at the track is proportional to ___
1675	For given maximum axle load tractive efforts of A.C. locomotive will ___
1676	The wheels of a train, engine as well as bogies, are ___
1677	The overall efficiency of steam locomotive is ___
1678	Which of the following is an advantage of electric traction over other methods of traction?
1679	Which of the following methods is used to control speed of 25 kV, 50 Hz single phase traction?
1680	Energy consumption in propelling the train is required for which of the following?
1681	___ method can bring the locomotive to dead stop
1682	The specific energy consumption of a train depends on which of the following?
1683	Tractive effort is required to ___
1684	Electric locomotives in India are manufactured at ___
1685	The horsepower of steam locomotives is ___
1686	Which of the following is the voltage for single phase A.C. system?
1687	For 600 V D.C. line for tramcars track is ___
1688	For which of the following locomotives the maintenance requirements are the least?
1689	Locomotives with monometer bogies have ___
1690	When a bogie negotiates a curve, reduction in ___
1691	Battery operated trucks are used in ___
1692	The rate of acceleration on suburban or urban services is ___
1693	Which of the following braking systems on the locomotives is costly?
1694	The steam engine provided on steam locomotives is ___
1695	___ locomotive has the highest operational availability
1696	___ is the method of braking in which motor armature remains connected
1697	Which of the following happens in Kando system?
1698	Specific energy consumption is ___
1699	Series motor is not suitable for traction duty due to which of the following account?
1700	The resistance encountered by a train in motion is ___
1701	Speed-time curve of main line service differs from those of ___
1702	Which of the following is the advantage of electric braking?
1703	In case of steam engines the ___
1704	For diesel locomotives the range of horsepower is ___
1705	Which of the following track is ___
1706	In case of a steam engine an average coal consumption per km is ___
1707	The return circuit for tramcars is ___
1708	Locomotive having monomotor bogies ___
1709	Vacuum created by which of the following?
1710	Co-efficient of adhesion is ___
1711	Which of the following state capitals is not on broad gauge track?
1712	Overload capacity of diesel engines is ___
1713	For radiant heating around 2250°C, the heating elements are made of ___
1714	Radiations from proportional to ___
1715	Induction heating takes place in which of the following?
1716	The material of the heating element for a ___
1717	A perfect black body is ___
1718	Which of the following is an advantage of heating by electricity?
1719	Which of the following devices is necessarily required for automatic temperature control in a furnace?
1720	It is desirable to operate the arc furnaces at power factor of ___
1721	In an electric press mica is ___
1722	Which of the following will happen if the thickness of refractory wall of furnace is increased?
1723	Heat transfer by condition will ___
1724	___ has the highest value of thermal conductivity
1725	Radiant heating is used for which of the following?
1726	Which of the following methods is used to control temperature in resistance furnaces?
1727	In a domestic cake baking oven the temperature is ___
1728	The temperature inside a furnace is usually measured by which of the following?
1729	For the transmission of heat from one body to ___
1730	In heating the ferromagnetic material by induction heating, heat is ___
1731	Property of low temperature co-efficient of heating element is desired due to which of the following reasons?
1732	In an electric room heat convector the method of ___
1733	A non-dimensional number generally associated with ___
1734	When a body reflects entire radiation incident on it ___
1735	Hysteresis loss and eddy current loss are ___
1736	In the indirect resistance heating method, maximum heat-transfer takes place by ___
1737	Which of the following insulating materials is suitable for low temperature applications?
1738	Which of the following methods of heating is not dependent on the frequency of supply?
1739	In direct arc furnace which of the following has high value?
1740	Resistance variation method of temperature control is ___
1741	Due to which of the following reasons it is desirable to have short arc length?
1742	By the use of which of the following, high frequency power supply for induction furnaces can be obtained?
1743	Induction heating process is based on which of the following principles?
1744	___ is used for heating non-conducting materials
1745	Direct arc furnaces have which of the following power factors?
1746	In electric press, mica is used because it is ___
1747	For intermittent work which of the following furnaces is suitable?
1748	In induction heating ___
1749	Which of the following has the highest value of thermal conductivity?
1750	___ method has leading power factor
1751	The electrode of a direct arc furnace is ___
1752	Ajax Wyatt furnace is started when ___
1753	In resistance heating highest working temperature is ___
1754	By which of the following methods the temperature inside a resistance furnace can be varied?
1755	The process of heat transfer during the re-entry of satellites and missiles, at ___
1756	Which of the following heating methods has maximum power factor?
1757	Which of the following is an advantage of eddy current heating?
1758	In arc furnace the function of ___
1759	For heating element high resistivity material is ___
1760	In a resistance furnace the atmosphere is ___
1761	Heat is transferred simultaneously by ___
1762	If the tariff for electrical energy charges provides incentive by way of ___
1763	When the demand of consumers is not met by a power plant, it will resort to which of the following?
1764	Which of the following plants is almost inevitably used as base load plant?
1765	The area under daily load curve divided by ___
1766	In India production and distribution of electrical energy is ___
1767	Which of the following is not necessarily an advantage of interconnecting various power stations?
1768	Which of the following is the disadvantage of a synchronous condenser?
1769	Which of the following is not an operating cost?
1770	___ industry has the least power consumption per tonne of product
1771	___ power plant cannot have single unit of 100 MW
1772	Low power factor is usually not ___
1773	Annual depreciation of the plant is proportional to ___
1774	Diversity factor has direct effect on ___
1775	A load curve indicates ___
1776	Which of the following is the disadvantage of static capacitor for power factor improvement?
1777	Which of the following devices may be used to provide protection against lightning overvoltages?
1778	The depreciation charges in diminishing value method are ___
1779	Which of the following source of power is least reliable?
1780	The connected load of a domestic consumer is ___
1781	Base load plants usually have ___
1782	___ is invariably used for peak load
1783	___ offers the highest electric load
1784	___ power plant is expected to have the longest life
1785	Which of the following should be used for extinguishing electrical fires?
1786	Annual instalment towards depreciation reduces as rate of ___
1787	High load factor indicates ___
1788	Load factor of a power station is ___
1789	When a plant resorts to load shedding it can be ___
1790	Which lightning stroke is most dangerous?
1791	Major share of power produced in India is ___
1792	Power generation cost reduces as ___
1793	In a load curve the highest point ___
1794	For the same maximum demand, if load factor is decreased, the cost of ___
1795	Static capacitors are rated in ___
1796	In which of the following power plants the maintenance cost is usually high?
1797	Generating capacity connected to the bus bars and ready to ___
1798	A nuclear power plant is invariably used as a ___
1799	Which of the following is not a source of power?
1800	Maximum demand on a power plant is ___
1801	The area under a load curve gives ___
1802	Demand factor is defined as ___
1803	Load shedding is done to ___
1804	The effect of electric shock on human body depends on ___
1805	For cooling of large size generators hydrogen is ___
1806	The efficiency of a plant is of least concern when it is ___
1807	The expected useful life of an hydroelectric power station is ___
1808	___ will be least affected due to charge in supply voltage frequency
1809	In a distribution system, in order to improve power factor, the ___
1810	For which of the following power plants highly skilled engineers are required for running the plants?
1811	___ is the reserved generating capacity available for service under emergency
1812	Air will not be the working substance in which of the following?
1813	A low utilization factor for a plant indicates that ___
1814	Annual operating expenditure of a power plant consists of ___
1815	Which plant can never have 100 percent load factor?
1816	Depreciation charges are high in ___
1817	The knowledge of diversity factor helps in ___
1818	An alternator coupled to a ___
1819	A 130 MW generator is usually ___
1820	For any type of consumer the ideal tariff is ___
1821	Generators for peak load plants are usually designed for ___
1822	Which of the following is the disadvantage due to low power factor?
1823	Which of the following power plants need the least period for installation?
1824	The increased load during summer months is ___
1825	Efficiency is the secondary consideration in which of the following plants?
1826	Direct conversion of heat into electric power is ___
1827	Load curve of a power plant has ___
1828	In Hopknison demand rate or two part tariff the ___
1829	Annual depreciation cost is calculated by ___
1830	Which of the following are not repayable after a stipulated period?
1831	Submarines for underwater movement, are powered by which of the following?
1832	Maximum demand tariff is generally not applied to ___
1833	Which of the following is an advantage of static capacitor for power factor improvement?
1834	For a diesel generating station the useful life is ___
1835	In an interconnected system, the diversity factor of ___
1836	An induction motor has relatively high power factor at ___
1837	In case of ___ fuel transportation is the major problem
1838	Which of the following equipment provides fluctuating load?
1839	During load shedding ___
1840	___ can generate power at unpredictable or uncontrolled times
1841	Load curve is useful in deciding the ___
1842	In two part tariff, variation in load factor will ___
1843	The load factor of domestic load is ___
1844	A company can raise funds through
1845	The least share of power is provided in India, by which of the following power plants?
1846	An over excited synchronous motor on no-load is ___
1847	Most efficient plants are normally used as ___
1848	For a power plant which of the following constitutes running cost?
1849	By the use of which of the following power factor can be improved?
1850	In a power plant if the maximum demand on the plant is equal to ___
1851	In ___ fuel transportation cost is least
1852	Which of the following place is not associated with nuclear power plants in India?
1853	Load curve helps in ___
1854	Power plant having maximum demand more than the installed rated capacity will ___
1855	A consumer has to pay lesser fixed charges in ___
1856	Load factor for heavy industries maybe taken as ___
1857	In power plants insurance cover is provided for which of the following?
1858	For the same cylinder dimensions and speed, which of the following engine will produce least power?
1859	The primary reason for low power factor is supply system is due to installation of
1860	___ public sector undertaking is associated with erection
1861	A synchronous condenser is virtually which of the following?
1862	Large capacity generators are ___
1863	___ is invariably used as base load plant
1864	Direct conversion of heat into electrical energy is ___
1865	Salvage value of the plant is ___
1866	Which of the following generating station has minimum running cost?
1867	Annual depreciation as per straight line method, is ___
1868	Diversity factor is ___
1869	Anything having some heat value can be used as ___
1870	Load shedding is possible through which of the following?
1871	Which of the following component, in a steam power plant needs maximum maintenance attention?
1872	For a consumer the most economical power factor is ___
1873	Which of the following is the essential requirement of peak load plant?
1874	With reference to a power station which of the following is not a fixed cost?
1875	Which of the following, in a thermal power plant, is not a fixed cost?
1876	Ships are generally powered by ___
1877	For high value of diversity factor, a power station of ___
1878	Following power plant has instant starting ___
1879	Approximate estimation of power demand can be ___
1880	While using electricity and paying the ___
1881	Which of the following characteristics of electrons determines the current in a conductor?
1882	When there is an electric current through a conducting wire along its ___
1883	Through a metallic conductor an electric current is ___
1884	Two bulbs 100 W, 250 V and 200 W, 250 V are connected in ___
1885	A steady current flows in a metallic conductor of ___
1886	The equivalent resistance in series combination is ___
1887	An electron charge (e) is revolving in a circular orbit of ___
1888	The length of a conductor is ___
1889	Which of the following has negative temperature coefficient of resistance?
1890	Water is an excellent solvent because its ___
1891	The electric field at a point on equatorial line of a dipole, and the ___
1892	Identify the set in which all the three materials are good conductors of ___
1893	When subjected to a transverse electric field, cathode rays ___
1894	An isolated conducting sphere is given a ___
1895	A region surrounding a stationary electric dipole has ___
1896	If a very flexible wire is laid out in the shape of a hair pin with its ___
1897	Two wires A and B of the same material and ___
1898	Two heaters, rated at 1000 W, 250 V each are connected in ___
1899	The condition for the validity of Ohm’ s law is ___
1900	Four 100 W bulbs are connected in parallel across ___
1901	The flow of electric current in a conductor is due to flow of ___
1902	For a fixed supply voltage the current flowing through a conductor will ___
1903	Which of the following statements is incorrect?
1904	Two incandescent light bulbs of 40 W and 60 W rating are connected in ___
1905	“The total electric flux through any ___
1906	Correct form of ___
1907	When an electric current flows through a conductor, its ___
1908	A 100 watt light bulb burns on an average of 10 hours a day for ___
1909	When a voltage of one volt is applied, a circuit allows one microampere current to ___
1910	Which ofthe following lamps will have least resistance at room temperature?
1911	Which of the following could be th value of resistivity of copper?
1912	Bulbs in street Lighting are all connected in ___
1913	Whether circuit may be AC. or D.C. one, following is most effective in ___
1914	A 500 W, 220 V bulb is supplied with ___
1915	The rating of a fuse wire is always expressed in ___
1916	The substances which have a large number of free electrons and offer a ___
1917	The flow of current in solids is ___
1918	If I, R and t are the current, resistance and time respectively, then ___
1919	According to the fuse law, the current carrying capacity varies as ___
1920	1 microvolt is ___
1921	Resistance of carbon filament lamp ___
1922	A glass rod when rubbed with silk cloth is ___
1923	A 40 W bulb is connected in series with a ___
1924	All of the following are equivalent to ___
1925	Electric pressure is also ___
1926	The resistance of human body is ___
1927	Three conductances in parallel have the ___
1928	A nichrome wire used as a heater coil has the resistance of ___
1929	A substance whose molecules consist of dissimilar atoms is ___
1930	When electric current passes through a bucket full of water, lot of bubbling is ___
1931	If Two bulbs of 500W and 200 W rated at 250 V will have ___
1932	The thickness of insulation provided on the conductor depends on ___
1933	The electrical conductivity of metals is ___
1934	Which is the best conductor of electricity?
1935	An electrical lamp consumes 100 W of ___
1936	The number of electrons in the outermost orbit of ___
1937	A field of force can exist only between ___
1938	In the case of direct current ___
1939	When electric current passes through a metallic conductor, its ___
1940	The insulation on a current carrying conductor is ___
1941	Ohm’s law is not applicable to ___
1942	The maximum current rating for a 10 kω, 0.5 W resistor is ___
1943	The ratio of mass of proton to that of electron is ___
1944	Three 6 ohm resistors are connected to form a ___
1945	When resistance element of a heater fuses and then we reconnect it ___
1946	Resistance of 220 V, 100 W lamp will be ___
1947	If the efficiency of a machine is to be high, what should be low?
1948	The hot resistance of the bulb’s filament is higher than its ___
1949	Which of the following statement is true both for a series and a parallel D.C. circuit?
1950	One newton metre is same as ___
1951	All good conductors have ___
1952	Which method can be used for absolute measurement of resistances?
1953	Copper wire of certain length and resistance is drawn out to ___
1954	Two lamps 100 W and 40 W are connected in ___
1955	Electric current passing through the ___
1956	The four bulbs of 40 W each are connected in series with a ___
1957	The electrical energy required to heat a bucket of water to ___
1958	1 angstrom is equal to ___
1959	Which of the following one is correct?
1960	Which of the following relation is incorrect?
1961	Sparking occurs when a load is switched off because the circuit has ___
1962	In a lamp load when more than one lamp are ___
1963	Resistance of a tungsten lamp ___
1964	Three 60W bulbs are in parallel across the ___
1965	In gases the flow of current is ___
1966	An instrument which detects electric current is ___
1967	One coulomb charge equals the charge on ___
1968	Conductance : mho :: ___
1969	The condition for the validity under Ohm’s law is ___
1970	Three identical resistors are first connected in parallel and ___
1971	Switching of a lamp in house produces noise in ___
1972	When one leg of parallel circuit is opened out the ___
1973	If a parallel circuit is opened in the main line, the ___
1974	The property of a conductor due to which it passes current is called ___
1975	Which of the following can have negative temperature coefficient?
1976	When current flows through heater coil it glows but ___
1977	International ohm is defined in terms of the resistance of ___
1978	For testing appliances, the wattage of test lamp should be ___
1979	It becomes more difficult to ___
1980	In an electric kettle water boils in ___
1981	The minimum charge on an ion is ___
1982	Out of the following which is not a poor conductor?
1983	As the temperature of hot junction increases, the ___
1984	The thermo electric power at the neutral temperature is ___
1985	The Thomson coefficient for lead is ___
1986	What is thermoelectric power?
1987	The unit of Peltier coefficient is ___
1988	What is the name of graph between temperature and thermo emf.?
1989	The dimensions of the emf of a source of ___
1990	Which of the following is not reversible?
1991	What is the nature of graph between temperature and thermoelectric power?
1992	The thermocouple can not act as ___
1993	Seebeck effect is inverse of ___
1994	What is converted into heat when current is set up through a conductor?
1995	The electrons revolve around the nucleus with ___
1996	The quantity in electricity analogous to friction in linear mechanical motion is ___
1997	How may 200 W/220 V incandescent lamps connected in ___
1998	Electric current is a ___
1999	The thermal speed of electrons is of the order of ___
2000	The electric current in a liquid is due to the flow of ___
2001	The fuse-wire is made of ___
2002	The conductivity of a super-conductor is ___
2003	Poor power factor results in all of the following ___
2004	The dual of a loop is ___
2005	Higher the Q of a series circuit ___
2006	When an alternating current passes through an ohmic resistance the ___
2007	For the full wave rectified sine wave the r.m.s. value is ___
2008	In A.C. circuit laminated iron is invariably used in ___
2009	In a circuit containing R, L and C, power loss can ___
2010	All the rules and laws of D.C. circuit also supply to A.C. circuit containing ___
2011	How much r.m.s. current does a 300 W. 200V bulb take from the 200 V, 50 Hz power line?
2012	The r.m.s. value and mean value is the same in the case of ___
2013	The capacitors for power factor correction are rated in terms of ___
2014	Two sinusoidal quantities are said to be phase quadrature, when ___
2015	A coil with large distributed capacitance has a ___
2016	A resonance curve for a series circuit is a plot of ___
2017	The unit of frequency of an A.C. signal is ___
2018	In an A.C. circuit, a low value of kVAR compared with ___
2019	In a pure resistive circuit ___
2020	Inductance affects the direct current flow ___
2021	A sine wave of voltage varies from zero to ___
2022	The power consumed in a circuit element will be least when the phase difference between ___
2023	The form factor is the ratio of ___
2024	Which of the following is not a non-linear element?
2025	The product of apparent power and cosine of the phase angle between ___
2026	The power is measured in terms of decibles in case of ___
2027	The safest value of current the human body can carry for ___
2028	The power factor at resonance in RLC parallel circuit is ___
2029	For 200 V r.m.s. value triangular wave, the peak voltage will be ___
2030	Two waves of the same frequency have opposite phase when the ___
2031	A network is said to be non-linear if ___
2032	The power factor of a D.C. circuit is always ___
2033	At ___ frequencies the parallel R-L circuit behaves as purely resistive
2034	If resistance is 20 ω and inductance is 2H in a RL series circuit, then ___
2035	The transient currents are associated with the ___
2036	The best place to install a capacitor is ___
2037	For a sine wave with peak value ___
2038	The voltage of domestic supply is ___
2039	The shunt element of prototype high pass filter is ___
2040	Ohm is the unit of all of the following except ___
2041	The time constant of a series R-C circuit is given by ___
2042	The double energy transient occur in the ___
2043	In a series resonant circuit, the impedance of ___
2044	Form factor for a sine wave is ___
2045	The r.m.s. value of a sine wave is ___
2046	The power factor of incandescent bulb is ___
2047	In A.C. circuit the power curve is ___
2048	The r.m.s. value of pure cosine function is ___
2049	At very low frequencies a series R-C circuit behaves as ___
2050	In a R-L-C series circuit if voltage V across the circuit is reduced to ___
2051	In the R-L-C containing R = 4.5ω L = 0.06 H,C = 0.6 μF the power factor will be ___
2052	The reflection co-efficient of the simplest standing wave is ___
2053	In an A.C. circuit I sin Φ is ___
2054	The negative maximum of a cosine wave occurs at ___
2055	In a parallel R-C circuit, the current always ___
2056	Power factor of electric bulb is ___
2057	The r.m.s. value of a sinusoidal A.C. current is equal to ___
2058	For a sine wave with peak value Imax the r.m.s. value is ___
2059	A heater is rated as ___
2060	The form factor of D.C. supply voltage is ___
2061	The dual of a link is ___
2062	The power factor of a series R-L-C circuit at its half-power points is ___
2063	The frequency of domestic power supply in India is ___
2064	Power factor of the following circuit will be ___
2065	The r.m.s. value of a half-wave rectified current is ___
2066	For the same peak value, which of the following wave has the least mean value?
2067	For the same peak value of voltage which wave form will have the least r.m.s. value?
2068	The series element of a band stop filter is ___
2069	Selectivities of different resonance circuits are compared in terms of ___
2070	While drawing vector diagram for a series circuit the reference vector is ___
2071	Which of the following waves has the highest value of peak factor ‘?
2072	The ratio of active power to apparent power is known as ___
2073	Which of the following circuit component opposes the change in the ___
2074	Power factor of an inductive circuit is usually improved by ___
2075	For the same peak value which of the following wave will have the highest r.m.s. value?
2076	Capacitive reactance is ___
2077	The peak value of a sine wave is ___
2078	What inductance will give the same reactance as a capacitor of 2 μF when both are at 50 Hz?
2079	The time period of a sine wave is 1/50 seconds ___
2080	Which of the following motors does not use a centrifugal switch?
2081	The metal rectifiers are preferred over tube rectifiers as ___
2082	Consider the following statements regarding the speed control of ___
2083	If the speed of a dc motor increases with load torque, then it is a ___
2084	The emf induced in a conductor rotating in a bipolar field is ___
2085	A 10 mH inductor carries a sinusoidal current of 1 A rms at a frequency of ___
2086	If the step response of an initially relaxed circuit is known, then the ___
2087	The transients produced due to sudden but energetic changes from ___
2088	The Fourier series expansion of an even periods function contains ___
2089	The power of a three-phase. three-wire balanced system was measured by ___
2090	Power factor of an inductive circuit is usually improved by adding a ___
2091	In a linear network, the ratio of voltage excitation to current response is ___
2092	When Q-factor of a circuit is high, then ___
2093	In a network of resonance ___
2094	When a sinusoidal voltage is applied across R-L parallel circuit so that ___
2095	With the increase in applied frequency, the dielectric loss in a ___
2096	The power factor of an ac circuit is equal to ___
2097	Unit of inductive reactance is ___
2098	The rms value of a sine wave is ___
2099	Which one of the following is correct?
2100	In electrical circuits, transient currents are ___
2101	If the reading of two-wattmeters are equal and positive in two wattmeter method, the load pf in a ___
2102	A 3-phase 3-wire supply feeds a star connected load consisting of ___
2103	While applying reciprocity theorem ___
2104	Higher the Q of a series circuit, narrower its ___
2105	Q-factor of a series R-L-C circuit possessing resonant frequency of ___
2106	Consider the following statements with respect to ___
2107	In a parallel R-L circuit if IR is the current in resistor and IL is ___
2108	A square wave is fed to an ___
2109	The power factor of an ordinary electric bulb is ___
2110	Purely inductive circuit takes power from the ac mains when ___
2111	The form factor of sinusoidal alternating current is ___
2112	The shunt element of a bandpass filter is ___
2113	Transient disturbance occurs in a circuit whenever it is ___
2114	When two-wattmeter method of measurement of power is used to ___
2115	At a frequency more than the resonant frequency ___
2116	Change in circuit voltage will affect ___
2117	For a series RLC circuit, the power factor at the lower power frequency is ___
2118	At resonant frequency an R-L-C circuit draws maximum current due to the ___
2119	Real part of admittance is ___
2120	A certain R-L series combination is connected across a ___
2121	The pf of a practical inductor is ___
2122	Pure inductive circuit ___
2123	The most important advantage of using electrical energy in the ___
2124	Which of the following will act as open circuit at ___
2125	The ratio of the readings of two wattmeters connected to measure power in a ___
2126	In series as well as parallel reasonant circuit, increase in ___
2127	Which of the following will not be affected due to change in R?
2128	A series circuit having a resonant frequency of 60 kHz is connected in ___
2129	When a series R-L-C circuit is under resonance ___
2130	In an R-L-C circuit ___
2131	An ac source of 200 V rms supplies active power of ___
2132	A 2-terminal network consists of one of the ___
2133	A boiler at home is switched on to the ac mains supplying power at ___
2134	An R-C series circuit is excited by a ___
2135	Which of the following will act as short circuit at t = 0+ with zero initial conditions?
2136	Two complex waves will have the same wave form if ___
2137	Two-wattmeter method is employed to measure power in a 3- phase balanced system with ___
2138	For a 3-phase load balanced condition, each phase has the same value of ___
2139	A parallel resonant circuit can be ___
2140	In a series resonant circuit with the increase in the value of ___
2141	In a series R-L-C circuit, the voltage across inductance will be maximum ___
2142	The current through a series RLC circuit under resonance condition will be ___
2143	A small capacitance is added to a ___
2144	Unit of reactive power is ___
2145	A two-terminal black box contains a series combination of a ___
2146	In a purely resistive circuit, the average power ___
2147	A current is said to be direct current when its ___
2148	The Fourier transform of a function is equal to its ___
2149	In an R-L circuit connected to an alternating sinusoidal voltage, the magnitude of ___
2150	If a capacitor is energised by a symmetrical square wave current, then ___
2151	Any waveform can be expressed in Fourier series if ___
2152	The power delivered to a 3-phase load can be measured by the use of ___
2153	Total instantaneous power supplied by a 3-phase ac supply to ___
2154	In an RLC series resonant circuit, if the maximum stored energy is increased by ___
2155	In a series resonant circuit, with the increase in ___
2156	In a series R-L-C circuit, the maximum voltage across the capacitor occurs at ___
2157	At resonance power factor of a series R-L-C circuit would be ___
2158	In an RLC circuit, supplied from an ac source, the ___
2159	The power factor of an ac circuit lies between ___
2160	The reactance offered by a capacitor to ac of ___
2161	Which of the following statements pertains to resistors only?
2162	A current is said to be alternating when it changes in ___
2163	The impulse response of an R-L circuit is a ___
2164	Inductance affects the flow of direct current at the ___
2165	What is the average power for periodic non-sinusoidal voltages and currents?
2166	Three unequal impedances are connected in delta to a ___
2167	The power measurement in balanced three-phase circuit can be ___
2168	The rated voltage of a 3-phase power system is given as ___
2169	In order to tune a parallel resonant circuit to a lower frequency, the ___
2170	A coil is tuned to resonance at 500 kHz with a resonating capacitor of 36 pF at ___
2171	A series R-L-C circuit, excited by a 100 V variable frequency source, has a ___
2172	Under the condition of resonance in R-L-C series circuit, the ___
2173	In an ac series RLC circuit, the voltage across R and L is 20 V, voltage across ___
2174	Skin effect occurs when a conductor carries current at ___
2175	A circuit component that opposes the change in ___
2176	If two sinusoids of the same frequency but of different amplitudes and ___
2177	Nonlinear system cannot be analysed by Laplace transform because ___
2178	For ade voltage an inductor ___
2179	If an ac voltage wave is corrupted with an arbitrary number of harmonics, then the ___
2180	Phase reversal in a 4-wire unbalanced load supplied from a balanced 3-phase supply causes ___
2181	A lamp load is given a supply from ___
2182	Under the conditions of maximum power transfer from an ___
2183	A parallel circuit is said to be in resonance when the ___
2184	Consider the following statementsregarding the frequency response curve of ___
2185	A coil having a resistance of 5 ω and inductance of 0.1 H is connected in ___
2186	A resistance of ‘R’ω and inductance ‘L’ H are connected across ___
2187	A two terminal black box contains one of the ___
2188	The power consumed in an inductive circuit will be ___
2189	A pure capacitance connected across 50 Hz, 230 V supply consumes ___
2190	The rms value of the resultant current in a wire which carries a dc current of ___
2191	Laplace transform of the output response of a linear system is the ___
2192	A component that opposes the change in ___
2193	An even waveform when expressed in exponential fourier series will ___
2194	In a 3-phase supply, floating neutral is undesirable because it may result in ___
2195	To improve the pf in three-phase circuits, the capacitor bank is ____
2196	According to maximum power transfer theorem, when is the maximum power absorbed by ___
2197	An R-L-C series resonant circuit, if inductance of the circuit is made double and the ___
2198	A high Q coil has ___
2199	In a series RLC circuit at resonance, the magnitude of ___
2200	Capacitive susceptance is a measure of ___
2201	A 100 W, 100 V bulb is to be supplied from 220 V, 50Hz supply ___
2202	Power factor of the following circuit will be zero ___
2203	The first and the last critical frequencies (singularities) of a driving point impedance function of a ___
2204	Which of the following theorems can be applied to any network linear or nonlinear, active or passive, time-variant or time-invariant?
2205	Nodal analysis is based on ___
2206	A network has 10 nodes and ___
2207	Which of the following is an active element in a circuit?
2208	The electromagnet is made of ___
2209	In order to iriinimise loss due to hysteresis the ___
2210	In case all the flux from the current in coil 1 links with coil 2, the ___
2211	An open coil has ___
2212	There is a constant homogeneous magnetic field pointing in a ___
2213	Linkage flux per unit current is called ___
2214	Reluctance offered by the magnetic circuit depends upon ___
2215	Which of the following is a vcctor quantity?
2216	Air exhibits ___
2217	When a plane wave propagates in a ___
2218	Potential difference across a capacitor of capacitance 20 µF is increased uniformly from ___
2219	When the plate area of a parallel plate capacitor is increased keeping the capacitor voltage constant, the ___
2220	Two electrons moving parallel to each other at the ___
2221	The relation between the breakdown voltage V and the thickness t of the dielectric is given as ___
2222	Tangential component of the electric field on a perfect conductor will be ___
2223	During charging and discharging of an ___
2224	Overcharging of a lead acid battery would cause ___
2225	Which of the following tests is performed for ascertaining whether the battery plates are defective or not?
2226	Which of the following substances on adding in electrolyte helps in producing bright finish?
2227	The arrangement of 12 cells, each of internal resistance 1.5 ω, to give ___
2228	If a very flexible wire is laid out in the shape of a hair pin with its two ends secured, what shape will ___
2229	Ohm’s law in point form in field theory can be expressed as ___
2230	Two wires A and B of the same material and length l and 2l have ___
2231	Poynting vector is a measure of which one of the following?
2232	Which among these following statements is correct?
2233	Which one of the following statements is correct?
2234	A network consists of linear resistors and ideal voltage source ___
2235	Which of the following materials possesses the least specific resistance?
2236	The lowest and the highest critical frequencies of an R-L driving point impedance are ___
2237	In a balanced Wheatstone bridge, if the positions of detector and source are interchanged, the ___
2238	Superposition theorem is applicable for ___
2239	Kirchhoff’s laws are not applicable to ___
2240	Ideal voltage source have ___
2241	An electric circuit with 10 branches and 7 nodes will ___
2242	The terminals across the source are ____ if a current source is to be neglected
2243	The magnetic field strength of an air-cored coil can be increased by ___
2244	The hysteresis loss is caused by ___
2245	The shape of B-H curve for air gap is ___
2246	The coupling between two magnetically coupled coils is said to be ideal if ___
2247	Lower the self inductance of a ___
2248	Which law is synonymous to the occurrence of diamagnetism?
2249	Two parallel wires separated by a distance dare carrying a ___
2250	The conductance of electrical circuit is analogous inmagnetic circuit by ___
2251	If a current carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field, the mechanical force experienced on the ___
2252	Magnetic flux density emerging out of a closed surface is ___
2253	Iron is a ___
2254	The normal components of electric flux density across a ___
2255	The capacitor charged up to 5 ms, as per the current profile given in the figure, is connected across an ___
2256	A parallel plate capacitor has capacitance of ___
2257	The relation between electric polarization and susceptibility indicates that the ___
2258	A medium behaves like dielectric when the ___
2259	The capacity of a lead acid battery is adversely affected by ___
2260	When a piece of iron is placed in a magnetic field ___
2261	Short circuiting of a cell results in ___
2262	Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
2263	In a lead acid battery, fillers are provided to ___
2264	If an ohmmeter reading immediately goes practically to zero and stays there while checking a ___
2265	Addition of which of the following substances in electrolyte promotes smooth deposition?
2266	The condensers of 20 µF and 40 µF capacitance are connected in series across a ___
2267	For a group of cells when internal resistance of the group is equal to ___
2268	In a parallel plate capacitor, a dielectric slab is ___
2269	Two heaters, rated at 1000 W, 250 V each are connected in series across a ___
2270	The condition for the validity of Ohm’ s law is that the ___
2271	In a charge-free space, the Poisson’s equation results in which one of the following?
2272	Current velocity through a copper conductor is ___
2273	Inside a hollow conducting sphere ___
2274	Four 100 W bulbs are connected in parallel across 200 V supply line ___
2275	The energy capacity of a storage battery is rated in ___
2276	The unit of the Poynting vector is ___
2277	Charging of a sulphated battery at high rate causes ___
2278	For a uniform plane electromagnetic wave ___
2279	For keeping the lead acid battery terminals free from corrosion it is advisable to ___
2280	Where is the Laplace’s equation valid?
2281	Rust, scales and oxides can be removed from a surface with the help of ___
2282	How are 500 ω resistors connected so as to give an effective resistance of 750 ω?
2283	A battery is connected to a resistance causing a current of 0.5 A in the ___
2284	Specific resistance of a conductor depends upon ___
2285	A pole of driving point admittance function implies ___
2286	Which of the following is not equivalent to watts?
2287	For a linear network containing generators and impedances, the ratio of the voltage to the ___
2288	Pure metals generally have ___
2289	Maxwell’ s loop current method of solving electrical networks ___
2290	____ coefficient is numerically equal to the difference of potential per °C
2291	Kirchhoff’ s laws are valid for ___
2292	A higher directivity is specified by ___
2293	Constant voltage source is ___
2294	Consider the following statements connection with electromagnetic waves ___
2295	There are b branches and n nodes the number of equations will be ___
2296	Equipotential surfaces about a pair of equal and opposite linear charges exist in what form?
2297	For a perfect conductor, the field strength at a distance equal to the skin depth is X% of the ___
2298	Two resistors R1 and R2 give combined resistance of 4.5 ω when in series and 1 ω when in ___
2299	Which of the following statements associated with inductors is wrong?
2300	The temperature coefficient of resistance of a wire is ___
2301	Hysteresis loss least depends on ___
2302	For a two-port symmetrical bilateral network, if A = 3 and B = 1 ω, the value of ___
2303	Which of the following statements should be true if one compares the hysteresis loops of ___
2304	When the power transferred to the load is maximum, the efficiency of power transfer is ___
2305	The coils having self-inductance of 10 mH and 15 mH and effective inductance of ___
2306	Superposition theorem is not applicable for ___
2307	If in an iron cored coil the iron core is removed so as to make the air-cored coil, the inductance of the ___
2308	A voltage source having an open-circuit voltage of 100 V and internal resistance of 50 ω is ___
2309	In all cases of electromagnetic induction, an induced voltage will cause a current to flow in a ___
2310	What is the number of chords of a connected graph G of n vertices and e edges?
2311	The force per unit length between two stationary parallel wires carrying ___
2312	A circuit having neither any energy source nor emf source is called ___
2313	A coil wound over an iron ring carries certaincurrent and ___
2314	Two coils having equal resistances but different inductances are connected in ___
2315	The magnitude of force acting on a current carrying conductor placed in a ___
2316	A coil of 1,000 turns is wound on a ___
2317	Which of the following statements associated with magnetic field is correct?
2318	In a magnetic material, hysteresis loss takes place primarily due to ___
2319	The magnetic susceptibility of a paramagnetic material is ___
2320	The magnetic field required to reduce the residual magnetisation to zero is called ___
2321	While checking a good 0.05 µF capacitor by ohmmeter, its reading will ___
2322	The overall inductance of two coils connected in series, with mutual inductance aiding self inductance is ___
2323	Which of the following statements associated with capacitors is wrong?
2324	The unit(s) of inductance is/are ___
2325	The magnitude of induced emf in a conductor depends upon the ___
2326	The unit of polarization is the same as that of ___
2327	If the two conductors carry current in opposite directions there will be ___
2328	Which of the following statement(s) is/are valid in case of conductors in electrostatic fields?
2329	An electric field is parallel but opposite to a magnetic field ___
2330	Sulphated cells are indicated by the ___
2331	A plane wave travelling in air is incident on a conducting medium ___
2332	In a battery, cover is placed over the elements and sealed at the top of ___
2333	Equipotential surfaces about a point charge are in which one of the following forms?
2334	Oil and grease can be removed from a ___
2335	Twelve 1 ω resistance are used as edges to ___
2336	A 24 V battery of internal resistance r = 4 ω connected to a ___
2337	If the length of a wire of resistance R is uniformly stretched to n times its ___
2338	“The total electric flux through any closed surface surrounding charges is equal to the ___
2339	Pole of a network is a frequency at ___
2340	Correct form of Ohm’s law ___
2341	A human nerve cell has an open-circuit voltage of 80 mV and it can deliver a current of 5 nA through a ___
2342	The minimum requirements for causing flow of ___
2343	Which of the following theorems is applicable for both linear and nonlinear circuits?
2344	Thermoelectric power at neutral temperature is ___
2345	To neglect a voltage source, the terminals across the ___
2346	If reflection coefficient for voltage be 0.6. the ___
2347	For a voltage source ___
2348	What will be the reflected wave for an elliptically polarized wave incident on the interface of a die-electric at ___
2349	A network has 4 nodes and 3 independent loops ___
2350	Which one of the following is the correct statement?
2351	An electromagnetic field is radiated from ___
2352	Three parallel resistive branches are connected across a dc supply ___
2353	The energy stored in the magnetic field of a solenoid 30 cm long and 3 cm diameter wound with ___
2354	Resistance of a wire always increases if ___
2355	The area of hysteresis loop is a measure of ___
2356	A passive 2-port network is in a steady-state ___
2357	The coercive force in a ferromagnetic material is related to ___
2358	Which of the following statements is/are correct?
2359	Kirchhoff’s voltage law is concerned with ___
2360	Inductance has the dimensions of ___
2361	A constant current source supplies a current of 300 mA to a load of ___
2362	The laws of electromagnetic induction (Faraday’s md Lenz’s laws) are summarized in the ___
2363	The number of possible ordered trees with ___
2364	A straight conductor of circular x-section carries a ___
2365	A network having one or more than one source of emf is known as ____
2366	The property of a material which opposes the production of magnetic flux in ___
2367	At a certain current, the energy stored in an iron-cored coil is 1,000 J and its ___
2368	An infinitely long straight conductor located along Z-axis carries a current I in the ___
2369	Energy stored by a coil is doubled when its current is ___
2370	Iron loss is known as ___
2371	Materials subjected to rapid reversals of magnetism should have ___
2372	The mutual inductance between two coupled coils is ___
2373	The principle of dynamically induced emf is utilised in a ___
2374	According to Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction an emf is induced in ___
2375	Which of these below statements is correct?
2376	The force experienced by a current canying conductor lying parallel to ___
2377	Magnetic current is composed of which of the following?
2378	The bar magnet has ___
2379	The magnetic materials exhibit the property of ___
2380	If the dielectric of a capacitor is replaced by a ___
2381	Two capacitors each having capacitance C and breakdown voltage V are ___
2382	In a multilayer dielectric material on either side of a ___
2383	Polarization of dielectric materials results in ___
2384	The charge on an isolated conductor resides ___
2385	Which one of the following statements does not state that electrostatic field is conservative?
2386	The emf of a lead battery ___
2387	In a lead acid battery, excessive formation of lead sulphate occurs ___
2388	During discharging of lead acid cells, the terminal voltage decreases with ___
2389	Pickling is ___
2390	Five cells are connected in series in a row and then four such rows are connected in parallel to feed the current to a resistive load of ___
2391	When an electric current flows through a conductor, its temperature rises ___
2392	A 100 watt light bulb burns on an average of 10 hours a ___
2393	A 200 W, 230 V lamp is connected across ___
2394	Neutral temperature of a thermocouple ___
2395	If the maximum and minimum voltages on a transmission line are 4 V and 2 V, respectively, for a ___
2396	The flux density unit is ___
2397	Unit of electric intensity is ___
2398	Four resistances 80 ω, 50 ω, 25 ω and R are connected in ___
2399	Which of the following statements is correct regarding resistance?
2400	A, B, C and D represent the transmission parameters of a ___
2401	While determining RTH of a ___
2402	A dependent source ___
2403	The graph of an electrical network has N nodes and B branches ___
2404	The elements which are not capable of delivering energy by its own are ___
2405	Coil with a certain number of turns has a specified time constant ___
2406	Magnetostriction is a phenomenon of ___
2407	Two conducting thin coils X and Y (identical except for a thin cut in coil Y) are placed in a uniform magnetic field which is ___
2408	Mutual inductance between two magnetically coupled coils depends on the ___
2409	When a single turn coil rotates in a uniform magnetic field, at a uniform speed the ___
2410	Which of the following is correct option?
2411	An air gap is usually inserted in magnetic circuits so as ___
2412	Which of the following statements holds of the divergence of electric and magnetic flux densities?
2413	A permeable substance is ___
2414	For removing static charge from machinery the ___
2415	In a cable capacitor, voltage gradient is maximum at the ___
2416	Dielectric strength of a medium ___
2417	Two spheres of radii r1 and r2 are connected by a conducting wire ___
2418	Coulomb’ s law for the force between electric charges most closely ___
2419	The condition of a fully charged lead acid battery cannot be ___
2420	In lead acid batteries, sedimentation occurs due to ___
2421	Which of the following statements is correct about lead acid batteries?
2422	During electrodeposition. the amounts of different substances liberated by same quantity of ___
2423	Internal resistance of primary cell varies ___
2424	Ohm’s law is applicable to ___
2425	Which of the following does not use heating effect of electric current?
2426	The electrical conductivity of metals is typically df the order of ___
2427	The temperature of hot junction of a thermocouple at which the thermo-emf is ___
2428	Which of the following is a vector quantity?
2429	Joule/coulomb is the unit of ___
2430	The flow of electric current in a conductor is due to ___
2431	The temperature coefficient of resistance of an insulator is ___
2432	The poles and zeroes of an all-pass network are located in which part of the s-plane?
2433	Millman’s theorem yields equivalent ___
2434	While Thevenizing a circuit between two terminals, VTH is ___
2435	A practical current source is represented by ___
2436	A connected network of N > 2 nodes has at most one branch directly connecting any ___
2437	The circuit having same properties in either direction is known as ___
2438	When a battery of E volts is suddenly applied across an ideal inductance of ___
2439	Magnetostriction is a phenomenon whereby the magnetisation of a ferromagnetic material leads to ___
2440	Two identical coils of negligible resistance, when connected in series across a 50Hz fixed voltage ___
2441	The inductance of a single layer solenoid of 10 turns is ___
2442	If a copper conductor is moved across a ___
2443	Δx E = dB/dt is derived from ___
2444	The field at any point on the axis ofa current carrying coil will be ___
2445	Image theory is applicable to problems involving ___
2446	Soft magnetic material is ___
2447	What is the value of total electric flux coming out of a closed surface?
2448	For preventing the generation of static charge on rubber or ___
2449	Energy density in a static electric field is given by ___
2450	Dielectric strength of a material depends on ___
2451	The potential inside a charged hollow sphere is ___
2452	A floating battery is one ___
2453	Battery charging equipment should be installed ___
2454	Common impurity in a battery electrolyte is ___
2455	Which of the following statements is incorrect about lead acid batteries?
2456	During electroplating the weight of a ___
2457	The emf of primary cell depends upon the ___
2458	An electric current is the ___
2459	The draft velocity of electrons is ___
2460	In gases the flow of current is due to ___
2461	The absorption or evolution of heat energy, if a current is allowed to flow in a conductor having its ___
2462	What causes electromagnetic wave polarization?
2463	For determining the polarity of the voltage drop across a resistor, it is ___
2464	The hot resistance of the filament of a bulb is higher than the ___
2465	The theorem that enables a number of voltage (or current) sources to be ___
2466	In nodal analysis, if there are N nodes in the circuit, then how many equations will be ___
2467	Ideal current source have ___
2468	If the number of branches in a network is ‘B’, the number of nodes is ‘N’ and the number of ___
2469	Which of the following is not bilateral element?
2470	Core of an electromagnet should have ___
2471	Which of the following inductors will have the least eddy current losses?
2472	Two coils are coupled in such a way that the mutual inductance between them is ___
2473	The inductance of a long solenoid of length 1,000 mm wound uniformly with 3000 turns on a ___
2474	The emf induced in a coil due to relative motion of a magnet is ___
2475	The magnetic field intensity (in A/m) at the centre of a circular coil of diameter 1 m and ___
2476	Soft magnetic materials have ___
2477	The surface integral of the electrical field intensity is ___
2478	The dissipation factor of good dielectric is of the ___
2479	During dielectric breakdown of a ___
2480	The electric potential due to an electric dipole of length l at a point distance r away from it ___
2481	Nickel-cadmium accumulators in comparison to nickel-iron accumulators have ___
2482	In comparison to constant current charging method, the constant voltage charging method of ___
2483	Vent plug is provided in each lead acid cell to ___
2484	In a lead acid battery, the level of the electrolyte should be ___
2485	Standard cell ___
2486	Capacity of a dry cell is ___
2487	The electrons revolve around the nucleus with high velocity ___
2488	How may 200 W/220 V incandescent lamps connected in series would consume the same total power as a ___
2489	EMF of a thermocouple depends upon the ___
2490	Why is delay distortion in coaxial cables caused?
2491	Three resistances each of R Ω  are corrected to form a triangle ___
2492	The insulation resistance of a cable of length 10 km is 1 Mega Ohm’s ___
2493	Constant power locus of transmission line at particular sending end and ___
2494	Transmission efficiency of transmission line increases with ___
2495	Surge Impedance loading of a transmission line can be ___
2496	A travelling wave 400/1/50 means crest value of ___
2497	If the traveling wave which is traveling along the loss free line which does not undergone any reflection after it ___
2498	Bundled Conductors are used for EHV transmission lines ___
2499	A travelling wave due to lightning with an incident voltage V travels through the ___
2500	In a 7/30 ACSR conductor why is grease put between steel and ___
2501	What is the surge impedance loading of a lossless 400kV, 3 phase, 50Hz overhead line of average of ___
2502	When is the Ferranti effect on long over head lines experienced ___
2503	The inertia of two group of machines which swing together are ___
2504	For stability and economic reason we operate the transmission line with ___
2505	The stability of the power system is not ___
2506	Which one of the following is ___
2507	Equal area criteria gives the ___
2508	Steady state stability of the power system is improved by ___
2509	If a generator of 250MVA rating has an inertia constant of 6MJ/MVA, its inertia constant on ___
2510	The inertia constant of the two machines which are not ___
2511	The use of high speed breakers can ___
2512	The transient stability limit of the power system can be increased by ___
2513	The steady state stability of the power system can be ___
2514	If the torque angle of the alternator increases indefinitely the ___
2515	The equal area criteria of stability is used for ___
2516	The Critical Clearance time of a fault in the power system is ___
2517	An ideal voltage source should have ___
2518	Which of the following is ___
2519	The superposition theorem requires as many circuits to be solved as ___
2520	For maximum transfer of power, internal resistance of the ___
2521	Kirchhoff’s laws are applicable to ___
2522	If there are ‘b’ branches and ‘n’ nodes the number of ___
2523	A terminal where more than two branches met is ___
2524	Factors on which soil resistance depends ___
2525	Moisture content in the soil ___
2526	The objective of earthing or grounding is ___
2527	When earth fault occurs ___
2528	For an EHV equipment for maintenance first it should be isolated and connected to ___
2529	Ground resistance should be designed such that ___
2530	Generally grounding is provided for ___
2531	Average resistance of human body is ___
2532	Earth wire or ground wire is made of ___
2533	The size of the earth or ground wire is based on ___
2534	Which of the following material is more susceptible to ___
2535	The relation between the fusing current (I) and diameter (d) of the ___
2536	Heat generated in the HRC fuse is dissipated mainly through ___
2537	A material best suited for the manufacture of the ___
2538	The material used for the fuse wire should be of ___
2539	The fuse blows off by ___
2540	The delay fuses are used for the protection of ___
2541	A fuse in a motor circuit provides protection against ___
2542	The expected life of an incandescent lamp is ___
2543	Which of the materials is most commonly used for the filaments in the ___
2544	Which of the following colour has the wavelength between ___
2545	An object which appears to be red to the ___
2546	Candle power is ___
2547	Sky appears to be blue because of ___
2548	Candela is the unit of ___
2549	Luminous flux is ___
2550	Visible spectrum of the light has a wavelength in the ___
2551	Light ___
2552	Solder is an alloy of ___
2553	Gold, Silver and Copper are good conductors because their ___
2554	The formation of oxide film on the metal is due to ___
2555	The property of materials by which it can be rolled into sheets is ___
2556	Which of the following is the ___
2557	Annealing of metals ___
2558	Forbidden band is largest in ___
2559	The relative permeability of the super conductor materials is ___
2560	In metals the type of bond present is ___
2561	The resistance of the most of the conducting materials ___
2562	Which of the following relays has inherent directional characteristics ___
2563	The operation speed of a relay depends on ___
2564	The relay with inverse time characteristics will ___
2565	Buchholz relay is a ___
2566	The torque developed in Induction type relay is ___
2567	Admittance relay is ___
2568	Differential relays are used for the protection of ___
2569	Earth fault relays are ___
2570	Under-voltage relay is mostly used for ___
2571	Isolators are used for disconnecting a ___
2572	Buchholz relay is ___
2573	Thermal relays are used for the protection of motors against over-current owing to ___
2574	A lightning arrester connected between the line and earth in a ___
2575	Solid earthing is provided for the voltage below ___
2576	The short circuit current of an alternator, inc case of line to line fault depends on its:
2577	The relay best suited for phase fault relaying for medium transmission lines is ___
2578	The relay used for the feeder protection is ___
2579	Any winding of a power transformer develops ___
2580	Mho relay have an R-X characteristics depicted by ___
2581	A thermal protection switch is used to provide protection against ___
2582	Arc chutes are used in ___
2583	Which of the following circuit breakers produce ___
2584	Breaking capacity of the circuit breaker is usually expressed in ___
2585	The arc voltage produced in an ac circuit breaker is ___
2586	The contact resistance is least affected by ___
2587	Sparking between the contacts can be reduced by ___
2588	The most efficient torque-producing actuating structure for ___
2589	Relay contacts are normally made up of ___
2590	It is the minimum clearance required between the live conductors and ___
2591	Step potential and Touch potential is ___
2592	In a substation current transformers are used to ___
2593	A busbar is rated by ___
2594	What is the maximum transmission voltage substation in ___
2595	Which of the following bus-bars arrangement is ___
2596	Which of the gas is used in gas insulated substation ___
2597	A bus coupler circuit breaker is utilized in a ___
2598	Gas Insulated Substation is employed ___
2599	Which is the first equipment seen in the substation while coming from ___
2600	What is Marshalling Kiosk in ___
2601	The size of Gas Insulated Substation is significantly small compared to ___
2602	Emulsifier protection is associated with ___
2603	Earthing conductivity is affected by ___
2604	Which of the following busbar arrangement is generally employed in ___
2605	Which of the device is employed in substation to limit the short circuit current in the ___
2606	In substation which of the device is a ___
2607	What is the minimum phase to phase clearance required for 400kV conductors in ___
2608	In order to improve the power factor ___
2609	Stones are provided in the substation to ___
2610	Internal voltage drop of a voltage source ___
2611	Cells are connected in series in order to ___
2612	The capacity of lead acid battery is adversely by ___
2613	The capacity of battery is expressed in ___
2614	Vent plug is provided in each lead acid cells to ___
2615	During the discharge of lead acid battery, the terminal voltage decreases with ___
2616	The law that finds application in electrolysis is ___
2617	When two cells are connected in parallel, it should be ensured that ___
2618	The emf of a primary cell depends upon the ___
2619	The cell which is used as standard cell is ___
2620	The curve representing Ohms law is ___
2621	The ratio of voltage and electrical current in a ___
2622	Voltage is a form of ___
2623	The resistance of the wire varies inversely as ___
2624	Resistance of human body is ___
2625	Ampere-second is the unit of ___
2626	Which of the following current is considered dangerous to ___
2627	Current velocity through the copper conductor is ___
2628	The minimum requirement for causing flow of current are ___
2629	The flow of electric current in a conductor is due to the ___
2630	The form factor for dc supply voltage is ___
2631	An insulation is subjected to ___
2632	Which of the statement pertained to resistance is ___
2633	An ac generator running at 1000 rpm produces emf of ___
2634	The ratio of the effective value to the peak value is called the ___
2635	Which of the following statements associated with purely resistive circuit is ___
2636	A phasor in a line which represents the ___
2637	In a purely inductive circuit ___
2638	In a R-L Series circuit the power factor is ___
2639	An instantaneous change in voltage is not possible in ___
2640	The rating of given on the name plate of a transformer indicates the ___
2641	In a circuit low reactive power compared to ___
2642	When the power factor in the transmission line is leading, which device is employed at substation to ___
2643	The heat developed in an electric iron is attributed to ___
2644	In an ac circuit i x sin (Phi) is called the ___
2645	The power factor of an ac circuit is ___
2646	In an induction motor when the air gap field between rotor and stator increases ___
2647	In order to improve the power factor which device should be connected to the ___
2648	A Circuit of zero lagging power factor behaves as ___
2649	The power factor of ac circuit lies ___
2650	A battery is rated according to a 20-hour rate of discharge at 300 ampere-hours ___
2651	What determines the amount of current that a cell can deliver to the external circuit?
2652	Common method(s) of controlling electrical power with reactance ___
2653	Which, if any, of the following types of variable resistors is used to control a large amount of current?
2654	Which of the following devices can be used as a position sensor in a servo system?
2655	In a dc position servo system, what characteristic of the error signal determines the direction in which the load is driven?
2656	What is a medium of communication with a computer where programs are written in mnemonics?
2657	Transition region refers to with regard to transistor ___
2658	___ refers to the term remote sensing with regard to a linear voltage regulator
2659	Find the dielectric constant of air ___
2660	Diagram showing procedures which are followed and actions taken is called ___
2661	What network facility is used to interconnect distinct networks physically?
2662	How do you determine if diode is defective?
2663	Which of the following is a characteristic of cascaded amplifier?
2664	What is the reason why more cells can be stored in a given area with dynamic cells?
2665	Find the value of voltage regulation having a dc voltage of 67 V without load and with full load current drawn the output voltage drops to 42 V ___
2666	___ is the unit of reluctance
2667	Which class of amplifier has the highest linearity and least distortion ___
2668	___ is the region in a transistor that is heavily doped
2669	What is the gain of a vacuum tube having the following parameter amplification factor is 80, external plate-load resistance of 30,000 ohms and the tubes internal plate resistance is 10,000 ohms?
2670	Refers to that part of computer that interprets and executes instructions ___
2671	The energy of an oscillator can be source by ___
2672	Find the half-power bandwidth of a resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95
2673	What do you call an electronic component that is a non-linear resistor and its resistance is function of the voltage across it?
2674	___ is the procedure by which an atom is given a net charge by adding or taking away of electron
2675	What do you call an electromagnet with its core in a form of magnetic ring?
2676	___ is gaseous tube which uses a pool of liquid mercury as its cathode
2677	What type of circuit whose parameters are constant which do not change with voltage of current?
2678	Which statement is not true?
2679	Which of the following statement is incorrect?
2680	What do you call a circuit that changes pure binary code into ASCII?
2681	___ is the progressive decay with time in the amplitude of the free oscillation in a circuit
2682	Term used for response in an electrical circuit ___
2683	A ____ is a junction field effect transistor with a Schottky barrier instead of a normal semiconductor junction
2684	___ is the property of magnetic materials which retain magnetism after magnetizing force is withdrawn
2685	___ refers to a program that translates and then immediately executes statements in a high level language
2686	___ is the term used to express the ratio of the change in the dc collector current to a change in base current in a bipolar transistor
2687	Speed of a logic circuit is normally expressed as ___
2688	___ is the output voltage of a carbon-zinc cell
2689	The reason for the thin layer of varnish over the copper coil pattern is to prevent ___
2690	A digital word consisting of only four bits is called a ___
2691	Parallel cells have the same voltage as one cell but have ___
2692	The particles that make up the lattice in ionic crystal ___
2693	___ is a linear electronic voltage regulator
2694	How many lithium cells in series are needed for a 12 V battery?
2695	___ refers to a circuit that stores pulses and produces an output pulse when specified number of pulses is stored
2696	Efficient oscillators are those that are class ___
2697	What is the law whereby the attraction or repulsion between two magnetic poles is directly proportional to their strength?
2698	Which is the principal characteristic of a varactor diode?
2699	How many bits, binary pattern represent the decimal numbers 0 to 9 in binary coded decimal?
2700	What do you call the piece of equipment in an oscilloscope used to indicate pulse condition in a digital logic circuit?
2701	Which of the following is not a secondary type cell?
2702	Which is a common use for point-contact diode?
2703	___ capability is analogous to permeance
2704	___ is called an electronic transfer from one stage to the next
2705	How much voltage regulation does commercial power supply have?
2706	Determine which is not a dynamic test instrument ___
2707	What is the logic circuit having two or more inputs but only one output with high output if any or all inputs are high, with low output only when all inputs are low?
2708	What is the equivalent of decimal 47 in binary?
2709	How many symbols do hexadecimal digital number system used?
2710	What is responsible for the phenomenon when voltages across reactances in series can often be larger than the voltage applied to them?
2711	When a logic circuit rejects an unwanted signal, this is termed as ___
2712	An interval required to address and read out memory word ___
2713	The current needed to operate a soldering iron which has a rating of 600 watts at 110 volts is ___
2714	When a voltage of 100 V at 50 Hz is applied to a choking coil A, the current taken is 8A and the power is 120 W, when applied to a coil B, the current is 10 A and the power is 120 W
2715	___ is called a memory device which holds fixed set of data in a circuit
2716	What happens in the resistance of copper wired when its temperature is raised?
2717	If a dry cell has an internal resistance of 0.50 ohm and an emf of 2 volts, find power delivered in a one ohm resistor?
2718	The science of physical phenomena at very low temperatures, approaching absolute zero is called ___
2719	What is the law that determines polarity of an induced voltage?
2720	What is the resonant frequency of a circuit when L of 1 microhenry and C of 10 picofarads are in series?
2721	Which of the following photocell is most sensitive to?
2722	___ currents are wasteful currents which flow in cores of transformers and produces heat
2723	Common-base (CB) amplifier has ___ compared to common-emitter and common collector amplifiers
2724	A ___ is an instruction in a source language that is to be replaced by a defined sequence of instructions in the same source language
2725	___ for a transistor to be cut-off
2726	Semiconductors which are considered to be “low power” or “small signal” usually have power dissipation ratings of ___
2727	What is the memory element used in clocked sequential logic circuit?
2728	How many OP-AMPS does window comparator require?
2729	When batteries have cells connected in series the effect is ___
2730	What is residual magnetism?
2731	What type of transformer that is used to protect technicians and operators from deadly electrical shock?
2732	Find which type of network provides the greatest harmonic suppression ___
2733	What is the range of voltage rating available in zener diodes?
2734	___ is the dc motor control senses
2735	What is the effect in terms of bandwidth when the Q of a single-tune stage is doubled?
2736	What is the effect of light in a photodiode?
2737	Current in a chemical cell refers to the movement of ___
2738	When you increase the resistance in a circuit, the flows of electrons will ___
2739	Which is the majority carrier in an N-type semiconductor?
2740	A static memory generally contains ___
2741	What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?
2742	When an SCR is triggered or on condition, its electrical characteristics are similar to what other solid-state device (as measured between its cathode and anode)?
2743	How many turns are needed to produce a magnetizing force of 5000 A.t. for a coil of 50 amperes?
2744	When a switch is closed, it has a total resistance of ___
2745	___ is a type of linear regulator used in applications requiring efficient utilization of the primary power source
2746	What does SI magnetic flux refer?
2747	The purpose of cells connected in parallel is to ___
2748	What is a pi-network?
2749	___ is the most influential factor in the switching speed of saturated bipolar transistor
2750	Where does voltage generated in a DC generator depend?
2751	What is a group of circuits that provides timing and signals to all operation in the computer?
2752	The decibel gain of cascaded amplifiers equals the ___
2753	Refers to the increased used of data conversion circuits as a result of increased application ___
2754	Solve for flux density (in gauss) from a magnetic flux of 5,000 Mx through a perpendicular are of 2 cm x 5 cm ___
2755	___ are electrons at the outer shell
2756	An audible tone generated by combining two different frequencies in a non-linear circuit or as sound waves in air is called ___
2757	In order to simplify a circuit, in analysis and computation the diode is normally assumed as ___
2758	The loss of electrical energy in counter balancing the residual magnetism in each cycle is called ___
2759	___ is the major characteristics of an IC
2760	Which of the following statements is correct?
2761	A dc voltage supply is measured at 50 V and drops to 25 V when the load is connected ___
2762	In shift registers made up of several flip-flops, the clock signal indicates ___
2763	When the cells are in series, voltages add, while current capacity is ___
2764	___ is a device that stays on once triggered and stores one of two conditions as a digital circuit
2765	___ is the characteristic of an oscillator that enables it to sustain oscillation after removal of the control stimulus
2766	The objective of a capacitor is to ___
2767	A good material conductor should have valence electrons ___
2768	A crystal with its major flat surfaces cut so that they are perpendicular to a mechanical axis of the original quartz crystal is called ___
2769	___ is an orderly pattern of combined silicon atoms
2770	Circuit that transforms dc from one voltage level to another or from one frequency to another ___
2771	What is the first stage in electronic troubleshooting?
2772	Current carried by each of two long parallel conductors is doubled if their separation is also doubled, the force between them would ___
2773	How much is the resistance of Germanium slag 10 cm long and cross sectional area of 1 squared cm?
2774	A solid-state device which only gives a “1” output if all its inputs are also “1” is called ___
2775	What is the lagging effect between the magnetizing force applied and the flux density?
2776	Device that increases power content from an input signal ___
2777	If a sine wave voltage varies from 0-200 V, how much is its instant voltage at 90%?
2778	What term in electronics is used to express how fast energy is consumed?
2779	What do you call the duration within it takes to read the content of a memory location after it has been addressed ___
2780	The ___ is an analog component that has two inputs, one inverting and the other non-inverting, and a single output terminal
2781	If the gain of an amplifier without feedback is 10 and with negative feedback is 8, then the feedback fraction is ___
2782	What is the most stable type of biasing?
2783	___ refers to circuits with 10 to 100 integrated circuits
2784	When an atom gains an additional ___, it results to a negative ion
2785	The longer the diameter of a wire, the ___ is its resistance
2786	___ is a low frequency oscillation which sometimes occurs under fault condition in electron tube circuits
2787	Two heaters A and B are in parallel across supply voltage V
2788	There are ___ identical cells in parallel needed to double the current reading of each cells
2789	The best way to control speed of an AC induction motor is by varying the ___
2790	___ is an excess property of P-type semiconductor
2791	___ is a kind of memory where only manufacturer can store program and has a group of memory locations each permanently storing a word
2792	___ is an output applied to Read Only Memory (ROM)
2793	Which has the largest diameter of the following dry cells?
2794	When a power supply is constructed to operate from either 240V or 120V ac lines such that it will have same secondary output, its primary when connected from 240V must be ___
2795	The first recipient in E-mail communication ___
2796	In a system with MOS devices, the main bus loading factor is likely to be ___
2797	Find voltage regulation of a generator when full-load voltage is 110 V and no-load voltage is 120 ___
2798	The typical number of bits per dynamic memory location is ___
2799	___ refers to BCD counter
2800	___ is the specific gravity reading for a good lead-acid cell
2801	Solve the collector current if base current is 200 mA and the current gain is 20 ___
2802	A ___ is a storage device used to accommodate a difference in rate of flow of data or time of occurrence of events when transmitting from one device to another
2803	What is the range of audio frequency?
2804	___ is a segment register which normally accesses variables in the program
2805	The difference in energy between the valence and conduction bands of a semiconductor is called ___
2806	The portion of the weld interval during which welding current is flowing ___
2807	The base SI unit of luminous intensity is ___
2808	The purpose of installing thyrectors across the incoming power lines to speed the control system is to ___
2809	In order to match the load to the generator means making load resistance ___
2810	Silicon diodes are used in a two-diode full-wave rectifier circuit to supply a load of 12 volts DC ___
2811	What do you call the force which sets up or tends to set up magnetic flux in a magnetic circuit?
2812	___ is a pn junction semiconductor device that emits noncoherent optical radiation when biased in the forward direction, as a result of a recombination effect
2813	If three amplifiers with a gain of 8 each are in cascade, how much is the overall gain?
2814	The ___ grid in an electron tube is where the input signal is usually applied
2815	Find the ripple factor (Kr) of a sinusoidal signal with peak ripple of 4 volts and an average of 30 ___
2816	An LC circuit resonates at 2000 kHz and has a Q of 100 ___
2817	What materials possess permeabilities slightly less than that of free space?
2818	___ can erase EPROMS
2819	Materials with permeabilities slightly less than that of free space are referred to as ___
2820	___ is retrieving data from memory
2821	How do you measure the current in a circuit without an ammeter?
2822	An instrument used to measure one location in terms of coordinates ___
2823	___ is a byte of data stored in a memory location
2824	The overall gain of an amplifier in cascade is ___
2825	What is the degree of exactness of measurement when compared to the expected value of the variable being measured?
2826	What type of materials formed when trivalent material is doped with silicon or germanium?
2827	Term used to describe sudden reverse conduction of an electronic component caused by excess reverse voltage across the device ___
2828	In an Amplitude-Modulated (AM) radio transmitter, the modulator is ___
2829	What level is used to represent logic-0 in a negative logic circuit?
2830	What element possesses four valence electrons?
2831	What is the unit of magnetic flux in SI system?
2832	___ has the unit of electron volt
2833	What is the reason why robot actuators have lesser capabilities than electric or hydraulic robot actuators?
2834	What law in electronics where an induced current will be in such a direction that its own magnetic field will oppose the magnetic field that produces the same?
2835	What level is used to represent logic-1 in a negative logic circuit?
2836	A user-program that has the ability to move a robot axis to any position within its range ___
2837	What is the smallest part of a computer language?
2838	A very high resistance connected in parallel with smoothing capacitors in a high voltage DC system is called a ___
2839	What is the majority carrier in an N material?
2840	What composes all matter whether a liquid, solid or gas?
2841	An advantage of full-wave rectifier over half-wave rectifier ___
2842	The reciprocal of capacitance is called ___
2843	Find the output of four (4) lead acid cells ___
2844	What is an electronic measuring equipment used in navigation operating in 1GHz band which provides bearing and distance indication?
2845	What instrument is used for observing voltage and current waveforms?
2846	Dynamometer type instrument can be used for ___
2847	What force in analog instrument quickly brings the moving system to rest in its final position?
2848	In an oscilloscope, ___ adjusts the brightness of the spot by changing the voltage on the control grid
2849	In VTVMs, ___ is used to balance both halves of the difference amplifier or cathode-coupled amplifier
2850	The temperature coefficient of resistance of the shunt material is ___
2851	A transistor amplifier has high output impedance because ___
2852	Which coupling has the best frequency response?
2853	The size of a dc generator can be reduced by using ___
2854	The greatest percentage of the heat loss in a dc machine is due to ___
2855	In a dc generator armature reaction ___ pole tip
2856	The effect of armature reaction is to ___
2857	A separately excited dc generator is not used because ___
2858	The field winding of a dc shunt machine usually carries ___ of the rated current of the machine
2859	Difference between the speed of a rotating magnetic field and the associated rotor ___
2860	For the same rating, a dc machine has ___ an ac machine
2861	For a given dc generator, the generated voltage depends upon ___
2862	A triplex wave winding will have ___ parallel paths
2863	In a wave winding, the commutator pitch is approximately equal to ___
2864	What is the approcimate efficiency of large transformer?
2865	In a lap winding, the number of the brushes required is equal to ___
2866	High voltage dc machines use what winding ___
2867	The voltage regulation of an alternator is larger than of a dc generator because of ___
2868	The nature of armature winding of a dc machine is decided by ___
2869	The terminal voltage of a ___ generator vary widely with changes in load current
2870	A dc compound generator having full load terminal voltage equal to the no load generator voltage is called ___ generator
2871	In a dc machine the number of commutator segments is equal to ___
2872	The number of parallel paths in a simplex lap winding is equal to ___
2873	By laminating the core of a transformer, ___ decreases
2874	In a practical transformer, copper losses account for how many percent of the total losses?
2875	In a simplex wave winding, the number of parallel paths is equal to ___
2876	The commutator pitch for a simplex lap winding is equal to ___
2877	The greatest eddy current loss occurs in the of a dc machine ___
2878	The yoke of a dc machine carries ___ poke flux
2879	The armature winding of a dc machine is placed on the rotor to ___
2880	A machine with field excitation by botrh shunt and series windings ___
2881	The core type transformer provides ___
2882	Which DC machines are the most common ___
2883	The real working Part of a dc machine is the ___
2884	The coupling field between electrical and the mechanical systems of a dc machine is ___
2885	The winding of the transformer with greater number of turns will be ___
2886	The voltage per turn of the primary of a transformer is ___ the voltage per turn of the secondary
2887	The armature of a dc machine is made of ___
2888	The yoke of a dc machine is made of ___
2889	When the load on a transformer is increased, the eddy current loss ___
2890	Intermittent sparking at the brushes of dc motor may be caused due to ___
2891	Hot bearings of a dc motor may be caused by ___
2892	Excessive motor vibration is caused by ___
2893	The stator of an alternator is identical to that of a ___
2894	Majority of alternators in use have ___
2895	A graphical relation between the generated emf and the field current of a machine ___
2896	The temperature rise of a transformer is directly proportional to ___
2897	Excessive sparking at the brushes may caused due to ___
2898	The greatest percentage of power loss in a dc motor is due to ___
2899	The iron losses in a dc motor depend upon ___
2900	The effect of leakage flux in a transformer is to ___
2901	If a transformer core has air gaps then ___
2902	The friction and wind age losses in a dc motor depends upon ___
2903	When load is removed, the motote that will run at the highest speed is the ___ motor
2904	Which motor is used to start heavy loads?
2905	A galvanic cell resulting from difference in potential between adjacent on the surface of a metal immersed in an electrolyte ___
2906	What cell is used to detect infrared radiation, either its generated voltage or its change of résistance may be used as a measure of the intensity of the radiation ___
2907	For 20% increase in current, the motor that will give the greatest increase in torque is ___ motor
2908	The demand for a large increase in torque of a dc shunt motor is met by a ___
2909	The disadvantage of a short pitched coil is that ___
2910	The rotor of a turbo alternator is made cylindrical in order to reduce ___
2911	The deciding factor in the selection of a dc motor for a particular application is its ___ characteristics
2912	For the same rating ___ motor has the least starting torque
2913	When the secondary of a transformer is short circuited, the primary inductance ___
2914	After a shunt motor is up to speed the speed may be increased considerably by ___
2915	The distribution of load between two alternators operating in parallel can be changed by changing
2916	If the excitation of an alternator operating in parallel with pther alternators is decreased, its
2917	The running speed of a dc series motor is basically determined by ___
2918	The speed of a ___ motor is practically constant
2919	The open circuit test on a transformer gives ___
2920	In a very large dc motor with severe heavy duty, armature reaction effects are corrected by ___
2921	If the lagging load power factor of an alternator is decreased, the demagnetizing effect of the armature reaction
2922	The number of cycles generated in a 6 pole alternator in one revolution is ___
2923	In a dc motor, the brushes are shifted from the mechanical neutral palne in a direction opposite to the rotation to ___
2924	In the short circuit test in a transformer, ___ winding is generally short circuited
2925	The open circuit test on a transformer is always made on ___
2926	With respect to the direction of rotation, interpoles on a dc motor must have the same polarity as the main poles ___
2927	If a power transformer is operated at very high frequencies then ___
2928	An ideal transformer is one which ___
2929	Armature reaction in a dc motor is increased ___
2930	The shaft torque in a dc motor is less than total armature torque because of ___ in the motor
2931	DC machines which are subjected to abrupt changes of load are provided with ___
2932	The main drawback of a dc shunt generator is that ___
2933	Machine in which torque is produced by the interaction of ac current in the stator and dc currents in the rotor turning synchronism ___
2934	AC machine in which the torque is produced by the interaction of currents in the stator and currents induced in the motor by transformer action ___
2935	The torque developed by a dc motor is directly proportional to ___
2936	In case if a 4 pole machine, 1 mechanical degree corresponds to ___ electrical degree
2937	The frequency of emf generated in an 8 pole alternator at 900 rpm is ___
2938	When the speed of a dc motor increases, its armature current ___
2939	The salient pole construction for field structure of an alternator is generally used for ___ machine
2940	The field winding of an armature is ___ excited
2941	The transformer that should never have the secondary open circuited when primary is energized is ___
2942	The core type transformer is generally suitable for ___
2943	The mechanical power developed in a dc motor is maximum when back emf is equal to ___ the applied voltage
2944	Back emf in a dc motor is maximum at ___
2945	The synchronous reactance of an alternator is due to ___
2946	The back emf or counter emf in a dc motor ___
2947	Why are the field poles and the armature of a dc machine laminated ___
2948	The ac armature winding of an alternator operates at ___ the field of winding
2949	The current in armature conductors of a dc machine is ___
2950	A 4 pole dc machine has magnetic circuits ___
2951	The synchronous reactance of an alternator as the iron is saturated ___
2952	Why are carbon brushes preferable compared to copper brushes ___
2953	The stator of n alternator is wound for ___ on the rotor
2954	A dc motor is still used in industrial applications because it ___
2955	DC series motors are used in those applications where ___ required
2956	This synchronous reactance of an alternator is generally ___ armature resistance
2957	If the excitation of an alternator operating in parallel with other alternators is increased above the normal value excitation of excitation its ___
2958	A constant voltage source has ___
2959	When the primary of a transformer is connected to a dc supply ___
2960	The flux in the core o a single phase transformer is ___
2961	As the load increases a, ___ motor will speed uo
2962	The demand for a large increase in torque of a dc series motor is met by a ___
2963	To produce an output of 7.5v, how many carbon zinc cells are connected in series ___
2964	The armature of a dc machine is laminated in order to reduce ___
2965	Small Dc machines generally have ___ poles
2966	The field structure of a dc machine uses ___
2967	Which of the following is a dry storage cell ___
2968	A storage battery in which the plates consist if lead antimony supporting grids covered with a lead oxide paste immersed in weak sulfuric acid ___
2969	In an auto transformer, the primary and secondary are ___ coupled
2970	A transformer operates poorly at very low frequcnies because ___
2971	Two things which are same for primary and secondary of transformer are ___
2972	To increase current capacity, cells are connected in ___
2973	To increase the voltage output, cells are connected in ___
2974	An 8 pole duplex lap winding will have ___ parallel paths
2975	For given number of poles (2) and armature conductors, a lap winding will carry ___ a wave winding
2976	In an alternator, the effect of armature reaction is minimum at power factor of ___
2977	One of the following is a false statement ___
2978	What is the output of a lead acid cell ___
2979	The efficiency of the turbo-alternator ___ with increase in speed
2980	When the load on an alternator is increased, the terminal voltage increases if the load power factor is ___
2981	A series motor will over speed when ___
2982	A motor takes a large current at starting because ___
2983	Combination of ac motor, dc generator, and exciter to provide adjustable voltage dc power to a dc motor ___
2984	A series motor designed to operate on dc or ac ___
2985	What refers to a method in which the charger and the battery are always connected to each other for supplying current to the load ___
2986	Four carbon zinc cell in series will provide about ___
2987	A transformer is so designed that primary and secondary windings have ___
2988	The maximum flux produced in the core of a transformer is ___
2989	The common dry cell, which is a primary cell having a carbon positive electrode and a zinc negative electrode in an electrolyte of sal ammoniac and a depolarizer ___
2990	A storage battery in which the electrodes are grids of lead containing lead oxides that changes in composition during charging and discharging and the electrolyte is dilute sulfuric acid ___
2991	Connecting batteries of equal voltage in parallel ___
2992	If it must deliver an average of 2.0a, how long will the battery lat before it needs recharging ___
2993	The speed at which a 6 pole alternator should be drive to generate 50 cycles per second is ___
2994	The armature winding of a dc Machine is ___ winding
2995	The efficiency of a transformer will be at maximum when ___
2996	A transformer will have zero efficiency at ___
2997	A stand alone solar power system ___
2998	Which motor never use belt connected loads ___
2999	Cumulatively compounded motors are used in applications where ___ is required
3000	The rating of an alternator is expressed in ___
3001	The voltage of the bus bar to which several alternators are paralleled may be raised by simultaneously ___ of all alternators
3002	An example of rechargeable dc source is an/a ___
3003	Transformers having ratings less than 5kva are generally ___
3004	What can be found in a transformer with open-circuit test ___
3005	Three cells connected in series from a ___
3006	The amount of back emf of shunt motor will increase when ___
3007	A transformer is an efficient device because it ___
3008	The frequency of the system with which several alternators are parallel can be increased by simultaneously ___ of all generators
3009	A small 9V battery might be used to provide power to ___
3010	Overheating of a dc motor is often due to ___
3011	___ the primary leakage flux links
3012	Leclanche cell is the other name of ___
3013	Damper windings are used in alternators to ___
3014	The alternators driven by ___ do not have a tendency to hunt
3015	The voltage output of a cell depends on ___
3016	Which of the most suitable motor for elevator ___
3017	A dc series motor is most suitable for ___
3018	Nickel-iron cells is a secondary cell with a nominal open- circuit voltage output of 1.2 and is otherwise known as ___
3019	The air gap in an alternator is ___ in an induction machine
3020	The ac armature winding of an alternator is ___
3021	What gives the relative activity in forming ion charges for some of the chemical elements ___
3022	The most commonly used method of speed control of a dc motor is by vbarying ___
3023	Which is a variable speed motor?
3024	Silver cadmium is secondary cell with a nominal opne circuit voltage of ___
3025	In a vacuum cleaner, ___ motor is generally used
3026	Which is the most suitable for punch presses ___
3027	The voltage regulation of an alternator with a power factor of 0.8 lagging is ___ at unity power factor
3028	For the same rating ___ motor has the highest staring torque
3029	Galvanic cell is the other name of ___
3030	DC shunt motors are used in those applications where ___ is required
3031	A commutatively compounded motor does not run at dangerous speed at light loads because of the presence of ___
3032	A method of converting chemical energy into electric energy by dissolving two different conducting materials in an electrolyte ___
3033	Which motor has the best speed regulation ___
3034	Which of the following is the main function of a dc motor ___
3035	Considered as the main types of battery ___
3036	Carbon brushes are used in a dc machine because ___
3037	Which of the following is not a primary cell ___
3038	Which of the following is not a secondary cell ___
3039	For the same rating, the size of low speed alternator is ___ that of high speed alternator
3040	The common 9v flat battery for transistor radio has ___ cells connected ins series
3041	High speed alternators are driven by ___
3042	Low speed alternators are driven by ___
3043	The speed of a dc motor is ___
3044	What is the nominal output of an automotive battery having six lead acid cells in series ___
3045	In a chemical cell current is the movement of ___
3046	A transformer will work on ___
3047	Volt is a unit of ___
3048	Which of the following is the main function of a battery ___
3049	A ___ is a group of cells that generates electric energy from their internal chemical reaction
3050	When temperature of a pure semiconductor is increased, its resistance ___
3051	What factor is shown on a data sheet that tells how much you have to reduce the power of a device ___
3052	A circuit whose parameters change with voltage or current ___
3053	Another term for superconductor ___
3054	Which of the following is neither a basic physical law nor deliverable from one ___
3055	Under the conditions of maximum power transfer, a voltage source is delivering a power of 15 W to the load ___
3056	Which of the following capacitors has the highest cost per µF ___
3057	What theorem is usually used in the analysis of transistor circuit ___
3058	Which of the following represents the energy stored in a capacitor ___
3059	Another term of the quality factor of the resonant circuit ___
3060	What theorem is generally used in the analysis of vacuum tubes ___
3061	When capacitors are connected in series, the total capacitance is ___
3062	A capacitor of 0.5 µF charged to 220 V is connected across an uncharged 0.5 µF capacitor ___
3063	For maximum power transfer, what is the relation between load resistance ___
3064	The maximum power transfer theorem is used in ___
3065	Which of the following capacitors are used only in dc circuits ___
3066	Which factor does not affect resistance ___
3067	What is a rotating vector whose projection can represent either current or voltage in an ac circuit ___
3068	The arc across a switch when it open an RL circuit is a result of the ___
3069	When resistance are connected in parallel, the total resistance is ___
3070	An inductive load always has a ___ power factor
3071	What is the total capacitance of 10 capacitors, each of 20 µF in series ___
3072	Norton’s theorem is what form of an ac equivalent circuit ___
3073	The charging of a capacitor through a resistance follows what law ___
3074	What is the efficiency under the conditions of maximum power transfer ___
3075	The ratio between the reactive power and the apparent power of an ac load is called ___
3076	Which of the following combination of length and cross-sectional area will give a certain volume of copper the least resistance ___
3077	Thevenin’s theorem is what form of an equivalent circuit ___
3078	When current and voltage arte in phase in an ac circuit, the ___ is equal to zero
3079	When capacitors are connected in parallel, the total capacitance is ___
3080	Why are inductance and capacitance not relevant in a dc circuit ___
3081	Which of the following is the peakiest ___
3082	Form its definition, the unit of electric field, £ is the N/C and equivalent unit of £ is the ___
3083	The reason why electrical appliances are not connected in series ___
3084	A trimmer is a variable capacitor in which capacitance is varied by changing the ___
3085	When the temperature of copper wire is increased its resistance is ___
3086	The hot resistance of an incandescent lamp is about times its cold resistance ___
3087	If the capacitance of mica capacitor is 5 times the capacitance of air capacitor, then the relative permittivity of mica is ___
3088	A coil of inductance L has an inductive reactance of ___
3089	When two complex conjugates are subtracted, the result is a ___
3090	Rationalizing the denominator of a complex number means ___
3091	In a circuit, a passive element is one which ___
3092	When the movable plates of a gang capacitor completely overlap the fixed plates, the capacitance of the capacitor is ___
3093	If the inductance is decreased, the impedance of the circuit containing a resistor a capacitor and an inductor connected in series to an ac source ___
3094	The area of capacitor plates increases two times, then its capacitance ___
3095	In calculating maximum instantaneous power ___ voltage or current is used
3096	What fusion of elements is without chemical action between them ___
3097	A resistor wound with a wire doubled back on itself to reduce the inductance ___
3098	A switch designed to have low capacitance between its terminal when open ___
3099	What dielectric is generally employed by a variable capacitor ___
3100	A neon glow lamp used as a night light ionizes at approximately ___
3101	___ Of the equivalent combination of units, which one is not equal to watt?
3102	If a multiplate capacitor has 10 plates, each of ___
3103	The capacitance of a capacitor is ___ relative permittivity
3104	The power factor of a circuit is equal to ___
3105	In dividing or multiplying phasor quantities, ___ form is used
3106	In adding or subtracting phasor quantities, ___ form is the most convenient
3107	Which of the following dielectric materials makes the lowest-capacitance capacitor ___
3108	In an ac circuit, the power dissipated as heat depends on ___
3109	What is the time constant for L of 240 mH in series with R of 20 Ω  ___
3110	In a multiple capacitor, the plate area is ___
3111	The rms value of a triangular or sawtooth waveform is ___ times its peak value
3112	What is the rms value of a square wave ___
3113	If a coil has a Q of 10, it means that ___
3114	An impedance given by 90²-45˚ is a/an ___ impedance
3115	A lead conductor has a resistance of 25 fi at 0 ËšC ___
3116	For a carbon composition resistor, typical resistance values range from ___
3117	What determines the magnitude of electric current ___
3118	If one resistance in a series connection is open, then ___
3119	Which of the following is a common material used in wire-wound resistors ___
3120	Which of the following has negative temperature coefficient ___
3121	The reciprocal of a complex number is ___
3122	In a complex number 5 + j 10, 10 is called ___ part
3123	When two coils of identical reactance are in parallel without mutual inductance, the reactance of the combination is ___ the reactance of each coil
3124	For a linear circuit, ___ voltage or current is used to calculate average power
3125	A linear circuit is one whose parameters ___
3126	What is the most convenient way of achieving large capacitance ___
3127	In the 5-band method of capacitor color coding, the first band indicates ___
3128	Barium-strontium titanite dielectric material is also called ___
3129	An inductor carries 2 A dc ___
3130	What increases the resistance of wire at high frequencies ___
3131	Inductive reactance applies only to sine waves because it ___
3132	For greater accuracy, the value of phase angle θ should be determined from ___
3133	Delta to wye or wye to delta transformation technique is applied to a ___ network
3134	The wavelength of an alternating waveform depends upon the ___ of the variation
3135	The resistance of an insulator ___ when its temperature is increased
3136	Which of the following is a disadvantage of a wire-wound resistor ___
3137	The result of rust in electrical (wire) connection is ___
3138	The mutual inductance between two coils is ___ the reluctance of magnetic path
3139	What does a capacitor store ___
3140	If voltage across the plates of 2 F capacitor is increased by 4 V, then charge on the plates will ___
3141	Refers to the outward-curving distortion of the lines of force near the edges of two parallel metal plates that form a capacitor ___
3142	The power factor of a certain circuit in which the voltage lags behind the current is 80 % ___
3143	What is the purpose of a load in an electric circuit ___
3144	Which of the following does not generally affect the value of a capacitor ___
3145	How many degrees of phase represents one full cycle ___
3146	When the power factor of a circuit is zero, ___
3147	The ratio between the active power and the apparent power of a load in an ac circuit is called ___
3148	The distance between the capacitor plates increases two times, then its capacitance ___
3149	Which of the following materials has the lowest dielectric strength ___
3150	What is expected when two 20 kΩ , 1 watt resistor in parallel are use instead of one 10 kΩ , 1 watt ___
3151	What maximum voltage can be applied across the capacitor for very short period of time ___
3152	If a certain circuit has a current that is lagging the voltage by 45Ëš, then it displays ___
3153	For a series AC circuit, ___ is not used as a reference phasor
3154	For a parallel AC circuit, ___ is used as a reference phasor
3155	What can be used to estimate resonant frequency and to find reactance at any frequency for any value of capacitor or inductor ___
3156	What is the total effective capacitance of two 0.25 µF capacitors connected in series ___
3157	The curve between current and frequency is termed as ___
3158	If the output resistance of a voltage source is 4 Ω , it internal resistance should be ___
3159	What is the reciprocal of capacitance ___
3160	A series RL circuit has R of 10 fi and XL of ___
3161	Which of the following capacitors is suitable for dc filter circuits ___
3162	What is the most common non-sinusoidal waveform?
3163	The capacitor opposes any change in voltage across it by ___
3164	The temperature-resistance coefficient of pure gold is ___
3165	When frequency of an ac wave decreases, the value of XL in a coil ___
3166	How many coulombs are delivered by a storage battery in 25 hours if it is supplying current at the rate of 3 A ___
3167	A capacitor consists of two ___
3168	For multi-plate capacitor, capacitance is proportional to ___
3169	The electric field strength between capacitor plates has a unit of ___
3170	What is the value of a carbon composition resistor with the following color code ___
3171	A three-by-three, series-parallel matrix of resistors, all having the same ohmic value, would have a net resistance of ___
3172	Which of the following is a preferred resistor value ___
3173	The second strip of an electronic resistor color-code represents ___
3174	The usual load of a dc circuit is a/an ___
3175	A capacitor is used to ___
3176	Refers specifically to steady state values of quantities in ac circuits which are complex numbers ___
3177	If two resistances of 9 Ω  and 6 Ω  are connected in parallel, the total resistance is ___
3178	For a triangular and sawtooth waveform the rms voltage or current equals ___
3179	What is the resonant frequency of a circuit when L of 3 microhenrys and C of 40 picofarads are in series ___
3180	Capacitance increase with ___
3181	What refers to the lowest voltage across any insulator that can cause current flow ___
3182	The temperature coefficient of resistance of electrolytes is ___
3183	With double the number of turns by the same length and area, the inductance is ___
3184	A term used to express the amount of electrical energy stored in electrostatic field ___
3185	Tungsten filament of bulbs has a hot resistance higher than its cold resistance due to its temperature coefficient which is ___
3186	Liquids that are good conductors because of ionization are called ___
3187	When two in-phase sine waves that have identical frequency and amplitude are added together, then the result is a sine wave with ___ the amplitude of either
3188	The factor 0.707 for converting peak to rms applies only to ___
3189	A 5 µF capacitor charge to 5V has a stored charge equal to ___
3190	A capacitance of 0.05 µF equals ___
3191	What is the specific resistance of a pure silicon ___
3192	The charging of a capacitor through a resistance obeys ___
3193	Which of the following is a way of decreasing mutual inductance ___
3194	When the net reactance in a series coil-capacitor circuit is zero at frequency f, the nature of its reactance of frequency 2f is ___
3195	In a complex resistance-reactance plane ___
3196	Metal tin becomes superconductor at approximately ___
3197	A rheostat is a form of ___
3198	In a parallel bank with unequal branch resistances ___
3199	In a series circuit with unequal resistances the ___
3200	Which waveform in which the rms value and the mean value are equal ___
3201	For parallel capacitors, total charge is ___
3202	High resistance values are a consequence of the ___ of the film
3203	Which of the following describes the action of a capacitor ___
3204	What is the cross-sectional are of a conductor whose diameter is 0.001 inch ___
3205	A real current source has ___
3206	When two unequal values of resistors are connected in parallel across a dc source, greater current flows through the ___
3207	The reason why alternating current can induce voltage is ___
3208	When voltage is applied across a ceramic dielectric the electrostatic field produced is 50 times greater than air dielectric ___
3209	Which of the following is not a factor affecting capacitance of a basic capacitor ___
3210	It is impossible to change the voltage across a capacitor instantly, as this would produce ___ current
3211	The ratio of the flux density to the electric field intensity in the dielectric is called ___
3212	Which of the following has a positive temperature coefficient ___
3213	An inductive circuit of resistance 16.5 Ω  and inductance of 0.14 H takes a current of 25 A. if the frequency is 50 Hz, find the supply voltage ___
3214	The ___ of an alternating quantity is defined as the fractional part of a period or cycle through which the quantity has advanced from selected origin
3215	A series-parallel combination of identical resistors will ___
3216	A wire of one kilometre length has a resistance of 20 Ω  ___
3217	The admittance of a parallel RLC circuit is found to be the sum of conductance and susceptances ___
3218	Which of the following is the statement of Ohm’s law ___
3219	What value of R is needed with a 0.05 µF C for an RC time constant of 0.02 s ___
3220	Norton’s theorem is ___ Thevenin’s theorem
3221	An open resistor when checked with an ohmmeter reads ___
3222	According to Gauss theorem, flux can be equated to ___
3223	If an emf in circuit A produces a current in circuit B, then the same emf in circuit B produces the same current in circuit A. this theorem is known as ___
3224	If two complex conjugates are added, ___ components results
3225	When two pure sine waves of the same frequency and the same amplitude which are exactly 180Ëš out-of-phase are added together, the result is ___
3226	Parallel resonant circuit is sometimes called as ___
3227	Series resonant circuit is sometimes known as ___
3228	For series capacitors, total charge is ___
3229	The ratio of maximum value to the effective value of an alternating quantity is called ___
3230	What is the total resistance of a two equal valued resistors in series ___
3231	A capacitor opposes change in ___
3232	A capacitor requires 12 µC of charge to raise its potential of 3 V ___
3233	Electric energy refers to ___
3234	What is the conductance of a circuit having three 10 fi resistors in parallel ___
3235	The internal resistance of an ideal voltage source is ___
3236	What is a closed path made of several branches of the network called ___
3237	Which statement is true about a passive circuit ___
3238	What is the hot resistance of a 100 W, 220 V incandescent lamp ___
3239	An electric circuit contains ___
3240	In a circuit, an active element is one which ___
3241	Which of the following dielectric materials makes the highest-capacitance capacitor ___
3242	In a rectangular wave, the form factor is ___
3243	What is the form factor of a triangular wave ___
3244	The Q-factor of a series resonant circuit is also known as ___
3245	The Q-factor of a parallel resonant circuit is also known as ___
3246	The potential gradient in a cable is maximum in ___
3247	What is the complex impedance of a circuit with an absolute resistance of 300 Ω ?
3248	Which of the following elements is active ___
3249	Which of the statements below is not true ___
3250	The ohmic value of a resistor with negative temperature coefficient ___
3251	In a pure capacitance, ___
3252	In an RL series circuit, ___
3253	In a rectangular wave, the peak factor is ___
3254	At parallel resonance, the currents flowing through L and C are ___
3255	An alloy composed of 84 % copper, 12 % manganese and 4 % nickel ___
3256	A factor that states how much the resistance changes for a change in temperature ___
3257	What refers to such work at very low temperatures, near absolute zero ___
3258	The superposition theorem is used when the circuit contains ___
3259	Which of the following is not a factor affecting dielectric strength ___
3260	What is the peak factor for alternating current or voltage varying sinusiodally ___
3261	Which component opposes voltage change ___
3262	The farad is not equivalent to which of the following combination of units ___
3263	The unit of elastance is ___
3264	Voltage resonance means ___
3265	Leakage resistance in a capacitor results into ___
3266	In an ac circuit with XL and R in series, the
3267	In an ac circuit with a resistive branch and an inductive branch in parallel, the ___
3268	Two complex numbers or phasors are said to be conjugate if they ___
3269	In an inductive coil, the rate of rise of current is maximum ___
3270	A capacitor is basically constructed of ___
3271	An inductance of 1 mH is ___
3272	If three 100-pF capacitors are connected in series, then the total capacitance is ___
3273	The internal resistance of an ideal current source is ___
3274	“Any resistance R in a branch of a network in which a current I is flowing can be replaced by a voltage equal to IR” ___
3275	For a series circuit, the higher the quality factor ___
3276	The reactance curve is a plot of frequency versus ___ for a series RLC circuit
3277	The charge in the capacitor is stored at the ___
3278	The voltage cannot be exactly in phase with the current in a circuit that contains ___
3279	A capacitance of 6 µµF means ___
3280	And ideal current source has an internal conductance of ___ siemen(s)
3281	What is the resonant frequency of a circuit when L of 25 microhenrys and C of 10 picofarads are in parallel ___
3282	Which of the following does not refer to electrical energy ___
3283	Which of the following is the most popular waveform ___
3284	The graph between an alternating quantity and time is called ___
3285	A trigger circuit consisting of a capacitor of 0.01 µF is connected in series with a resistor ___
3286	A 0.09 microfarad capacitor is charged to 220 volts ___
3287	Which of the following is not considered a physical factor affecting resistance ___
3288	Which of the following does not affect resistance ___
3289	The reason why electrical appliances are connected in parallel ___
3290	What determines the direction of induced emf in a conductor or coil ___
3291	Loop currents should be assumed to flow in which direction ___
3292	The impedance in the study of electronics is represented by resistance and ___
3293	Permeability is otherwise known as ___
3294	Points to be considered in choosing a capacitor ___
3295	Effects of capacitance ___
3296	What is the peak factor of a triangular wave ___
3297	A series RLC circuit consists of a 10 Ω  resistor in series with L = 10 µH, and C = 100 µF ___
3298	The average value of a triangular or sawtooth wave is ___ times its peak value
3299	What capacitance exists not through design but simply because two conducting surfaces are relatively close to each other ___
3300	What is the reading of an ohmmeter for a shorted capacitor ___
3301	An open inductor has ___
3302	What rating of a resistor determines its ability to absorb heat ___
3303	Transient period is considered over after ___
3304	Which one of the following elements serves as a protection against overload ___
3305	What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 3.6 MHz and Q of 218 ___
3306	At what frequency will the current in a series RLC circuit reach its maximum value for ___
3307	At what frequency will the current in a series RLC circuit reach its maximum value for an applied voltage of ___
3308	The value of temperature coefficient (a) is dependent upon ___
3309	An intermittent and non-symmetrical alternating current like that obtained from the secondary winding of an induction coil ___
3310	An ac series circuit is composed of a resistance of 20 Ω , inductive reactance of 40 Ω , and a capacitive reactance of 15 Ω  ___
3311	What is considered as the most important value of a sine wave ___
3312	Which statement is true ___
3313	If resonant frequency is 10 kHz and quality factor is 50, then ___
3314	If a capacitor is rated for 200V dc, what is its effective ac working voltage ___
3315	The open-circuit voltage at the terminal of load RL is 60V ___
3316	Which is considered as the effect of a dielectric material ___
3317	As applied to a series RLC circuit, bandwidth means ___
3318	What is the temperature coefficient of the resistance Eureka ___
3319	A capacitive load always has a ___ power factor
3320	A tank circuit is a ___
3321	Kirchhoff’s laws (KCL and KVL) are applicable to ___
3322	A series RLC circuit has a power factor at its half-power points ___
3323	Two capacitors of capacitance 9 µF and 18 µF in series will have a total capacitance of ___
3324	What is the specific resistance of a pure germanium ___
3325	If three 9 mH inductors are connected in parallel without mutual inductance then the total inductance is ___
3326	In an ac circuit with inductive reactance, the ___
3327	The current is ___ times the maximum current at half-power points of a resonance curve
3328	In a resonant circuit, if Q ≤ 10 resonant frequency ___ bandwidth
3329	Resistor with colored bands in the body ___
3330	In a series RLC circuit ___
3331	What is the other name of relative permittivity ___
3332	Property of an electric circuit that dissipates electric energy ___
3333	At what frequency will an inductor of 5mH have the same reactance as a capacitor of 0.1 µF ___
3334	VL = VC in a series RLC circuit when ___
3335	In liquids and gases, ionization current results from a flow of ___
3336	What is the reciprocal of quality factor ___
3337	The ratio of W/VA in an ac circuit means ___
3338	The symbol Q refers to ___
3339	Series resonance occurs when ___
3340	Electron flow assumes charges flow from ___
3341	Conventional flow assumes charges flow from ___
3342	When a current carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field, the maximum force will act on the conductor when the conductor is at an angle of ___ to the magnetic field
3343	The direction of force o a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field can be found by ___
3344	At/m is a unit of ___
3345	The flux density in an air-cored coil is ___
3346	When the relative permeability of a material is much greater than 1, it is called ___ material
3347	The greater percentage of materials is ___
3348	Which of the following is a diamagnetic material ___
3349	When the relative permeability of a material is slightly more than 1, it is called ___ material
3350	When the relative permeability of a material is slightly less than 1, it is called ___ material
3351	The permeability of a material having a flux density of ___
3352	As the magnetic intensity decreases, the relative permeability of a magnetic material ___
3353	A magnetic pole produces 5000 field lines ___
3354	Which of the following has the highest permeability ___
3355	The relative permeability of a magnetic material is ___
3356	The force acting on a pole of 5 Wb is 25 N ___
3357	Magnetic field intensity is a ___ quantity
3358	What is the typical saturation flux density for most magnetic materials ___
3359	The unit of flux density is ___
3360	One weber of flux is equal to ___ magnetic lines of force
3361	Two similar poles, each 1Wb, placed 1 m apart in air will experience a repulsive force of ___
3362	The force between two magnetic poles is ___ the relative permeability of the medium
3363	If the distance between two magnetic poles decreases by 2 times, the force between them ___
3364	The force between two magnetic poles is ___ their pole strengths
3365	Temporary magnets are commonly employed in ___
3366	Permanent magnets can be found in ___
3367	What is the main advantage of temporary magnets ___
3368	Which of the following is used by temporary magnets as the magnetic material ___
3369	Which of the following is used by permanent magnets as the magnetic material ___
3370	One farad equals ___
3371	What is used as the dielectric material in high voltage transformers ___
3372	What is used as the insulating material or dielectric in an electric ion ___
3373	Which of the following materials has the highest dielectric strength ___
3374	What is the other name for dielectric strength ___
3375	The electric potential across part AB of a circuit is 5 V; point A being at higher potential ___
3376	The electric potential at a point in air due to a charge is 21 V ___
3377	Electric potential is a ___ quantity
3378	The potential at a point due to a charge is 15 V ___
3379	Three charges of +5 C, -6 C and +9 C are placed inside a sphere ___
3380	Electric field intensity at a point is numerically equal to ___ at that point
3381	The permittivity of a material is given by one of the following formulas ___
3382	The electric flux density is a ___ quantity
3383	The electric field intensity between the parallel plate air capacitor is 20 N/C ___
3384	Electric field intensity at a point due to a given charge ___ if the relative permittivity of the medium decreases
3385	Electric field intensity is a ___
3386	Electric field intensity is measured in ___
3387	Electric lines of force leave or enter the charge surface at an angle of ___
3388	A test charge means a charge of ___
3389	The dielectric constant of most materials lies between ___
3390	What is another name for relative permittivity ___
3391	The force between two charges placed a given distance apart ___ as the relative permittivity of the medium is increased
3392	If the relative permittivity of a material is 10, then its permittivity is ___
3393	If two similar charges 1 coulomb each are placed 1 m apart in air, then the force of repulsion is ___
3394	What is the relative permittivity of air ___
3395	What is the value of the absolute permittivity of air ___
3396	This paper does not exhibit electricity because it contains the same number of ___
3397	A negatively charge body has ___
3398	A positively charged body has ___
3399	Under ordinary conditions, a body is considered ___
3400	The hot resistance of an incandescent lamp is about its cold resistance ___
3401	A 200-watt lamp working for 24 hours will consume approximately units ___
3402	What is the practical unit of electrical energy ___
3403	Ohm’s law cannot be applied to which material ___
3404	If the value of a25 a conductor is ___
3405	If the value of a0 a conductor is ___
3406	The temperature coefficient of resistance of eureka is ___
3407	The temperature coefficient of resistance of insulators is ___
3408	The temperature coefficient of resistance of a conductor ___ with an increase in temperature
3409	What determines the value of the temperature coefficient of resistance of a material ___
3410	The temperature coefficient of resistance of semiconductors is ___
3411	The temperature coefficient of resistance of conductors is ___
3412	What is the SI unit of conductivity ___
3413	If the resistance of a material 2 m long and ___
3414	What is the SI unit of conductance ___
3415	The resistivity of a conductor ___ with an increase in temperature
3416	A length of wire has a resistance of 10 ohms ___
3417	If the length and area of cross-section of a wire are doubled, then its resistance ___
3418	The resistance of a material is its area of cross-section ___
3419	Electromotive force in a circuit ___
3420	Electronic current in a wire is the flow of ___ electrons
3421	A one cubic cm of copper has how many free electrons at room temperature ___
3422	One coulomb of charge consists of ___ electrons
3423	If the number of valence electrons of an atom is less than 4, then the substance is probably ___
3424	If the number of valence electrons of an atom is exactly 4, then the substance is called ___
3425	If the number of valence electrons of an atom is more than 4, the substance is called ___
3426	If the number of valence electrons of an atom is less than 4, the substance is called ___
3427	The electrons in the last orbit of an atom are called ___ electrons
3428	What is the maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the last orbit of an atom ___
3429	The mass of proton is ___ the mass of an electron
3430	Hipernik is an alloy containing iron and ___ nickel
3431	___ is a substance of whose molecules consist of the same kind of atom
3432	What is the measure of the density and sign of the electric charge at a point relative to that at some time ___
3433	Hysteresis is a phenomenon of ___ in a magnetic circuit
3434	There are how many compounds available in nature ___
3435	If the magnetic material is located within a coil through which alternating current (60 Hz frequency) flows, then ___ hysteresis loops will be formed every second
3436	The magnetic materials should have a large hysteresis loss for one of the following applications ___
3437	Core materials of a good relay have ___ hysteresis loop
3438	Which of the following materials has the least hysteresis loop area ___
3439	The core of a transformer heats up when its primary is fed from an ac source because of ___
3440	Hysteresis loss can be reduced by one of the following ___
3441	A magnetizing force of 1000 AT/m will produce a flux density of ___ in air
3442	What is the SI unit of reluctance ___
3443	If a magnetic flux cuts across 200 turns at a rate of 2Wb/s, the induced voltage according to Faraday’s law is about ___
3444	The B-H curve of is not a straight line ___
3445	The phenomenon that when an electric current passes through an anisotropic crystal, there is an absorption or liberation of heat due to the non-uniformity in current distribution ___
3446	The B-H curve for ___ is a straight line passing through the origin
3447	Another term for corona discharge ___
3448	The reluctance of a magnetic circuit is not dependent on which of the following ___
3449	The science of adapting electronics to aerospace flight ___
3450	What is the usual value of leakage coefficient for electrical machines ___
3451	The reluctance of a magnetic circuit varies with ___
3452	Theory of ferromagnetic phenomena which assumes each atom is a permanent magnet which can turn freely about its center under the influence of applied field and other magnets ___
3453	A law relating between the magnetic and electric susceptibilities and the absolute temperatures which is followed b ferromagnets, antiferromagnets, non-polar ferroelectrics, antiferroelectrics and some paramagnets ___
3454	The reluctance of the magnetic circuit is ___ relative permeability of the material comprising the circuit
3455	A law stating that the magnetic susceptibilities of most paramagnetic substances are inversely proportional to their absolute temperatures ___
3456	The conduction of electricity across the surface of a dielectric is called ___
3457	A factor used to correct for the electrostatic forces of the more distant ions in an ionic solid ___
3458	Defined as the ratio of the volume occupied by the atoms or ions in a unit cell divided by the volume of the unit cell and is used to measure the compactness of a crystal ___
3459	Formed when there exist distant electronic interactions between (opposite) charges present in the neighboring atoms or molecules ___
3460	Permeance of a magnetic circuit is the cross-sectional area of the circuit ___
3461	What type of bond is formed when there exists some form of collective interactions between the (negatively charged) electrons and (positively charged) nuclei in a solid ___
3462	Why is it that the magnitude of magnetomotive force required for air gap is much greater than that required for iron part of a magnetic circuit ___
3463	What bond is formed when electrons in the outermost energy orbits of the atoms are shared between two or more electrons ___
3464	In electro-mechanical conversion devices like generators and motors the reason why a small air gap is left between the rotor and stator is to ___
3465	What bond is formed when one or more electrons in the outermost energy orbit of an atom are transferred to another ___
3466	A principle that states that only two electrons with different spins are allowed to exist in a given orbit ___
3467	Amorphous solid is also called ___
3468	What solid has no defined crystal structure except perhaps in the arrangement of the nearest neighboring atoms or ions ___
3469	Mmf in a magnetic circuit corresponds to ___ in an electric circuitmc
3470	One of the solid structures in which the position of the atoms or ions are predetermined ___
3471	What determines the atomic number of an element ___
3472	A 6- V battery is connected across a solenoid of 100 turns having a resistance of 2 Ω , Calculate the number of ampere turns ___
3473	How many turns are needed to produce a magnetomotive force of 1000 A.t for a coil with 6 amperes ___
3474	Calculate the flux density that will be produced by the field intensity of ___
3475	Calculate the permeability (in T/A. t/m) of a magnetic material that has a relative permeability of ___
3476	What is the reluctance of a magnetic path having a length of ___
3477	If a 20 V potential is applied across a relay coil with 50 turns having 1 Ω  of resistance, the total magnetomotive producing magnetic flux in the circuit is ___
3478	A magnetic flux of ___
3479	The magnetic flux through a coil changes ___
3480	Back emf refers to the ___
3481	The magnetic field around the conductor is determined by the ___
3482	When the current flows, the magnetic field ___ conductor is in what direction
3483	Ohm’s law can be used only to a ___ circuit or component
3484	A magnetic field is ___
3485	How is mutual inductance between two coils decreased ___
3486	One of the common application of an air- cored choke ___
3487	The magnetic energy stored in an inductor is ___ current
3488	The force between two magnetic poles is ___ their poles strength
3489	A t/m is a unit of ___
3490	The permeability of permalloy is ___
3491	Which of the following is a paramagnetic material ___
3492	The core of a magnetic equipment uses a magnetic material with ___
3493	Magnetic intensity is a ___
3494	Residual magnetism refers to the flux density, which exists in the iron core when the magnetic field intensity is ___
3495	How many electrons are needed in the valence orbit to give a material’s stability ___
3496	Which of the following statements is TRUE ___
3497	The energy stored in an electrostatic field or electromagnetic field is called ___
3498	What principle states that each electron in an atom must have a different set of quantum numbers ___
3499	Gases whose particles are charged are known as ___
3500	Electron is a Greek word for ___
3501	The evaporation of electrons from a heated surface is called ___
3502	Cobalt is an example of a ___ material
3503	Hydrogen is an example of a ___ material
3504	Hysteresis refers to the ___ between flux density of the material and the magnetizing force applied
3505	An atom or a group of atoms that carries a net electric charge ___
3506	A negative ion results when an atom gains an additional ___
3507	Which element has four valence electrons ___
3508	A good conductor has how many valence electrons ___
3509	Which of the following has the least number of valence electrons ___
3510	Electrons at the outer shell are called ___
3511	The unit of electrical energy is ___
3512	An electron- volt (eV) is a unit of ___
3513	One oersted (Oe) is equivalent to ___ Gb/cm
3514	How much is the flux in Weber in the above problem ___
3515	The magnetic flux of 2000 lines is how many Maxwells ___
3516	One ampere- turn is equivalent to ___ gilberts
3517	The customary energy unit in atomic and nuclear physics is ___
3518	Flux density is measured in ___
3519	The unit of flux is ___ in cgs system
3520	What is the cgs unit of magnetomotive force ___
3521	What is the unit of magnetomotive force ___
3522	What is the SI unit of magnetic flux ___
3523	What is the unit of reluctance ___
3524	The quantity maxwells is equivalent to one ___
3525	Which of the following electric quantities is vector in character ___
3526	Which of the following is a vector quantity ___
3527	Flux linkages equals ___
3528	The physical motion resulting from the forces of magnetic fields is called ___
3529	The idea of preventing one component from affecting another through their common electric and magnetic field is referred to as ___
3530	A commercial alloy of aluminum nickel, and iron with cobalt, copper and titanium added to produce about 12 grades ___
3531	An alloy of 40 percent iron and 60 percent nickel ___
3532	An alloy of 22 percent iron and 78 per cent nickel ___
3533	Bonding of atoms that is due to the force of attraction between positive ions and a group of negative ions ___
3534	How many neutrons does a copper atom have ___
3535	A germanium atom has an atomic weight of 72 ___
3536	Germanium atom has ___ protons and ___ electrons
3537	The K shell or the first shell has how many permissible number of orbiting electrons ___
3538	The uncharged particles which have no effect on its atomic charge ___
3539	What revolves about the positive nucleus in a definite orbit ___
3540	The simplest type of atom to exist is the ___ atom
3541	All matters (gas, liquid and solid) are composed of ___
3542	The tiniest element of matter ___
3543	The contribution to the ionization in an ionization chamber by electrons liberated from the walls ___
3544	An effect which is generally used in the gausameter to measure flux density ___
3545	The ability of a mechanically stressed ferromagnetic wire to recognize rapid switching of magnetization when subjected to a dc magnetic field ___
3546	The emission of electrons from hot bodies is called ___
3547	Small voltages generated by a conductor with current in an external magnetic field ___
3548	A magnetic material losses its ferromagnetic properties at a point called ___
3549	Is an electromagnet with its core in the form of a close magnetic ring ___
3550	Permeability means ___
3551	The force between two magnetic poles varies with the distance between them ___
3552	A group of magnetically aligned atoms is called ___
3553	Paramagnetic substance has a relative permeability of ___
3554	Steel is hard to magnetize because of its ___
3555	The magnetic flux through a wire loop in a magnetic field does not depend on ___
3556	When a wire loop is rotated in a magnetic field the direction of the induced emf changes one in every revolution ___
3557	The induced emf in a wire loop that is moved parallel to a uniform magnetic field is ___
3558	The emf produced in a wire by its motion across a magnetic field does not depend upon the ___
3559	A current if flowing east along a power line ___
3560	A permanent magnet does not exert a force on ___
3561	The magnetic field of a bar magnet most closely resembles the magnetic field of ___
3562	When the ferromagnetic substance is inserted in a current- carrying solenoid, the magnetic field is ___
3563	The magnetic field inside a solenoid ___
3564	All magnetic field originates from ___
3565	Used to maintain strength of magnetic field ___
3566	Magnetic effects of the earth as a huge magnet with north and south poles ___
3567	One that has magnetic poles produced by internal atomic structure with no external current necessary
3568	The air space between poles of magnets ___
3569	Refers to the non- metallic materials that have the ferromagnetic properties of iron ___
3570	Refers to the magnetic lines ___
3571	The lagging effect between flux density of the material and the magnetizing force applied ___
3572	The ratio between the intensity of magnetization produced in a substance to the magnetizing force producing it ___
3573	The force acting on a unit n- pole placed at that point is called ___
3574	Defined as the flux density produced in it due to its own induced magnetism ___
3575	Defined as the number of lines per unit area through any substance in a plane at right angles to the lines of force ___
3576	The ratio of the total flux (flux in iron path) to the useful flux (flux in air gap) ___
3577	The amount of magnetizing force to counter balance the residual magnetism of a magnetic material is referred to as ___
3578	The quantity of magnetism retained by a magnetic material after withdrawal of the magnetizing force is called ___
3579	The property of magnetic materials of retaining magnetism after withdrawal of the magnetizing force is known as ___
3580	Permeance is analogous to ___
3581	The ratio of the permeability of material to the permiabiity of air or vacuum ___
3582	The ability of a material to conduct magnetic flux through it ___
3583	It is the reciprocal of reluctance and implies the case of readiness with which magnetic flux is developed ___
3584	The property of a material which opposes the creation of magnetic flux in it ___
3585	Referred to as the specific reluctance of a material ___
3586	The force which set ups or tends to set up magnetic flux in a magnetic circuit ___
3587	Defined as a closed path in which magnetic induction or flux flows ___
3588	What is the diameter of an atom ___
3589	The current of electric circuit is analogous to which quantity of a magnetic circuit ___
3590	Materials that have very high permeabilities (hundreds and even thousands times of that of free space) ___
3591	Materials whose permeabilities are slightly greater than that of free space ___
3592	Which of the following materials has permeability slightly less than that of free space ___
3593	Which of the following magnetic materials can be easily magnetized in both direction ___
3594	The phenomenon by which a magnetic substance becomes a magnet when it is place near a magnet ___
3595	The total number of magnetic lines of force in a magnetic field is called ___
3596	The space outside the magnet where its pole have a force of attraction or repulsion on a magnetic pole is called ___
3597	The branch of Engineering which deals with the magnetic effect of electric current is known as ___
3598	The straight line passing through the two poles of magnet is called ___
3599	The point in a magnet where the intensity of magnetic lines of force is maximum ___
3600	Define as that pole which when placed in air from a similar and equal pole repels it with a force of newtons ___
3601	Which of the following is a natural magnet ___
3602	The phenomenon by which a subtracts pieces of iron ___
3603	A substance that attracts pieces iron ___
3604	The magnetic potential in a magnetic circuit can be measured in terms of ___
3605	When a conductor is stationary and the magnetic field is moving or changing the emf induced is called ___
3606	The emf induced in a coil due to the changing current of another neighbouring coil is called ___
3607	The emf induced in a coil due to the change of its own flux linked with it is called ___
3608	The process by which an emf and hence current is generated or induced in a conductor when there is a change in the magnetic flux linking the conductor is called ___
3609	If the solenoid is gripped by the right hand with the fingers pointing the direction of current flow, the outstretched thumb will then point the north pole ___
3610	If on looking at any one end of a solenoid; the direction of current flow is found to be clockwise then the end under observation is a south pole ___
3611	If you hold the conductor with right hand so that the stretched thumb points in the direction of the current, then encircling fingers will give the direction of magnetic lines of force round the conductor ___
3612	Lenz’ law states that the direction of the induced emf and hence current ___
3613	Lenz’s law is the consequence of the law of conservation of ___
3614	The net electrical charge in an isolated system remains constant ___
3615	A law establishing the fact that the algebraic su of the rises and drops of the mmf around a closed loop of a magnetic circuit is equal to zero ___
3616	States that the ratio of the thermal conductivity is proportional to the absolute temperature for all metals ___
3617	A law that states that the polarity of the induced voltage will oppose the change in magnetic flux causing the induction ___
3618	Whenever a conductor cuts magnetic flux, an emf is induced in it ___
3619	The force of attraction or repulsion between two magnetic poles is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them ___
3620	The force of attraction or repulsion between two magnetic poles is directly proportional to their strengths ___
3621	Whenever a flux inking a coil or current changes, an emf is induced in it ___
3622	The magnitude of the induced emf in a coil is directly proportional to the rate of change of flux linkages ___
3623	Who discovered superconductivity in 1911 ___
3624	Who demonstrated that there are magnetic effects around every current-carrying conductor and that current-carrying conductors can attract and repel each other just like magnets ___
3625	Who discovered the most important electrical effects which is the magnetic effect ___
3626	Who discovered that a current-carrying conductor would move when placed in a magnetic field ___
3627	Who developed the electromagnetic theory of light in 1862 ___
3628	Who demonstrated the theory of electromagnetic induction in 1831 ___
3629	Who discovered the relationship between magnetism and electricity that serves as the foundation for the theory of electromagnetism ___
3630	In order to achieve accuracy, the slide wire of a potentiometer should be ___
3631	Both X and Y plates of a CRO are excited by ac signals ___
3632	A digital voltmeter has a 4 1/2 digit display ___
3633	Compositional analysis of ___ is done using mass spectrometer
3634	The high voltage side of each step-down transformer has a remote-operated disconnect ___
3635	A 480 VAC motor control center supplies a load through a breaker and a manual disconnect switch ___
3636	The high voltage side of each step-down transformer has a remote-operated disconnect to allow transformer maintenance while keeping the other transformers in service ___
3637	What is an advantage of using high-voltage disconnect switches instead of breakers to isolate main power transformers ___
3638	The function of high-voltage disconnect switches is to provide ___ electrical isolation of equipment during ___ conditions
3639	Typical high-voltage transformer disconnect switches are designed to ___
3640	High voltage electrical disconnects should not be used to ___
3641	High-voltage disconnect switches are used to ___
3642	Which one of the following results from a loss of control power to a breaker supplying a motor ___
3643	Loss of breaker control power will cause ___
3644	If a breaker is racked to the TEST position, the ___
3645	If the alternate set of parameter values had existed just before the breaker was closed, the resulting main generator MW value would have been ___; and the resulting main generator MVAR (in) value would have been ___
3646	The main generator output breaker was just closed to connect the main generator to the main transformer ___
3647	If a main generator output breaker is closed when the generator output voltage is 90 degrees out of phase with the power grid voltage, the main generator will experience a ___ stress
3648	If a main generator output breaker is closed when the generator output voltage is 5 degrees out of phase with the power grid voltage, the main generator will experience a ___ stress
3649	A main generator output breaker is about to be closed to connect the main generator to the power grid via the main transformer ___
3650	A diesel generator (DG) was initially operating at 80 percent of rated load supplying an isolated electrical bus when a malfunction caused the DG output breaker to trip ___
3651	The following frequencies exist just prior to closing the generator output breaker ___
3652	Generator output frequency is slightly higher than grid frequency and generator output voltage is equal to grid voltage ___
3653	During a routine inspection of a main generator output breaker, a technician discovers severely damaged main contact surfaces ___
3654	A main generator is about to be connected to an infinite power grid ___
3655	Which one of the following will cause the most damage to the contact surfaces of a main generator output breaker ___
3656	The generator breaker is closed just as the synchroscope pointer reaches the 3 o’clock position ___
3657	A main generator is being paralleled to an infinite power grid with the following conditions ___
3658	At which one of the following synchroscope pointer positions is the main generator output voltage the farthest out of phase with the grid voltage ___
3659	Generator voltage is equal to grid voltage and the synchroscope is rotating slowly in the counterclockwise direction ___
3660	Generator voltage is slightly higher than grid voltage and the synchroscope is rotating slowly in the clockwise direction ___
3661	Which one of the following indicates that the generator and grid voltages are in phase ___
3662	Generator voltage equals grid voltage and the synchroscope is rotating slowly in the clockwise direction ___
3663	Two identical 1,000 MW electrical generators are being connected to the same electrical bus ___
3664	Which one of the following conditions will cause the main generator to immediately supply reactive power (MVAR) to the grid when the generator output breaker is closed ___
3665	A main generator is being connected to an infinite power grid that is operating at 60 Hz ___
3666	Closing the output breaker of the generator with the frequency of the generator 0.1 Hz higher than grid frequency will result in the generator ___
3667	If the generator breaker is closed just prior to the synchroscope pointer reaching the 12 o’clock position, which one of the following is most likely to occur ___
3668	Which one of the following indicates that the main generator and grid voltages are in phase ___
3669	When the generator output breaker is closed, the generator will ___
3670	Which one of the following evolutions will draw the highest current from the main generator during operation of the output breaker ___
3671	During paralleling operations of the main generator to an infinite power grid, closing the generator output breaker with the frequency of the generator at 61 hertz and the grid frequency at 60 hertz will ___
3672	Generator voltage has been properly adjusted and the synchroscope is rotating slowly in the clockwise direction ___
3673	The primary reason for isolating emergency electrical loads from their power supply bus prior to energizing the bus via the emergency diesel generator is to prevent an ___
3674	Which one of the following generator conditions is most likely to result in equipment damage from high current flow ___
3675	Closing the output breaker of a three-phase generator onto a deenergized bus can ___
3676	Which one of the following will occur if the generator output breaker is closed with generator frequency 0.1 Hz lower than power grid frequency ___
3677	Which one of the following is an unsafe practice if performed while working on or near energized electrical equipment ___
3678	Which one of the following describes the proper operations to isolate power to the motor ___
3679	The function of high voltage electrical disconnects is to ___
3680	Which one of the following describes the alarm response after the control switch is released?
3681	Refer to the drawing of a valve motor control circuit for a valve that is currently fully open and has an 8-second stroke time
3682	Refer to the drawing of a valve motor control circuit (see figure below) for a valve that is currently fully open and has a 16-second stroke time ___
3683	Two seconds later, after verifying the valve is closing, the operator releases the control switch
3684	When the valve stops moving, what will be the status of the alarm and the red (R) and green (G) indicating lights ___
3685	Which one of the following describes the valve motor control circuit alarm response after the switch is released ___
3686	Two seconds later, after verifying the valve is closing, the operator releases the control switch ___
3687	Which one of the following describes the valve response when the control switch is taken to CLOSE momentarily and released ___
3688	The operator takes the control switch to CLOSE momentarily and the valve begins to close ___
3689	Which one of the following will actuate the alarm ___
3690	The operator takes the control switch to CLOSE ___
3691	The motor has been idle for several days when it is decided to start the motor ___
3692	If the valve is currently closed, when will the alarm actuate ___
3693	The motor has been operating for several hours when it is decided to stop the motor ___
3694	How are the starting resistors employed before and after the motor is energized ___
3695	The operator takes the control switch to OPEN for 5 seconds and then releases the switch ___
3696	The motor receives overload protection from ___ overload relays; and ___ overload relay(s) must actuate to deenergize the motor
3697	What is the purpose of the Time Delay Coil (TD) in the motor controller circuit ___
3698	The operator takes the control switch to OPEN momentarily and the valve begins to open ___
3699	An operator takes the control switch to OPEN momentarily and the valve begins to open ___
3700	Refer to the drawing of a valve motor control circuit for a valve that is currently fully open and has a 10-second stroke time ___
3701	Which one of the following describes the valve response if the control switch is taken to the OPEN position for two seconds and then released ___
3702	Which one of the following describes the valve response if the control switch is taken to the CLOSE position for two seconds and then released ___
3703	Pushbutton PB2 has been momentarily depressed and then released, and the valve is currently at mid-stroke and moving to the open position ___
3704	The valve is half open and moving to the open position. Which one of the following describes the current condition of the valve position indicating lights ___
3705	Which one of the following describes the purpose of the alarm ___
3706	Which one of the following describes the condition of the valve and its control circuit ___
3707	Refer to the drawing of a valve motor control circuit for a valve that is currently fully closed ___
3708	Which one of the following describes the function of the #3 contact ___
3709	The valve is currently open with the contact configuration as ___
3710	What is the purpose of depressing the S1 pushbutton ___
3711	Refer to the drawing of a valve motor control circuit ___
3712	Which one of the following will provide the first motor protection against electrical damage caused by gradual bearing degradation ___
3713	Thermal overload devices will provide the first electrical protection for a pump motor in the event of ___
3714	A thermal overload device for a large motor protects the motor from ___
3715	Which one of the following describes the operation of a thermal overload device for a large motor ___
3716	A typical 120 VAC manual circuit breaker tripped due to overload ___
3717	While remotely investigating the condition of a normally-open 480 VAC motor control center (MCC) feeder breaker, an operator observes the following indications ___
3718	While remotely investigating the condition of a normally-open feeder breaker to a 480 VAC motor control center (MCC), a control room operator observes the following indications ___
3719	The following indications are observed in the control room for a normally open breaker that directly starts/stops a 480 VAC motor ___
3720	Based on these indications, the operator should report that the feeder breaker is ___ and racked ___
3721	While remotely investigating the condition of a typical normally-open motor control center (MCC) feeder breaker, an operator observes the following indications ___
3722	While remotely investigating the condition of a typical normally open motor control center (MCC) feeder breaker, an operator observes the following indications ___
3723	While remotely investigating the condition of a normally-open breaker that feeds a motor control center (MCC), an operator observes the following indications ___
3724	The following remote indications are observed for a 480 VAC load supply breaker ___
3725	Which one of the following will cause a loss of indication from the remote breaker position indicating lights associated with a typical 480 VAC load supply breaker ___
3726	Given the following indications for an open 4,160 VAC breaker ___
3727	Assuming no operator actions were taken since the breaker opened, which one of the following could have caused the breaker to open ___
3728	Breaker local overcurrent trip flag indicators, when actuated, indicate that ___
3729	Which one of the following describes the normal operation of a local breaker overcurrent trip flag indicator ___
3730	Which one of the following describes the local overcurrent trip flag indicators for a breaker ___
3731	A positive displacement pump should be started with its suction valve ___ and its discharge valve ___
3732	A ___ pump in a liquid system should be started with its discharge valve ___ to avoid rupturing the pump casing and/or discharge piping
3733	Prior to starting a positive displacement pump, the discharge valve should be open to ___
3734	Which one of the following describes the value of the pump head where the two curves cross ___
3735	A positive displacement pump is initially supplying water at 40 gpm with a pump discharge pressure of 200 psia ___
3736	A positive displacement pump is initially supplying water at 40 gpm with a pump discharge pressure of 400 psia ___
3737	The pump must maintain a nearly constant flow rate with a minimum of discharge pressure fluctuations as system pressure varies between 200 psig and 1,900 psig ___
3738	A pump is needed to supply fuel oil from a day tank to a diesel engine fuel injection system ___
3739	A section of pipe is being hydrostatically tested to 1,400 psig using a positive displacement pump ___
3740	A pump that moves liquid by means of a piston within a cylinder that displaces a given volume of fluid for each stroke is a ___ pump
3741	What is the purpose of the relief valve located between the pump outlet and the discharge isolation valve of many positive displacement pumps ___
3742	Which one of the following describes the proper location for a relief valve that will be used to prevent exceeding the design pressure of a positive displacement pump and associated piping ___
3743	Water enters a positive displacement pump at 50 psig and 90°F ___
3744	Which one of the following will occur as a direct result of operating a positive displacement pump with insufficient net positive suction head ___
3745	The available net positive suction head for a pump may be expressed as ___
3746	Which one of the following describes the value of the head where the two curves cross ___
3747	A rotary positive displacement pump (PDP) is being used to supply water to a piping system ___
3748	To decrease pump flow rate to 30 gpm, pump speed must be decreased to approximately ___
3749	An ideal (no slip) reciprocating positive displacement pump is operating in an open system to provide makeup water to a coolant system that is being maintained at 800 psig ___
3750	Which one of the following conditions will result in the greatest increase in volumetric flow rate from a positive displacement pump operating at 300 rpm and a discharge pressure of 100 psig ___
3751	An ideal (no slip) reciprocating positive displacement pump is operating to provide makeup water to a reactor coolant system that is being maintained at 1,000 psig ___
3752	A variable-speed positive displacement pump is operating at 100 rpm with a flow rate of 60 gpm in an open system ___
3753	A positive displacement pump (PDP) is operating in an open water system ___
3754	A positive displacement pump is operating at a constant speed in an open water system with its suction and discharge valves fully open ___
3755	A centrifugal pump is operating in parallel with a positive displacement pump in an open water system ___
3756	The volumetric flow rate of a positive displacement pump is directly proportional to the ___
3757	A positive displacement pump (PDP) is operating in an open system ___
3758	Which one of the following describes the primary purpose of minimum flow piping for a centrifugal pump ___
3759	A centrifugal pump is susceptible to overheating and possible cavitation while operating with its discharge valve closed, unless ___
3760	If the surge tank water level increases from 8 feet to 9 feet, the pump mass flow rate will ___
3761	If the pump flow rate increases, ___ will be affected; and if the pump inlet pressure increases, ___ will be affected
3762	How will the centrifugal pump flow rate be affected if the surge tank level decreases from 8 feet to 4 feet ___
3763	The pump is unable to achieve its rated volumetric flow rate due to cavitation ___
3764	Which one of the following will enable the pump to achieve a higher volumetric flow rate before cavitation occurs ___
3765	When the pump discharge flow control valve is opened further, the pump is unable to provide the desired volumetric flow rate due to cavitation ___
3766	Refer to the graph that represents the head-capacity characteristics for a single-speed centrifugal cooling water pump ___
3767	A motor-driven centrifugal pump is operating in a closed-loop cooling water system and is unable to achieve its rated volumetric flow rate due to cavitation ___
3768	At which one of the following elevations above the reservoir water level will the fire hose spray nozzle first be unable to provide flow ___
3769	Which one of the following is at a relatively high value when a centrifugal pump is operating at shutoff head ___
3770	A centrifugal firewater pump is operating to pressurize a fire main. The pump takes suction from a vented water storage tank ___
3771	A fire hose connected to the fire main is being used to suppress an elevated fire ___
3772	A centrifugal firewater pump is operating to pressurize a fire main ___
3773	How will the pump be affected if the discharge valve is fully opened ___
3774	A centrifugal pump is operating at maximum design flow rate, taking suction on a vented water storage tank and discharging through two parallel valves ___
3775	A centrifugal pump is operating normally in an open system with all valves fully open ___
3776	If the fully open discharge valve of a reciprocating positive displacement pump is closed approximately 10 percent, pump flow rate will ___; and pump head will ___
3777	If the pump recirculation valve is opened farther, pump discharge pressure will ___; and pump flow rate will ___
3778	A centrifugal pump is operating at rated conditions in an open system with all valves fully open ___
3779	A single-speed centrifugal fire pump takes suction on a water storage tank and discharges through a flexible fire hose ___
3780	The drawing shows the operating point for a single-speed centrifugal pump operating in a closed cooling water system using 6-inch diameter piping ___
3781	Refer to the drawing showing two different operating points for the same centrifugal pump operating in the same cooling water system ___
3782	If both pumps have the same discharge head, which pump has the lower discharge pressure, and why ___
3783	A centrifugal water pump is operating normally with the following parameters. What is the pump discharge pressure ___
3784	Which one of the following describes the value of head where the two curves cross ___
3785	A centrifugal pump is located adjacent to the bottom of an open water storage tank ___
3786	A single-stage (single impeller) centrifugal pump and a two-stage (two impellers) centrifugal pump have identical head-capacity curves ___
3787	Centrifugal pumps A and B are identical except that pump A uses a single-suction impeller while pump B uses a double-suction impeller ___
3788	A single-speed centrifugal pump is needed to supply river water to a storage facility ___
3789	A centrifugal pump is needed to take suction on a water storage tank and deliver high pressure water to a water spray system ___
3790	Pumps A and B are identical single-speed centrifugal pumps and both pumps are operating ___
3791	Which one of the following describes a reason for designing centrifugal pumps with suction nozzles that are larger than their discharge nozzles ___
3792	If the pump is initially operating at point B, how will the operating point change if the temperature controller setpoint is decreased by 10°F ___
3793	If the temperature control valve is positioned more closed, the system head loss will ___; and the pump head will ___
3794	If the pump speed is reduced by one-half, the new operating point will be located on curve ___ closer to point ___
3795	A typical single-stage radial-flow centrifugal pump is being returned to service following maintenance on its three-phase AC induction motor ___
3796	Which one of the following components of a centrifugal pump has the specific primary function of increasing the kinetic energy of a fluid ___
3797	If the temperature control valve modulates further open, operating point B will be located on curve ___ closer to point ___
3798	If the pump discharge valve is fully closed, pump discharge pressure will ___; and motor current will ___
3799	Which one of the following actions will correct a cavitating centrifugal pump ___
3800	Refer to the drawing of a lube oil temperature control system and the associated pump/system operating curves ___
3801	A typical radial-flow centrifugal pump is operating at rated conditions in an open system with all valves fully open ___
3802	A motor-driven centrifugal pump is operating in an open system with its discharge valve throttled to 50 percent ___
3803	Pumps A and B are identical single-speed centrifugal pumps and only pump A is operating ___
3804	Refer to the drawing of a radial-flow centrifugal pump with a recirculation line in an open system ___
3805	A flow-limiting venturi in the discharge piping of a centrifugal pump decreases the potential for the pump to experience ___
3806	Refer to the drawing of a cooling water system in which only centrifugal pump A is operating and the common pump discharge valve is currently 90 percent open ___
3807	Which one of the following describes typical radial-flow centrifugal pump runout conditions ___
3808	What adverse effect is caused by operating a motor-driven centrifugal pump under runout conditions ___
3809	A centrifugal pump is operating at its maximum design flow rate, delivering water through two parallel valves ___
3810	Which point represents pump operation at runout conditions ___
3811	Operating a motor-driven centrifugal pump under “pump runout” conditions can cause ___
3812	A centrifugal pump is operating at rated conditions in an open system ___
3813	Which one of the following will occur if a motor-driven centrifugal pump is operated continuously at runout conditions ___
3814	A centrifugal fire water pump takes suction from an open storage tank and discharges through a fire hose. Which one of the following will cause the pump to operate at shutoff head ___
3815	Which one of the following will cause the pump to operate at shutoff head ___
3816	Which one of the following describes centrifugal pump operating parameters at shutoff head ___
3817	A variable-speed centrifugal fire water pump is taking a suction on an open storage tank and discharging through a 4-inch diameter fire hose and through a nozzle located 50 feet above the pump ___
3818	When a centrifugal pump is operating at shutoff head, it is pumping at ___ capacity and ___ discharge head
3819	A centrifugal fire water pump takes suction from an open storage tank and discharges through a fire hose ___
3820	Which one of the following specifies the proper pump discharge valve position and the basis for that position when starting a large motor-driven radial-flow centrifugal pump ___
3821	Some large centrifugal pumps are interlocked so that the pump will not start unless its discharge valve is at least 90 percent closed ___
3822	Which one of the following contains two reasons for starting a typical radial-flow centrifugal pump with the discharge piping full of water and the discharge valve closed ___
3823	Which one of the following pumps should be started with its discharge valve throttled ___
3824	Many large centrifugal pumps are interlocked so that the pump will not start unless its discharge valve is at least 90 percent closed ___
3825	The pump can supply cooling water to several heat loads, all of which are in parallel alignment ___
3826	A radial-flow centrifugal cooling water pump is driven by an AC induction motor ___
3827	An AC motor-driven centrifugal water pump was just started ___
3828	A centrifugal pump is circulating water at 180°F with a pump motor current of 200 amps ___
3829	An AC motor-driven centrifugal pump was just started ___
3830	A constant-speed centrifugal pump motor draws the most current when the pump is ___
3831	A centrifugal pump in a cooling water system is operating with a motor current of 200 amps ___
3832	Initially, an AC motor-driven centrifugal pump was operating in a cooling water system with cooling water temperature at 150°F ___
3833	A reactor recirculation pump is circulating reactor coolant at 150°F ___
3834	Which one of the following describes how and why pump motor current will change if the pump shaft shears ___
3835	A motor-driven centrifugal pump exhibited indications of pump failure while being started ___
3836	An AC motor-driven centrifugal pump is circulating water at 180°F with a motor current of 100 amps ___
3837	If the temperature of the cooling water entering pump A increases to 200°F, the pump’s motor current will ___
3838	Initially, a centrifugal pump is operating at normal discharge pressure and flow conditions with the pump discharge valve fully open ___
3839	A constant-speed radial-flow centrifugal pump motor draws the least current when the pump is ___
3840	In response to a loss of coolant accident, an emergency core cooling pump is taking suction from the bottom of a vented water storage tank and discharging to the downcomer region of a reactor vessel ___
3841	The storage tank is open to the atmosphere and contains 20 feet of water at 90°F ___
3842	If system pressure is increased by 10 psi, the available net positive suction head (NPSH) for the pump will ___; and the pump mass flow rate will ___
3843	The pump is located at the base of the tank, takes a suction from the bottom of the tank, and discharges to a pressurized system ___
3844	Refer to the drawing of a centrifugal pump with a water storage tank for its suction source ___
3845	Which one of the following modifications would decrease the pumps available net positive suction head ___
3846	The pump is located on shore, with the eye of the pump 4 feet higher than the reservoir water level ___
3847	A centrifugal pump is taking suction from an open water storage tank ___
3848	The pump requires a net positive suction head (NPSH) of 150 feet for pumping water at 300°F ___
3849	What is the net positive suction head available to the condensate pump ___
3850	An operating centrifugal pump has a net positive suction head (NPSH) requirement of 150 feet ___
3851	A centrifugal pump is taking suction on a water storage tank and discharging through a flow control valve ___
3852	Which one of the following will provide the greatest increase in NPSH available to the condensate pump ___
3853	Refer to the drawing below of a centrifugal pump taking suction from the bottom of an open storage tank containing water at 75°F ___
3854	A centrifugal pump is taking suction on a water storage tank and delivering the makeup water to a cooling water system ___
3855	What is the minimum hotwell water level necessary to provide the required NPSH ___
3856	Refer to the drawing of a centrifugal pump taking suction from the bottom of an open water storage tank ___
3857	A centrifugal cooling water pump is operating in an open system with its discharge valve fully open ___
3858	Pump and water level elevations are indicated in the figure. Assume standard atmospheric pressure ___
3859	Refer to the drawing of an elevated centrifugal pump taking suction from the bottom of an open storage tank containing water at 66°F
3860	Refer to the drawing below of a centrifugal pump taking suction from the bottom of an open storage tank containing water at 66°F ___
3861	A centrifugal pump is taking suction on an open storage tank that has been filled to a level of 40 feet with 10,000 gallons of 60°F water ___
3862	Which one of the following will increase the available net positive suction head for the centrifugal pump ___
3863	A cooling water pump is operating with pump suction parameters as follows ___
3864	The available net positive suction head for the centrifugal pump will be decreased by ___
3865	A variable speed motor-driven centrifugal pump is operating at 50 percent speed in an open system ___
3866	Which one of the following will decrease available net positive suction head for the centrifugal pump ___
3867	A motor-driven centrifugal pump is operating in an open system with its discharge valve throttled to 50 percent open ___
3868	The available net positive suction head for the centrifugal pump will be increased by ___
3869	When flow from a centrifugal pump is increased by opening the discharge valve further, the required net positive suction head (NPSH) ___; and the available NPSH ___
3870	Which one of the following will decrease the available net positive suction head to the reactor recirculation pumps ___
3871	Which one of the following conditions will result in a decrease in the available net positive suction head of a reactor recirculation pump ___
3872	Which one of the following operations in a closed system will cause a decrease in available net positive suction head for a centrifugal pump ___
3873	What will occur by operating a positive displacement pump with insufficient net positive suction head ___
3874	Which one of the following will increase reactor recirculation pump available net positive suction head ___
3875	After the pump is started, the pump suction and discharge pressures stabilize as follows ___
3876	A motor-driven radial-flow centrifugal pump is used to provide makeup water to a vented storage tank that is 30 feet high ___
3877	A centrifugal pump is used to provide makeup water to a vented storage tank that is 30 feet high ___
3878	Refer to the pump and system curves for a centrifugal pump operating in a cooling water system ___
3879	The pump discharge valve is partially throttled to produce the following initial pump operating parameters ___
3880	Which one of the following changes to the cooling water system will result in a lower cooling water pump flow rate and a higher pump discharge head ___
3881	A centrifugal pump is used to provide makeup water to a storage tank that is 30 feet high ___
3882	The discharge valve for a radial-flow centrifugal cooling water pump is closed in preparation for starting the pump ___
3883	Which one of the following changes to the cooling water system will result in a higher cooling water pump flow rate and a reduced pump discharge head ___
3884	A variable-speed centrifugal pump is driven by an AC motor with the following initial conditions ___
3885	Operating point A was generated from pump performance data taken six months ago ___
3886	If the pump’s speed is increased until the pump’s flow rate equals 400 gpm, the pump’s power input will be approximately ___
3887	A multi-speed centrifugal pump is operating at 3,600 rpm with a flow rate of 3,000 gpm ___
3888	What will be the approximate values of pump head and motor current if pump speed is decreased to 1,200 rpm ___
3889	A multi-speed centrifugal pump is operating with a flow rate of 3,000 gpm ___
3890	An AC motor-driven centrifugal pump is operating with the following parameters ___
3891	The discharge head of a variable-speed centrifugal pump will increase if the ___
3892	A centrifugal pump is operating with the following parameters in a closed system ___
3893	Refer to the drawing of a cooling water system and the associated pump/system operating curves ___
3894	A variable-speed centrifugal pump is running with its drive motor at 1,800 rpm ___
3895	A multi-speed centrifugal pump is operating at 1800 rpm, providing a flow of 400 gpm with a pump head of 20 psid ___
3896	The discharge head of a centrifugal pump will decrease if the ___
3897	A centrifugal pump is operating at rated speed with a pump head of 240 psid ___
3898	Refer to the drawing of a pump with a recirculation line. Valve A will close when pump ___
3899	Which one of the following describes the response of the pump if a complete flow blockage occurs in the discharge line just downstream of the flow transmitter ___
3900	Refer to the drawing of a centrifugal pump with a recirculation line ___
3901	Refer to the drawing of centrifugal pump and system operating curves ___
3902	Refer to the drawing of a pump with a recirculation line ___
3903	Operating a motor-driven centrifugal pump for an extended period of time under no flow conditions will cause ___
3904	A motor-driven centrifugal pump with no recirculation flow path must be stopped when discharge pressure reaches the pump shutoff head to prevent ___
3905	Which one of the following would result from operating a motor-driven centrifugal pump for extended periods with the discharge valve shut and no recirculation flow ___
3906	Which one of the following describes gas binding of a centrifugal pump ___
3907	Which one of the following is an effective method for ensuring that a centrifugal pump remains primed and does not become gas bound during pump operation and after pump shutdown ___
3908	Gas binding in a centrifugal pump can be prevented by ___ prior to pump start
3909	Venting a centrifugal pump prior to operating it ensures that ___
3910	Which one of the following will result in immediate cavitation of a centrifugal pump that is initially operating at normal rated flow ___
3911	If a centrifugal pump is started with the discharge valve throttled versus fully open, the possibility of pump runout will ___; and the possibility of pump cavitation will ___
3912	Which one of the following describes pump cavitation ___
3913	If a centrifugal pump is started with the discharge valve fully open versus throttled, the possibility of pump runout will ___; and the possibility of pump cavitation will ___
3914	Which one of the following changes in nuclear power plant status will bring the reactor recirculation system closer to the condition in which the recirculation pump will cavitate ___
3915	A centrifugal pump is initially operating at maximum rated flow rate in an open system ___
3916	What is the reactive power for this generator ___
3917	A main generator is supplying 300 MVAR to the power grid with a 0.85 power factor ___
3918	Refer to the drawing of an electrical system power curve ___
3919	A nuclear power plant was initially operating at 80 percent power in the middle of a fuel cycle with the main generator connected to an infinite power grid with the following main generator output parameters ___
3920	Refer to the drawing of an electrical system power triangle ___
3921	A diesel generator (DG) is supplying an electrical bus that is connected to an infinite power grid ___
3922	A 125 VDC motor is rated at 10 KW. What is the current rating for the motor ___
3923	A 4.16 KV diesel generator (DG) is loaded to 2,850 KW with a 0.85 power factor ___
3924	What is the power factor of the main generator ___
3925	Which one of the following contains a combination of minor adjustments to the main generator voltage regulator and speed control setpoints such that each adjustment will cause the main generator to ___
3926	If the main generator field current is decreased, main generator amps will initially ___; and MW will initially ___
3927	During a surveillance test, a 4,000 KW diesel generator (DG) and a 1,000 MW main generator (MG) at a nuclear power plant are connected to a power grid ___
3928	Which one of the following will significantly increase main generator output amperage without a significant change in main generator MW output ___
3929	Which one of the following contains a combination of minor adjustments to the main generator voltage regulator and speed control setpoints such that each adjustment will cause the main generator to operate at a ___
3930	During a surveillance test, a 4,000 KW diesel generator (DG) and a 1,000 MW main generator (MG) at a nuclear power plant are connected to the same power grid ___
3931	Which one of the following pairs of main generator output parameters places the generator in the closest proximity to slipping a pole ___
3932	Elevated main generator winding temperature requires a reduction in reactive load from 200 MVAR (out) to 150 MVAR (out) ___
3933	A main turbine-generator is operating in parallel with an infinite power grid ___
3934	The generator output breakers provide identical protection for the generators ___
3935	A malfunction causes the voltage regulator setpoint for generator B to slowly and continuously increase ___
3936	Two identical 1,000 MW generators are operating in parallel supplying the same isolated electrical bus ___
3937	Assuming bus voltage does not change, if the DG voltage regulator setpoint is decreased slightly, DG KW will ___; and DG amps will ___
3938	Two identical 1,000 MW generators are operating in parallel, supplying all the loads on an isolated electrical bus ___
3939	If main generator field current is decreased, amps will initially ___; and MVAR will initially ___
3940	A main generator is operating in parallel with an infinite power grid ___
3941	A diesel generator (DG) is supplying both KW and KVAR to an electrical bus that is connected to an infinite power grid ___
3942	If main generator excitation current is increased slightly, amps will initially ___; and MW will initially ___
3943	If main generator excitation current is decreased slightly, amps will ___; and MVAR will ___
3944	If generator field current is increased, the generator will become ___ and will attain a ___ power factor
3945	A main generator is operating in parallel with an infinite power grid with generator VARs currently at zero ___
3946	If main generator field current is increased slightly, amps will ___; and MW will ___
3947	A main generator that is connected to an infinite power grid has the following indications ___
3948	A main generator is connected to an infinite power grid with VARs out (positive VARs) ___
3949	A main generator is connected to an infinite power grid ___
3950	A main generator that is connected to an infinite power grid has the following initial indications ___
3951	Which one of the following describes the effects of field current changes on generator excitation and power factor with the generator connected to an infinite power grid ___
3952	A 125 VDC battery is rated at 600 amp-hours for a continuous 50 KW load ___
3953	A 125 VDC battery is rated at 768 amp-hours for a continuous 50 KW load ___
3954	The term “volt” describes ___
3955	What is the significance of a 0.8 power factor when describing the output of a generator ___
3956	The force that causes electrons to flow in an electrical circuit is called ___
3957	A difference in electrical potential is measured in ___
3958	What unit of measurement is used to describe the rate of electron flow ___
3959	A large centrifugal pump is driven by a 200 horsepower AC induction motor ___
3960	In some instances a reversing control circuit is required to be plug-stopped in either run direction ___
3961	On a bi-directional ___ switch, both sets of contacts are NO when the plug switch is at-rest. Both sets of contacts are in their at-rest configuration
3962	On a bi-directional ___ switch, both sets of contacts are NO when the plug switch is at-rest
3963	Pushbutton interlock normally requires two or more stacked or combination ___ and ___ PB switches
3964	___ is the 2-wire control of a 3-phase (3-pole) electromagnetic motor-starter using momentary switches
3965	In either circuit configuration, the NO contacts of the Jog PB switch must be wired in ___ with the NC contacts of the Stop PB switch and the NO auxiliary seal-in contacts on the motor -starter, and in ___
3966	For the jog function, the NO switch contacts of the added Jog PB switch are wired in parallel with the NO Start PB switch ___
3967	The return to the at-rest position of both the momentary stack switches and the electromagnetic solenoid of the motor -starter also in a ___ switching configuration depends on two things: spring ___ and the pull of ___
3968	A 3-phase AC motor ___ be started and left to run (operator not present) with a jog circuit
3969	The addition of the jog function commands the 3-wire control to function as a 2-wire control of the electric motor and driven equipment using momentary NO PB or selector switches ___
3970	When the 3-wire control of a single 3-phase AC motor is modified for a jog function with the addition of a stacked NO / NC momentary PB switch and the Jog PB switch is pushed, the NC contacts are ___
3971	The motor cannot be forced into a jog condition while it is running ___
3972	When NO auxiliary contacts on the power contactor of a motor-starter are used as the hold-in contacts of a 3-wire control circuit, they must be wired in parallel with the ___ momentary PB switch
3973	Most of the electric-motor driven equipment in a manufacturing plant is either directly involved, or supportive of one or more manufacturing processes ___
3974	In comparison of 2- and 3-wire control, a jogging circuit is more apt to be found in the ___ control of a 3-phase AC motor
3975	In series with both the seal-in and start circuits (in series with the NC Stop PB switch either ___ or ___ the start/seal-in wired ___
3976	The jog circuit has to do two things (sometimes simultaneously): ___
3977	When the 3-wire control of a single 3-phase AC motor is modified for a jog function with the addition of a stacked NO / NC momentary PB switch, the NC contacts on the Jog PB switch must be wired in ___
3978	The addition of the jog function commands the 2-wire control to function as a 3-wire control of the electric motor and driven equipment using momentary NO PB or selector switches ___
3979	Other than by a manual motor -starter, the control of a 3-phase AC motor is normally by means of either ___ or ___ wire control of an electromagnetic control relay, power contactor, or motor -starter
3980	When the Jog PB switch is pushed, the NC contacts are forced open before the NO contacts are allowed to close ___
3981	In series with just the motor-starter ___ contacts in the seal-in circuit
3982	The electromagnetic solenoid of the motor -starter has a second propagation delay in opening not common to the PB switch, and that is the ___ or ___ of the electromagnetic field of the solenoid coil
3983	The jog function for 3-wire control can be implemented with a ___
3984	___, or ___ as it is sometimes called, is the 2-wire control of a 3-phase electromagnetic motor -starter using momentary switches
3985	The use of ___ -type selector or pushbutton switches in a control ladder diagram limits the control function to jog control
3986	When a 3-wire control consists of two PB switches wired in series, the ___ momentary PB switch is used as the interrupt or stop switch. The ___ momentary PB switch
3987	The jog function for 3-wire control can be implemented with a 2-position ___ switch, a ___PB switch, or a control ___
3988	The jog circuit has to ___
3989	In the symbols for the TODE or TOR timing-relay contacts, the ___ of the arrow indicates time delay on coming out (after de-energization of the timing-relay solenoid coil)
3990	In most control-circuit operations, the timing function is commanded to start by a (an) ___
3991	If a mercury-filled bulb is mechanically linked to the clock spring, then a change in temperature will cause a ___ of the bulb: the switch is either open or closed when a change in temperature is sensed
3992	If drawn ___, a prescribed amount of time will elapse after the coil is energized before the contacts actually close
3993	Change of pressure in a closed vessel is normally caused by the equipment being controlled: either ___ or ___
3994	On an 8-pin TODE plug-in relay, The common terminal #1 is NCTC to terminal # ___ and NOTO to terminal # ___
3995	On an 11-pin TOE plug-in relay, The common terminal #6 is NCTO to terminal # ___ and NOTC to terminal # ___
3996	The acronym NOTC stands for ___ and ___
3997	When two or more electric motors are required for a common process, the motors are normally ___ such that should one motor fail, all the motors are stopped simultaneously
3998	The acronym ____ indicates Normally-Closed, Time-Opened, ___ contacts
3999	___, where the timing function occurs after the input signal is de-activated or de-energized
4000	The thermostats on an electric, storage-type water heater use a ___ that will snap or pop out and away from the water-heated metal tank surface when the preset temperature is reached
4001	When used to control process or environmental cooling, the higher limit in the differential of a temperature switch is the ___ temperature setting. The lower limit is the ___ temperature setting
4002	On an 8-pin TOE plug-in relay, The coil leads are wire terminal #s ___ and ___
4003	The coil voltage and switch contact ratings of a control relay are normally listed on some form of ___ either gum labeled, stamped, or etched on the mounting base
4004	On an 8-pin TODE plug-in relay, The coil leads are wire terminal #s ___ and ___
4005	Stacked limit switches can be configured at the point of manufacture as a combination NO — NC stacked maintain-position limit switch where the operator ___ to one position when acted upon
4006	On an 11-pin TODE plug-in relay, If the 120-volt control-supply is mistakenly applied to either control-contact switch terminal #5 or #6 on either the 8-pin or 11-pin TODE relay, the timing relay will normally be ___
4007	On an 11-pin TOE plug-in relay, The common terminal #1 is NCTO to terminal # ___ and NOTC to terminal # ___
4008	The acronym TOO stands for ___
4009	A___ electric storage-type water heater uses two thermostats and two resistive-type-heating elements to heat the water
4010	When the many different symbols of switches and pilot devices are drawn into a ladder diagram to indicate the control sequence or relay-logic scheme, the switch is drawn ___
4011	Float or liquid-level switches, like most pilot devices, normally contain both a set of ___ and a set of ___ contacts
4012	The acronym ___ stands for time on operate
4013	Normally, temperature switches or thermostats offer only On/Off control of the heating or cooling means ___
4014	The acronym NCTC stands for ___ and ___
4015	The relay, with the time-delay feature, offers a timing function only after the relay coil has been either ___ or ___
4016	The ___ time-delay relay contacts can be further described as instantly-closed on de-energization of the timing-relay solenoid coil
4017	The travel between the two liquid levels (upper level and lower level), which can be adjusted, is referred to as the ___ or ___ of the float switch
4018	The acronym NCTO standards for ___ and ___
4019	On an 11-pin TOE plug-in relay, The common terminal #11 is NCTO to terminal # ___ and NOTC to terminal # ___
4020	In the symbols for the TOE or TOO timing-relay contacts, the ___ of the arrow indicates time-delay on going in (on energization of the timing-relay solenoid coil)
4021	The ___ of an arrow in the NO or NC contacts symbol for a timing relay indicates time delay on coming out (after de-energization of the coil)
4022	On an 8-pin TODE plug-in relay, To energize the TODE plug-in timing relay, a NO switch, a set of NO control-relay contacts, a set of NO auxiliary contacts on a motor-starter, or a ___
4023	The control-circuits of most process or other utilization equipment depend on four factors or mediums that either control the equipment or the equipment controls them. These factors or mediums include ___
4024	Equipment can be controlled by a ___ (___) where it is either turned on at a particular time of day or turned off at a particular time of day
4025	Instead of terminal numbers, the three screw terminals on a typical SPDT-type limit switch are identified as ___, ___, and ___
4026	The acronym ___ stands for time on de-energization
4027	The acronym ___ indicates Normally-Closed, Time-Opened, ___ contacts
4028	To supply fifty gallons of hot water from a forty-gallon storage tank electric water heater, both the cold-water inlet and the hot-water outlet are located in the top of the storage tank ___
4029	The acronym TOE stands for ___
4030	As used with non-timing relays, the NC control-relay contacts ___ on energization of the relay solenoid coil, and ___ on de-energization of the relay solenoid coil
4031	Equipment can be controlled by a ___, which is a device that is designed to switch normally-closed contacts open or to switch normally-open contacts closed
4032	The ___ time-delay relay contacts can be further described as instantly-opened on de-energization of the timing-relay solenoid coil
4033	An ___ -delay or delay on ___ timer is a device that has a preset time period that must pass after the timer has been energized before any action occurs on the timer contacts
4034	The acronym NOTO stands for ___ and ___
4035	If drawn ___, the same time will elapse before the contacts actually open
4036	On an 8-pin TODE plug-in relay, ___ between the ungrounded and grounded control buses, must be applied to the coil terminals on the timing-relay solenoid
4037	On an 8-pin TOE plug-in relay, The common terminal #1 is NCTO to terminal # ___ and NOTC to terminal # ___
4038	___, where the timing function occurs after the input signal is activated or energized
4039	The acronym TODE stands for ___
4040	A ___ timer is a timer that opens and closes the control line (or rung in the ladder diagram) circuit depending on the position of the hands of a clock
4041	On an 11-pin TODE plug-in relay, The coil leads are wire terminal #s ___ and ___
4042	When used to control process or environmental cooling, the higher limit in the differential of a temperature switch is the ___ temperature setting. The lower limit is the ___
4043	Similar to a double-circuit, momentary PB, control-circuit switch, the switch block of an industrial-type limit switch has four wire terminals ___
4044	The control-circuits of most process or other utilization equipment depend on four factors or mediums that either control the equipment or the equipment controls them ___
4045	The ___ of an arrow indicates time-delay on going in (energization of the solenoid)
4046	On de-energization of the timing-relay solenoid coil, a prescribed amount of time will elapse after the coil is de-energized before the Held-Open ___ contacts re-close
4047	When two or more electric motors are required for a common process, and each individual motor is provided with its own overload protection by placing the NC control contacts of the overload relay ___
4048	The ___ switch is technically not a pilot device, but rather just a remote switching means
4049	When the controlled process involves the selection of many different piping lines, storage bins, and so on, for material conveying, a timer motor may be used to drive a cam bank of switches ___
4050	When used to control process or environmental heating, the higher limit in the differential of a temperature switch is the ___ temperature setting
4051	On de-energization of the timing-relay solenoid coil, a prescribed amount of time will elapse after the coil is de-energized before the Held-Closed ___ contacts actually re-open
4052	If drawn ___, the contacts will instantly close on energization of the timing-relay solenoid coil
4053	The acronym TOR stands for ___
4054	A difference of pressure is normally sensed by the deflection of metal. In high-pressure applications, a ___ in a cylinder is used to monitor the change in pressure
4055	The capillary-type temperature switch is actually a pressure switch. The change in pressure of the confined fluid is indicative of the change in temperature ___
4056	The acronym ___ stands for time on energization
4057	On an 11-pin TODE plug-in relay, ___, between the ungrounded and grounded control buses, must be applied to the coil terminals on the timing-relay solenoid
4058	The ___ or ___ switch is employed to monitor the position of the liquid according to the depth of the containing vessel
4059	On an 11-pin TODE plug-in relay, The common terminal #11 is NCTC to terminal # ___ and NOTO to terminal # ___
4060	The ___ of an arrow in the NO or NC contacts symbol for a timing relay indicates time-delay on going in (energization of the solenoid)
4061	On an 11-pin TODE plug-in relay, To energize the TODE plug-in timing relay, a NO switch, a set of NO control-relay contacts, a set of NO auxiliary contacts on a motor-starter, or a NO pilot-device switch separate ___
4062	When used to control process or environmental cooling, the higher limit in the differential of a temperature switch is the ___ temperature setting
4063	In medium-pressure applications, a ___ is used to monitor the change in pressure
4064	An ___ -delay or delay on ___ timer is a device that does not start its timing function until the power is removed from the timer
4065	___ switches are solid-state devices that can use induction, capacitance, or magnetism to sense the presence of a material, either its position or fluid level
4066	When a pear-shaped buoy float switch is used as the sensing means, ___ (what type of material) is used to establish contact between the long and short electrodes in the glass envelope
4067	Some timers can be started with an electrical signal and time out, ___ the controlled equipment either energized or de-energized until some other signal ___ the timer
4068	As with water, the gravitational pull on any liquid will cause the surface to seek its on ___
4069	The travel between the two liquid levels (upper level and lower level), which can be adjusted, is referred to as the ___ of the float switch
4070	The acronym ___ indicates Normally-Open, Time-Closed, ___ contacts
4071	Positive overload protection differs from auxiliary (seal-in circuit) interlock in that all the motors do not have to enter the run condition, either simultaneously or in a staggered (ramp-up) ___
4072	When a real clock timer controls equipment, the timing mechanism is normally a ___ clock motor
4073	___ switches sense the flow of a fluid in a pipe or conduit or an open channel
4074	A difference of pressure is normally sensed by the deflection of metal ___
4075	When equipment is timed off using a time-delay relay, there is an intentional delay between when the switch is opened and when the power is actually removed from a motor or other piece of equipment ___
4076	On an 11-pin TODE plug-in relay, The common terminal #1 is NCTC to terminal # ___ and NOTO to terminal # ___
4077	The devices used to sense the mediums position, pressure, temperature, and time are normally 2-wire switching devices, which are further described as ___ devices
4078	In high-pressure applications, a ___ in a cylinder is used to monitor the change in pressure
4079	Stacked limit switches can be configured at the point of manufacture as momentary 3-position limit switches where both sets of contacts are held open in the ___ or ___ position
4080	If the pressure in a closed vessel is greater than the atmospheric pressure (the outside air), then a ___ switch is used to monitor the exact pressure inside the vessel (normally a tank)
4081	When equipment is timed on using a time-delay relay, there is an intentional time delay between when a switch is closed and when a motor or other piece of equipment actually starts up ___
4082	As used with non-timing relays, the NO control-relay contacts __________ on energization of the relay solenoid coil, and ___ on de-energization of the relay solenoid coil
4083	The proximity switch has the advantage over the mechanical limit or liquid-level switch because ___ of the medium being sensed is not required
4084	On an 8-pin TOE plug-in relay, The common terminal #8 is NCTO to terminal # ___ and NOTC to terminal # ___
4085	The acronym ___ stands for time on release
4086	The acronym ___ indicates Normally-Closed, Time-Closed, ___ contacts
4087	On an 11-pin TOE plug-in relay, The coil leads are wire terminal #s ___ and ___
4088	If drawn ___ the contacts will instantly open on energization
4089	The auxiliary interlock used in the supervised start of a ramp-down circuit for the three motor conveyor system is referred to as ___ because the stoppage of the three electric motors follows a specific pattern
4090	When a relay-logic Wired-Exclusive-NOR gate, formed with the combination NC — NO contacts of two relays and the inverting logic (NC contacts) of a third relay, is employed in a motor control circuit ___
4091	Instead of a logic gate, the logic inverter or NOT Gate is technically a ___
4092	When a PB-switch-logic Wired-NOR gate is employed in a motor control circuit, The PB-switch-logic output, taken on the load side of the last set of series-connected NC switch contacts, is ___
4093	When a relay-logic Wired-OR gate is employed in a motor control circuit, the relay-logic output is zero volts only when all of the parallel switching or relay contacts are held ___
4094	Relay-contact NAND gates can be formed using either two control relays or three control relays ___
4095	When a binary-logic ___ gate is employed in a circuit, the logic output is LO when any logic input is HI
4096	When a relay-logic Wired-NOR gate utilizing only two relays is employed in a motor control circuit ___
4097	When two (or more) ___ PB switches are wired in parallel in separate rungs of a ladder diagram that converge or connect to a common rung on their load side, a Wired-OR gate is formed
4098	All control circuits are basic logic functions or combinations of logic functions. __________ logic occurs in a given control line of a ladder diagram when only a single NC PB switch or pilot device is connected in ___
4099	When a binary-logic Exclusive-NOR gate is employed in a circuit ___
4100	When a relay-logic Wired-NAND gate utilizing only two relays is employed in a motor control circuit ___
4101	When a relay-logic Wired-NAND gate is employed in a motor control circuit, the ___
4102	When a relay-logic Wired-NOR gate that utilizes three relays is employed in a motor control circuit ___
4103	The ___ or in logic jargon, a ___ on the nose of the triangle, which is the logic-symbol for an operational amplifier, is the symbol for the digital or binary inverter or NOT Gate
4104	When a binary-logic NOT gate (inverter gate) is employed in a circuit, The logic output is ___ when the logic input is HI
4105	When two (or more) ___ PB switches are wired in series in separate rungs of a ladder diagram that converge or connect to a common rung on their load side, a Wired-Bubbled AND gate, which is equal to a ___ gate, is formed
4106	When a relay-logic Wired-AND gate is employed in a motor control circuit, the relay-logic output is 120 volts only when all of the series switching or relay contacts are held ___
4107	When a relay-logic Wired-AND gate is employed in a motor control circuit, The relay-logic output, taken on the load side of the last set of series-connected NO relay contacts ___
4108	Exclusive-NOR gates are also hybrid gates that are used to check for ___ of the inputs
4109	When a binary-logic Exclusive-OR gate is employed in a circuit ___
4110	When a binary-logic ___ gate is employed in a circuit, the logic output is HI when any logic input is HI
4111	When two (or more) ___ PB switches are wired in series in the same rung (control line) of a ladder diagram, a Wired-AND gate is formed
4112	When a binary-logic ___ gate is employed in a circuit, the logic output is LO only when all the logic inputs are HI
4113	When a PB-switch-logic Wired-NOT gate (wired-inverter gate) is employed in a circuit ___
4114	When two PB switches are stack with a set of NC and a set of NO switch contacts, and the NC switch contacts on one PB switch are wired in series with the NO switch contacts on the other PB switch in the ___
4115	When a relay-logic Wired-NOR gate is employed in a motor control circuit, the relay-logic output, taken on the load side of the NC inverting-relay contacts, is zero volts when any of the parallel switching ___
4116	More than one pushbutton station (operator’s control station) can be installed for a given control line in a control circuit (line or ladder diagram) ___
4117	NE Code will allow the ungrounded control-circuit conductors to be any color except ___
4118	When the stop switch in a 3-wire control circuit is momentarily opened and re-closed, the motor does not automatically restart as it does in a 2-wire control circuit that suffers a momentary power loss ___
4119	A 3-phase ___ motor-starter uses just a mechanical linkage connected to a pushbutton switch assembly to close all three power contacts simultaneously
4120	The NE Code will allow the ungrounded control-circuit conductors to be any color except ___
4121	The simplest form of manual motor control, using an electromagnetic motor -starter, is ___ control
4122	Three-wire control of a 3-phase AC motor by means of a 3-pole electromagnetic motor-starter uses ___ switches with either pushbutton- or selector-type operators
4123	The simplest form of manual motor control, using an electromagnetic motor-starter, is ___ control
4124	The NE Code restricts the color of insulated equipment-grounding conductors to ___
4125	In terms of control, all the supply conductors to a 3-phase AC motor have to be interrupted ___ to stop the rotor
4126	In the power circuit, ___ conductors of the motor -starters are identified with the capital letter L and the representative phase conductor number (phases 1, 2, or 3) to which they are connected
4127	In the drawing of the schematic and in the actual wiring of the 2-wire remote control of a single 3-phase AC motor, the ungrounded, fused control-power conductor supplies the ___ of the selector switch
4128	The two side rails of the ladder diagram are referred to as the control-power busses ___
4129	In the drawing of the ladder diagram, a ___ line must be used to interconnect the multiple sets of switch contacts that are installed on a common 2-position selector switch
4130	The NE Code restricts the color of insulated grounded circuit conductors (neutral conductors) to either ___ or ___
4131	The 3-pole across-the-line electromagnetic motor-starter consists of a power ___ and an ___ relay
4132	In terms of control, only one of the two supply conductors to a single-phase AC motor has to be interrupted to stop the rotor ___
4133	The use of maintain-type selector or pushbutton switches in a ladder diagram is normally limited to ___ control
4134	The overload-relay sensing elements for a 3-pole electromagnetic motor-starter must be installed in series, one each, with the three load terminals of the motor-starter ___
4135	When identifying the load side of the first switching component in the next consecutive control line of a ladder diagram, the last wire number used must be increased by 1 ___
4136	The ___ auxiliary contacts can also be used to ___ the 3-pole electromagnetic motor-starter of a second motor when two motors cannot be operated simultaneously
4137	The overload-relay sensing elements for an across-the-line motor-starter must be installed in series, one each, with the three load terminals of the motor-starter ___
4138	The use of NO ___ -type selector or pushbutton switches in a control ladder diagram limits the control function to jog control
4139	___ -rated integral-horsepower 3-pole electromagnetic motor-starters may have individual overload relays installed in each motor supply conductor
4140	When wire numbering a ladder diagram, the wire number is increased by ___ (how many) each time a switching component or device is crossed from line side to load side
4141	Either a 3-pole ___ motor-starter or a 3-pole ___ across-the-line motor-starter is commonly used to control a 3-phase AC motor
4142	When wire numbering a ladder diagram, sometimes two switching components — wired in series — will be paralleled with a single switching component, wire number across the devices wired in series first ___
4143	An ___, electromagnetic motor-starter is commonly referred to as a full-voltage motor-starter because line voltage is applied to the motor terminals when the power contactor is closed
4144	Low- or no-voltage ___ is characteristic of 2-wire control
4145	NE Code regulations do not allow a switch or switching contacts to be installed in series with a grounded-circuit conductor ___
4146	The _______________________ motor -starter is normally supplied (purchased) with a minimum of one set of NO auxiliary contacts (control contacts) that are activated with the power contacts ___
4147	If the NC Stop PB switch is held open (depressed), activating (closing) the NO Start PB switch will not initiate the control function: the circuit is disabled ___
4148	Low- or no-voltage protection is characteristic of ___ control
4149	Regarding grounded or ungrounded circuit conductors, individual wires in a control circuit must color-coded ___
4150	Because the selector switch is normally located ___ from the motor-starter location, the 2-wire control circuit gets its name from the number of control-circuit
4151	Low- or no-voltage protection is characteristic of ___control
4152	In the basic 3-wire control circuit of a 3-phase AC motor using a 3-pole electromagnetic motor -starter, two individual PB switches are required; The two individual PB switches must be wired in ___
4153	The power contactors of some 3-pole electromagnetic motor-starters are fitted with both a set of NO and a set of NC ___ contacts, which are both activated (___(___ and ___, ___, respectively) when the power contacts are closed
4154	A 3-pole across-the-line electromagnetic motor-starter is commonly referred to as a ___ starter because line voltage is applied to the motor terminals when the power contactor is closed
4155	When two or more sets of contacts are controlled (opened or closed) simultaneously by a 2-position, maintain-type selector switch, the switch is further described as a ___ switch
4156	When two motors are controlled with a 3-position selector switch, the control or run status of the two 3-phase AC motors are interlocked with the single switch ___
4157	If both 3-phase AC motors are to be ON in the center position of the switch, then both sets of contacts should be at-rest in their ___ configuration
4158	When wire numbering a ladder diagram, sometimes two switching components wired in series will be paralleled with a single switching component: you should wire number across the components wired in series first ___
4159	When NO auxiliary contacts on the power contactor of a motor-starter are used as the hold-in contacts of a control circuit, they must be wired in parallel with the ___ momentary PB switch
4160	___ control of a 3-phase AC induction motor, by means of an electromagnetic motor-starter, uses momentary switches with either pushbutton- or selector-type operators
4161	The operation of a 3-phase AC motor normally involves separate overload protection (separate overload relay) with NC ___ control contacts located in the motor’s control circuit
4162	In troubleshooting a motor control circuit, ___ measurements, with the power on, are normally the preferred method
4163	Low- or no-voltage release is characteristic of ___ control
4164	The wires or conductors, in the control-circuit ladder diagram and the power or load wiring diagram of a motor circuit, are normally both color-coded and wire-numbered for proper ___
4165	The mechanical closing of the power contacts in a 3-pole across-the-line electromagnetic motor-starter is accomplished by mechanical linkage and a concentrated ___ field
4166	Three-wire control gets its name from the number of control circuit conductors that must be extended to the switching location from the motor-starter location ___
4167	In the basic 3-wire control circuit of a 3-phase AC induction motor that uses a full-voltage motor -starter, two individual PB switches are required ___
4168	The use of ___ control in a ladder diagram requires a seal-in circuit
4169	In the basic 3-wire control circuit of a 3-phase AC motor using a 3-pole electromagnetic motor -starter, two individual PB switches are required ___
4170	___ control of a 3-phase AC induction motor, by means of an electromagnetic motor -starter, uses momentary switches with either pushbutton- or selector-type operators
4171	When two motors are controlled with a 3-position selector switch, the control or run status of the two motors are interlocked with the single switch ___
4172	Although the ungrounded control-circuit conductors are normally black, red, or blue, the NE Code will allow these insulated conductors to be any color except ___, ___, or ___
4173	NE Code regulations will not allow a switch or switching contacts to be installed in series with a grounded-circuit conductor ___
4174	In troubleshooting a motor control circuit: To take an accurate ___ measurement, the component in question, such as the solenoid coil of one of the motor -starters
4175	When wire numbering a ladder diagram, the wire number is increased by 1 each time a switching component is crossed from line side to load side ___
4176	The NE Code restricts the color of insulated grounded circuit conductors (neutral conductors) to ___
4177	In troubleshooting a motor control circuit and taking resistance measurements of a motor-starter solenoid coil ___
4178	The wires or conductors, in both the control-circuit ladder diagram and the power or load wiring diagram, are normally both color-coded and wire-numbered for proper ___
4179	A single 3-position switch operator can control two or more motors if separate contact blocks are stack-mounted on the backside of the operator ___
4180	The 3-pole ___ motor-starter is operated by hand at its point of location
4181	In terms of control, all the supply conductors to a 3-phase AC induction motor have to be interrupted ___ to stop the rotor
4182	The mechanical closing of the power contacts in a 3-phase full-voltage motor-starter is accomplished by mechanical linkage and a concentrated electromagnetic field ___
4183	As a rule, 3-phase AC motors are not controlled (ON/OFF) solely with a ganged knife switch because of the need for separate ___ protection of the electric motor
4184	When the FHP motor starter is located remote from the motor location, the overload protection must be temperature compensated for the difference in ambient temperatures ____
4185	The acronym ___ describes a fractional horsepower manual motor starter
4186	A pilot device is technically a 2-position switch whose ON/OFF status is controlled by a sensed medium ___
4187	When HOA control of a single-phase AC induction motor is provided by means of a 3-position selector switch and a pilot device, In the ___ position, power is supplied to the motor through a pilot device
4188	Control of a motor operation is normally in the form of a ___ that either applies or removes electrical power from the motor supply circuit
4189	Before beginning a motor-circuit wiring exercise, you should familiarize yourself with the switches or other device components you are wiring to ensure the circuit conductors ___
4190	When the integral-horsepower manual motor starter is installed in an enclosure to protect personnel from exposed live wire terminals within the motor circuit, pushbutton linkages are mounted in the ___
4191	A motor starter is an assembly of switching contacts and a means of ___ overcurrent protection for the motor
4192	When a single-phase AC induction motor operates at the lower phase-to-ground voltage of 115 volts and the motor field leads are number-identified, the ___
4193	Ungrounded-circuit conductors in a motor-supply circuit must be color-identified to distinguish them from grounded-circuit conductors ___
4194	Any single-phase AC 230-volt induction motor will operate satisfactorily on any single-phase (2-wire) system voltage within a range of ___ to ___ volts
4195	The control of a FHP single-phase AC induction motor using a FHP motor-starter switch is the same in principle as the control of overhead lighting circuits using a ___ toggle switch
4196	In the drawing of the load circuit of a 3-phase AC (3-pole) integral-horsepower manual motor starter, The three line terminals are identified as ___, ___, and ___
4197	Before power can be applied to the connected motor, the overload heater (element) must be installed in the FHP motor starter because ___
4198	When the knife disconnecting means in the motor-controls wiring laboratory at a given lab station is closed, the lower phase-to-neutral supply voltage can be measured to any grounded metal enclosure ___
4199	In some applications, such as hood exhaust fans over dwelling cooking equipment, the assembly, which is normally a fan and light combination, is ___ to the branch circuit, with the light
4200	Incorporating the solenoid contactor into the FHP motor starter circuit creates an additional control circuit ___
4201	For a disconnecting means to be within line-of-sight, the NE Code requires the switch to be located no more than ___ from, and within an unobstructed view from the motor or the equipment it serves
4202	Because the thermal protector is wired in series with the ___ supply terminal of the motor [again any type of switching device cannot be installed in series with an intentionally ___ circuit or component conductor]
4203	The NE Code requires a disconnecting means to be readily accessible and within line-of-sight of the motor ___
4204	If the single-phase AC induction motor is a part of either ___ or ___ load equipment, it may be supplied through a flexible cord and plug from a receptacle outlet
4205	In other applications, such as a portable saw or drill, the motor may be flexible-cord-supplied from a receptacle outlet and the toggle or other selector switch mounted in the ___ of the motor-driven equipment
4206	Any single-phase AC 115-volt induction motor will operate satisfactorily on any system voltage within a range of ___ to ___ volts
4207	When HOA control of a single-phase AC induction motor is provided by means of a 3-position selector switch and a pilot device, In the ___ position
4208	A 3-phase AC induction motor is rated for operation at either 115 or 230 volts. If the respective phase windings are wired in parallel, the motor operates at ___ volts
4209	When the knife disconnecting means ___
4210	A 3-phase AC induction motor is rated for operation at either 230 or 460 volts: If the respective phase windings are wired in ___, the motor should operate at 460 volts
4211	Resetting a tripped integral-horsepower manual motor starter requires pressing the Start/Stop pushbutton switch hard into the ___ position
4212	The integral-horsepower manual motor-starter is required to be ___
4213	A 3-phase AC induction motor is rated for operation at either 230 or 460 volts. If the respective phase windings are wired in parallel, the motor operates at ___ volts
4214	A single-phase AC induction motor controlled with a toggle or selector switch can be internally ___ against sustained mechanical overload
4215	An integral-horsepower 3-phase AC induction motor must be provided with full overcurrent protection ___
4216	When a single-phase AC induction motor operates at the lower phase-to-ground voltage of 115 volts and the motor field leads are color-identified, the intended ___ field lead will be black
4217	If a sustained motor-overload should occur, the higher-value motor overload current will cause the ___ to melt or the ___ to bend to trip the latch and release the switch contacts
4218	A 3-phase AC induction motor is rated for operation at either 115 or 230 volts ___
4219	Resetting of a tripped 3-phase AC integral-horsepower manual motor starter due to motor mechanical overload, requires the ___
4220	When a single-phase AC induction motor operates at the lower phase-to-ground voltage of 115 volts and the motor field leads are number-identified, the ___ circuit conductor should be connected to motor terminal T1
4221	A 3-phase manual motor starter uses a(n) ___ linkage to close all three power (load) contacts simultaneously
4222	The control of the motor is normally used to control the ___ of the connected (driven) equipment
4223	Most selector-switch contact blocks provide two sets of switching contacts ___
4224	When pilot devices are required in automated motor-circuit control circuits, ___ are normally used to sense or regulate the passage of time or for time-delay of sequential events
4225	When a single-phase AC induction motor operates at the lower phase-to-ground voltage of 115 volts and the motor field leads are color-identified, the ___
4226	Incorporating the solenoid contactor into the FHP motor-starter circuit creates an additional circuit ___
4227	As used with selector switches, the term ___ indicates that the load current is interrupted at two contact points within the switch instead of one
4228	AC induction motors are available in either single-phase or polyphase manufacture and wiring configurations ___
4229	When the integral-horsepower manual motor starter is installed in an enclosure to protect personnel from exposed live wire terminals within the motor circuit, pushbutton linkages are mounted in the enclosure ___
4230	For troubleshooting, the ___ position can be used as a pilot device manual override
4231	In response to electric motor overload, the overload protection device either opens the switching contacts directly, which would be a ___ motor starter
4232	A 3-phase AC induction motor is rated for operation at either 230 or 460 volts ___
4233	A ___ is an assembly of switching contacts and a means of overload-overcurrent protection for the motor
4234	When HOA control of a single-phase AC induction motor is provided by means of a 3-position selector switch and a pilot device, the center position of the switch is normally used as the ___ position
4235	Single-phase AC induction motors rated at 200 volts are often used on 208-volt distribution systems to compensate these lower-voltage systems for ___
4236	In the drawing of the load circuit of a 3-phase AC integral-horsepower manual motor starter, the ___
4237	When HOA control of a single-phase AC induction motor is provided by means of a 3-position selector switch and a pilot device; In the ___ position, power is applied directly to the motor
4238	When a FHP motor operates at 120 volts, the toggle switch must be located in (wired in series with) the ___ supply conductor to the motor
4239	With 3-phase AC manual motor starter, when power is applied to the motor supply / control circuit by the closing of the knife switch disconnect in the motor-controls wiring laboratory, ___ VAC
4240	As a last check, when the wiring of the motor circuit is complete, you should make sure that white wires are interconnected to only white wires before energizing the circuit ___
4241	When pilot devices are required in automated motor control circuits, ___ switches are normally used to sense or regulate temperature
4242	Any 3-phase AC 115-volt induction motor will operate satisfactorily on any 3-phase electrical-power distribution system voltage operating within a range of ___ to ___ volts
4243	Before starting any actual wiring of a motor circuit, you should verify the absence of voltage (no voltage) on the ___ side of the disconnecting means to ensure you are working on a wiring lab that is not energized
4244	As used with selector switches, the term ___ indicates that the load current is interrupted at a single contact point within the switch
4245	To interrupt the load current conveyed to a single-phase AC, 2-wire induction motor, either or both supply conductors can be opened ___
4246	If the overload relay is ___, the toggle switch latches in when the switch is flipped or snapped ON
4247	When pilot devices are required in automated motor-circuit control circuits, ___ switches are normally used to sense or regulate pressure or vacuum
4248	When used in conjunction with a FHP motor starter for direct control of a single-phase AC induction motor, the selector switch or pilot device voltage rating must at least equal the motor’s voltage rating ___
4249	When the FHP motor-starter is located remote from the motor location, the overload protection must be temperature ___ for the difference in ambient temperatures
4250	In the drawing of the load circuit of a 3-phase AC (3-pole) integral-horsepower manual motor starter ___
4251	When HOA control of a single-phase AC induction motor is provided by means of a 3-position selector switch and a pilot device. For troubleshooting, the manual position can be used as manual ___ of the pilot device
4252	In terms of switching, a 3-phase AC integral-horsepower manual motor starter is required to be ___, which means that when switched ON into a sustained overload condition
4253	In a wiring diagram, a ___ is the standard symbol for a motor
4254	The single-phase AC induction motor may be ___; which means it is permanently wired from or connected to the branch-circuit supply at the toggle switch
4255	To protect the operator or other persons from exposure to live wire terminals when operating the switch of a manual motor starter, the motor starter must be installed in a ___ enclosure
4256	When used to control the ON/OFF status of a fan or other motor application of a fractional-horsepower AC induction motor, the set of contacts which are ___ when the selector switch
4257	To protect the operator or other persons from exposure to ___ wire terminals when operating the switch of a motor-starter, the motor starter must be installed in a deadfront enclosure
4258	When HOA control of a single-phase AC induction motor is provided by means of a 3-position selector switch and a pilot device ___
4259	Both the supply and return circuit conductors of an AC circuit must be contained / installed in the same pipe or other raceway or pass through a common hole in a metal enclosure to avoid the heating effect of ___
4260	When pilot devices are required in automated motor-circuit control circuits, ___ switches are normally used to sense or regulate position or motion
4261	If the control circuit is not referenced to ___, then measuring from the control transformer common return terminal is the only means available for taking these voltage readings
4262	Before taking actual voltage readings within the load or control circuit, ___ law should be used to determine if when the voltage is measured, it is the voltage expected in the circuit at the point of measure
4263	If supply voltage is not available on initial voltage checks, then checking ________________ of both power-circuit and control-circuit fuses of a motor circuit is a good place to start in effective troubleshooting ___
4264	Operating temperature of process equipment or the ambient air in a room or other enclosed area can be sensed by the use of ___ switches
4265	There are three principal types of fuses: Current-limiting, instant, and time-delay ___
4266	In multioutlet branch circuit; Both loads, because they are connected in parallel and in series with the limit and load control of the circuit current (the OCPD and the control switch), operate at the same AC source ___
4267	For the testing of control fuses, the control-circuit voltage can be measured by either the ___ -to- ___ or ___ -to- ___ method
4268	In manufacturing or other types of process control ___
4269	If the manual switch is the only means of directional or ON/OFF control, this is normally described as ___, since the motor load current flows through the switch
4270	A phenomenon referred to as “___” occurs when reading the pointer against the selected scale on an analog meter:
4271	If the overhead lighting is controlled from a single location, the SPST toggle switch must be wired in ___, ahead of the ___ lighting load, in the ___ supply of the branch circuit
4272	Analog scales may be ___ or ___
4273	A ___ is a meter that can measure two or more electrical properties and displays the measured properties as numerical values
4274	Where the total of the single-phase lighting and receptacle loads is equal to or greater than the total air-conditioning and other motor load, the service is normally rated as ___ volt, 3-phase AC, and 4-wire
4275	Too often just any available fuse is used to replace a blown fuse ___
4276	When the fuse, circuit breaker, or control switch is ___, the load voltage and the power supply voltage are one and the same
4277	The secondary control circuit of the separately derived system cannot be referenced to the equipment-grounding system, unless the electrical-power distribution system within the building ___
4278	The supply voltage will divide in a series circuit as voltage drops across the individual resistive loads directly-proportional to the individual resistance values ___
4279	The third step of divide and conquer in effective troubleshooting requires ___, ___, or ___ the various parts or sections of a very complicated control circuit and breaking them down into simpler sections of control
4280	In an overhead or general-lighting circuit of a building or other structure, the ___ is the continuous branch-circuit power supply from the panel or other load center
4281	The more common way of checking for an open fuse in an electrical power distribution system is with a ___
4282	Circuit breakers normally trip open eventually under either continual or extended ___ overcurrent, or instantly when a ___ overcurrent condition occurs in the protected circuit
4283	The four principalprinciple quantities of measure in an electrical circuit are ___, ___, ___, and ___
4284	When the connected load is shorted, the only resistance left in the circuit is the super-low ___
4285	Most control voltages, especially those rated at 120 volts, are derived as a separate electrical-power control system from the higher-voltage plant electrical-power distribution system through a control ___
4286	A feeder circuit, which interconnects two load centers, has overcurrent protection installed at both ends ___
4287	Switches or other contact devices, which do not consume power but rather direct the flow of electrical current to the power consuming devices, are always placed in ___ with the lights or solenoids they control
4288	If the CB responded to clear ___ overcurrent in the circuit, the high-magnitude overcurrent probably caused internal damage or at least caused an error in the calibration of the CB
4289	Effective ___ starts with an analysis of the problem
4290	On a 3-phase AC, 4-wire, 208Y/120-volt building or other-structure electrical-power distribution system, any electrical utilization equipment supplied by any two ungrounded busses ___
4291	For control circuits, taking current readings is the number one method for determining the operating status of the circuit or component ___
4292	In some instances the control power may not be derived from a transformer in the motor control center (cabinet) ___
4293	For any parallel circuit: Although some of the circuit current must take every available parallel path presented, the majority of circuit current will always take the path of ___ resistance
4294	Because the measured value is displayed as a numerical (digital) value on digital multimeters, errors can occur when reading a digital display if the displayed ___, ___, and/or ___ are not properly applied
4295	For any series circuit, The total circuit wattage is equal to the ___ of all the individual series load-resistance wattages
4296	Instead of a voltage range switch, most DMMs are ___, which means that once a measuring function is selected, the meter automatically selects the best meter range for taking the measurement
4297	Circuit breakers normally trip open under either continual or extended ____________ -overcurrent or instantly when a ___ overcurrent condition occurs in the protected circuit
4298	For single-pole circuit breakers, line voltage should be read to any other breaker terminal that is not on the ___ in the load center
4299	With voltage available in the panel, on a 2-pole or a 3-pole CB, voltage measured with a meter between any two terminals on the load side of the CB should read ___ voltage
4300	A ___ movement / meter or ___ is a meter movement, consisting of a permanent magnet, a coil of wire, and a free-moving rotary dial
4301	The supply side (line side) of a CB, which is normally clip-mounted on its underside to one or more stabs on the panel ungrounded power bus, is normally ___ for voltage measurements
4302	The use or sensing of time is very diversified: Equipment can also be controlled by a real ___ where it is turned on at a particular time of day or turned off at a particular time of day
4303	The scales on an analog multimeter are normally divided using ___ divisions, ___ divisions, and ___
4304	Circuit breakers can be considered as ___ overcurrent protection devices
4305	Most problems found in the circuit must be determined with the ___ on
4306	Because of the main bonding jumper connection between the grounded, common-return, neutral conductor and the grounding-electrode/equipment-grounding system of a 3-phase AC, 4-wire, 208Y/120-volt building ___
4307	The acronym VOM stands for ___
4308	___ volts should be measured with the other test lead to the line side of the secondary control fuse
4309	The main advantages of a digital multimeter over an analog multimeter is the ability of a digital meter to ___ measurements, the ease in ___ the displayed values, and built-in ___
4310	For any parallel circuit: The circuit current divides ___ -proportional to the value resistances found in the individual parallel branches
4311	In manufacturing or other types of process control; The vertical buses of the control or signal circuit supplying several rungs used to create the ladder diagram creates a multioutlet branch circuit ___
4312	To check the continuity of a fuse with the power on, two methods are available for taking voltage readings; Which of the following is (are) true ___
4313	For any series circuit, According to Kirchhoff’s Voltage Law, the ___ of the individual-load voltage drops will always equal the supply voltage
4314	If a 10- , a 20- , and a 30- resistor are wired in parallel across a 120-volt AC source, the total circuit resistance should equal ___
4315	When electrical-power distribution and process control circuits operate in reference to earth ground, the supply is the ___ circuit conductor and the return is the ___ circuit conductor
4316	Kirchhoff’s voltage and current laws also come into play in effective troubleshooting ___
4317	The use or sensing of time is very diversified; equipment can also be controlled by a ___ where it is turned on at a particular time of day or turned off at a particular time of day
4318	The waveforms associated with voltages are normally sinusoidal. Most voltmeters, whether analog or digital, can only display ___ AC voltage values
4319	An analog multimeter is normally stored with the function/range switch set to the ___ position
4320	For any series circuit; A voltmeter offers high ___ to the flow of current; however, a minute amount of current ― enough to drive the meter, but not enough to energize the connected load does flow
4321	The total circuit current depends on the resistance of both loads ___
4322	The two principle applications of series-parallel combination circuits are the electrical-power ___ of a building or other structure, and manufacturing or other types of ___
4323	All electrical circuits can be reduced to a simple series circuit in terms of calculation ___
4324	To check the continuity of a fuse with the power on, two methods are available for taking voltage readings. Which of the following applies ___
4325	Most process or other utilization equipment depends on other factors that either controls the equipment or the equipment controls them ___
4326	The use or sensing of time is very diversified: Equipment can be ___, meaning there is an intended time delay between when a switch is closed and when a motor or other piece of equipment actually starts
4327	If zero volts is measured on both the line and load sides of the control fuse, the fuse, as before with the power-fuse voltage measurements, is not necessarily open ___
4328	In multioutlet branch circuit; The entire load current will pass through the OCPD and switch and divide at the ___ or ___ where the loads are connected in parallel
4329	For control circuits, taking ___ readings is the number one method for determining the operating status of the circuit or component
4330	When switches or auxiliary contacts are wired in ___ each other in adjacent rungs of the ladder diagram that are made common to a single rung, an OR function (gate) is formed
4331	Operating temperature of process equipment or the ambient air in a room or other enclosed area can be sensed by the use of ___ or ___ switches
4332	The electrical-power distribution system within a building or other structure has three major circuit classifications are ___
4333	The standard single-phase AC service is normally rated 120/240-volt, 3-wire; The two ungrounded service conductors ___ be fused
4334	The basic steps in the effective design and troubleshooting of either a load or a control circuit include ___
4335	When 2-position, ___ switches are used; they must be wired in series with only the pair of traveler conductors, which interconnect the two ___ switches
4336	Within the electrical-power distribution system of a building or other structure, the AC source and the fused knife switch or circuit breaker would be located in the ___ equipment load center
4337	There are three principal types of fuses ___
4338	In the control section ladder diagram, all the parallel rungs ___
4339	For any series circuit: The, the circuit voltage can always be measured at the power source (point of power supply); assuming power is available to the power supply ___
4340	The overcurrent protection for both the incoming service and any feeder distribution circuits is split with short-circuit ground-fault protection at their ___ end, and overload-overcurrent protection at their ___ end
4341	The total circuit current depends on the resistance of both loads. In parallel; Operating at the same voltage the load with the least resistance will draw the ___ of the circuit current
4342	In combination circuits, voltage, resistance, and current rules are obeyed according to the type of circuit seen; In a ___ circuit
4343	Electrical test instruments may be either ___ or ___
4344	According to the electrical needs of the occupant of a building or other structure, the incoming service may be rated as either single-phase or 3-phase AC ___
4345	Except in fundamental circuits, where the behavior of voltage, current, resistance, and wattage is investigated, series circuits which contain more than one utilization-equipment load are not common ___
4346	In the 480Y/277-volt, 3-phase AC, 4-wire building or other-structure electrical-power distribution systems, the 3-phase line voltage is ___ volts; the lower single-phase neutral voltage is ___ volts
4347	There are three principal types of fuses: ___ fuses have a rejection feature on one blade or on one end cap of a barrel-type (ferrule-type) fuse which fits a rejection type fuseholder
4348	In this case, if there is no voltage present before the fuse, the circuit breaker (CB) in the panel may be turned off or tripped (out or open) ___
4349	As the name implies, in a parallel circuit all the utilization-equipment loads are connected in ___ with each other, and then the ___ -array is connected across a ___ power supply
4350	The majority of the time, a(n) ___ in one part of the load or control circuit creates a(n) ____________ in another part of the circuit ― normally the control fuse and the failure appears to be a(n) ____________ circuit
4351	For any series circuit, Circuit voltage ___ as “voltage drops” according to the individual resistances
4352	___ switches are pilot devices that are often used to sense a change in pressure
4353	For any series circuit, The total circuit resistance is equal to the ________________ of all the individual resistance loads connected in series
4354	A series circuit forms a single ___ path between the supply and return terminals of a given power supply
4355	If the fuse in question is contained in a fuseholder that is remote from the disconnecting means, the disconnect must still be ___, and one end of the fuse should be ___ of the fuseholder for the continuity reading
4356	For any series circuit; If there is a break in the circuit, the voltage can still be measured at the point of ___, but the connected-load voltage reading will move from the ___ to the point of ___ or the ___ in the circuit
4357	Voltage measured from the load side or load terminal of two single-pole CBs located side-by-side in a single column should read ___ voltage
4358	Each rung in the ladder is in ___ with every other rung in the same ladder. In other words, all the control lines are in ___ from (across) a common control-voltage source
4359	The overcurrent protection device(s) mustprotect the circuit conductors, the electrical-power distribution equipment, and the connected electrical utilization equipment loads they all supply at the correct ___
4360	Since the resistance of dirt, oxidation, or other contaminates at the contact points of the two test probes of the ohmmeter is also being measured in this test; the actual ohmic reading does not have any ___ value
4361	Within the electrical-power distribution system of a building or other structure, multioutlet branch circuits are normally used to supply mutiple ___ or ___ receptacle outlets in a given room or manufacturing area
4362	In manufacturing or other types of process control, the AC source and the fused knife switch or circuit breaker would be located in the ___ center
4363	___ or ___ switches are pilot devices that are often used to sense a change in pressure
4364	The two common failures of motor control and motor load circuits are ___ and ___, and of the two: the ___ is the more common
4365	When the load of a parallel circuit consists of two or more individual loads, the supply circuit conductor forms a common bus to which one side (supply side) of all the parallel loads is connected ___
4366	For any series circuit: Circuit ___ is held constant according to the values of total resistance and the magnitude of the supply voltage
4367	The use or sensing of time is very diversified: A ___ is a device that is designed to switch closed contacts open or to switch open contacts closed
4368	With one test lead of the voltmeter referenced to the metal enclosure of the disconnecting means and the other test lead referenced to the line side of either the line 1, line 2, or line 3 fuse, a measure of ___ volts
4369	There are three principal types of fuses: current-limiting, instant (non-time delay), and time-delay ___
4370	Each type of fuse has different voltage and current ratings ___
4371	Because high-bay lighting normally operates at the higher single-phase AC voltage of 277 volts, a 3-phase AC, 480-volt D-primary, 208Y/120-volt secondary power transformer is used to ___
4372	To check the continuity of a fuse by an ohmic reading, the disconnecting means on the line side (ahead-of) of the fuse must be opened to ensure the circuit is ___, and to open any ___ paths to the fuse that may be present
4373	The display on most DMMs displays the information or measured values in a ___ a solid silver rectangular plane
4374	As in single-phase panels: To, to balance the load current of the 120-volt, 2-wire neutral loads between the three ungrounded busses in a 3-phase AC, 4-wire, 208Y/120-volt building ___
4375	For current to flow in any electrical circuit there has to be a ___ from the power supply to the connected load, and back to the power supply
4376	The grounded-return circuit conductor is a current-carrying conductor in an electrical circuit referenced to earth ground ___
4377	___ or ___ overcurrent protection (short-circuit, ground-fault, and overload protection) is provided for the branch circuits with overcurrent protection located only at its supply end
4378	The use or sensing of time is very diversified ___
4379	The location of the short normally has to be located by ___ the affected circuit in parts and taking ___ checks of different parts of the circuit
4380	Short circuits occur when the load has been ___, ___, or ___ with or by a conductive material of low resistance value
4381	If the letters OL appear on the digital display when a measure is being attempted, this indicates the measure is of higher value than the digital multimeter can read the meter is ___
4382	When the load of a parallel circuit consists of two or more individual loads, the supply circuit conductor forms a ___ to which one side (supply side) of all the parallel loads is connected
4383	___ and ___ mentally breakdown the control circuit into sections or parts
4384	___ occur in an electrical circuit when the load has been shunted, paralleled, or bypassed with or by a conductive material of low resistance value
4385	If the building electrical-power distribution system operates in reference to ground ___
4386	Single-pole circuit breakers will not be found in 3-wire, delta-supplied power panels that are not referenced to ground ___
4387	For any series circuit; The circuit voltage can always be measured at the power source (point of power supply); assuming power is available to the power supply ___
4388	When two or more utilization equipment loads are supplied from a common circuit, they are wired in ___
4389	For any parallel circuit: The ___ of the individual-branch load currents must equal the total circuit current
4390	Instead of an arrowhead, the wiper is drawn pointing into and touching the arc in the ___ symbol in line or ladder diagrams
4391	When a selector switch is used as a momentary switch, it is normally noted on the ladder diagram as ___
4392	The acronym used to identify the type of voltage solenoid or meter is normally written within the circle between the wire terminals: mA in the circle indicates a(n) ___
4393	If the switch is drawn in ___ configuration, one end of the moveable linkage or bar of the switch is hinged to one of the two wire terminals
4394	You should take the ___ home
4395	A short straight line drawn over two small open circles indicates some type of ___
4396	The ___ for the motor symbol is used in both the control or signal section of a schematic (ladder diagram) and the power or load section of the same schematic
4397	When drawing a 2-position selector switch, the arrowhead should point to the ___ selected position
4398	Both a zigzag line and double shepherd hooks series-wired on the load side of the latch-type switch symbol (an arc drawn between two straight lines) indicate a ___
4399	The chassis common, which uses a ___ symbol, is not necessarily ___
4400	A lazy Z drawn across the parallel lines indicates a ___ iron-core reactor
4401	A ___ switch is a switch in which one or more metal blades pivoted at one end, serves as the moving parts for the opening or closing of the circuit by the moving blade(s) either disengaging or engaging contact clips
4402	A ___ switch, commonly referred to as a wall switch, is a two-position snap switch normally used to control overhead lighting or fractional horsepower motors
4403	A ___ diagram is a drawing similar to a pictorial drawing, except the components of the circuit are represented by rectangles or circles
4404	With the exception of ___ coils, the symbol of a reactor coil consists of a number of ___ or ___ drawn in a straight line
4405	Addressed by the acronym SPST, a ___ , ___ switch can be of either single-break or double-break configuration
4406	Instead of just a button, the head of the mushroom-head or palm-head operator Is flared open or out similar to a mushroom (or open umbrella), so the button can be accessed and actuated from about ___
4407	A good point to remember is that any switch/relay-logic symbol is created with the thought of conveying as much information as possible about the device or circuit component it represents ___
4408	A single ___ drawn as perched over two open circles, one at either end of the arch, normally indicates some type of circuit interrupters, such as a motor-circuit interrupter or a circuit breaker
4409	The two side rails of the ladder are referred to as the control-power ___
4410	In line or ladder diagrams, straight lines are used to indicate circuit conductors ___
4411	Meter shunts, used to pass the majority of load current in parallel to the meter movement, are also represented by the resistance ___
4412	The same bolt of lightning symbol used to symbolize the current-actuated coil, also is used as the sensing element in the symbol of an ___ circuit breaker and as the magnetic sensor in a motor-starter ___
4413	Boxes, some square and others rectangular, normally symbolize some type of ___ control, whether limiting the current as in a power fuse or a resistor, or increasing the ___ as in some type of amplifier
4414	An arc drawn between the two straight lines symbolizes a ___, which contains a latch-type switch but no means of sensing or responding to an overcurrent condition in the motor circuit
4415	In the elementary diagram, ___, instead of a picture or likeness, is used for the circuit components
4416	The interconnecting broken line in the symbol of a rotary switch, which represents a mechanical linkage, is a type of switch ___ where one set of contacts is opened the second set is closed
4417	A ___ disconnect is normally connected in the power circuit just ahead of the electric motor at the motor location to provide a safety disconnect when the motor, needing service
4418	The acronym used to identify the type of voltage solenoid or meter is normally written within the circle between the wire terminals: VAR in the circle indicates a(n) ___
4419	Control circuits are normally referenced to the distribution equipment-grounding system ___
4420	When used to adjust the supply voltage, the variable resistor is referred to as a ___ characteristically a 3-terminal device
4421	Normally, the actuator of a pushbutton (PB) switch, whether momentary- or maintained-type, is a vertical line without the ___
4422	___ are like a second language in the electrical field. The way the symbols is drawn is intended to relay its function
4423	In the control section of the ladder diagram; The grounded circuit conductor is identified as wire # ___
4424	___ are technically electromechanical linear-motion actuators
4425	In addition to color-coding, the line conductors in the power or load circuit are identified with the capital letter ___ and the representative phase conductor to which they are connected
4426	When addressing the switching contacts of a relay, contactor, or motor-starter, the parallel lines drawn perpendicular to the wire terminal lines symbolize a set of ___ contacts:
4427	Because most switches can be maintained opened or closed, the “___” concept was developed
4428	A PB stack switch, which may contain several sets of switching contacts that can all be either NO or NC, or a combination to where some are NO and others are NC, is normally used in pushbutton ___
4429	In line or ladder diagrams, ___ are used to indicate circuit conductors
4430	The prints or drawings of electrical-power distribution circuits within a building or other structure, which are drawn over the basic outline of the architectural floor plan ___
4431	When two paralleled lines are drawn parallel to the arches in the winding(s) symbol, this indicates an ___ core in the autotransformer, DC motor field, reactor, or transformer
4432	___ mccontacts, whether open or closed can be contained in a control relay, an industrial relay, a power contactor, or a motor starter
4433	___ lines are used to indicate the circuit conductors which interconnect the control devices in switch/relay-logic
4434	Two reactor coil winding symbols, drawn in parallel without any electrical or mechanical connection, represent an ___ or ___ transformer
4435	The winding symbol of a reactor is also used to represent transformers. The single winding drawn with one or more taps is the symbol for a(n) ___
4436	The acronym used to identify the type of voltage solenoid or meter is normally written within the circle between the wire terminals: WH in the circle indicates a(n) ___
4437	___ are like a second language in the electrical field
4438	If the switch is drawn in ___ configuration, the line and load wire terminals of the switch assembly are connected one each to stationary contact pads within the switch
4439	What is drawn on top of the square box is used to symbolize the type of annunciator. A horn, siren, or speaker is symbolized by the ___
4440	As used with the acronym DPST, ___-___, ___-___ indicates two single-pole single-throw switches are ganged on a common switch operator
4441	The basic ___ circuit can be represented with a box drawing of a power source, connecting lines as wires, and another box drawing of a connected load
4442	Intended to provide a fast and easy understanding of the connections and use of the components, ___ diagrams show the logic of an electrical circuit or system using standard symbols
4443	The ladder diagram is actually an elementary diagram that can be drawn as two principal sections ___
4444	What is drawn on top of the square box is used to symbolize the type of annunciator. A ___ symbolizes a buzzer or some type of clapper
4445	With the exception of the vertical busses wire #1 and #2, you should increase the wire number by ___ each time a switching component is crossed from line side to load side when wire-numbering a ladder diagram
4446	The typical ___ line, which is the resistance symbol in electronic drawings, normally is not used in control drawings
4447	A(n) ___ circle is representative of some type of screw or lug terminal
4448	A circle represents a ___ coil with wire-terminal circles or short wire leads extended on either side along the horizontal centerline of the circle
4449	Electrical drawings have two main divisions: ___ and ___
4450	The power supply to the stator assembly of the AC motor is symbolized by supply lines drawn on the ___ of the circle symbol
4451	___ resistors are shown in line or ladder diagrams as a rectangular box
4452	The rheostat is used to limit current in a circuit ___
4453	The schematic, also referred to as a ___ or ___ diagram, outlines the circuit components in their electrical sequence without regard or reference as to their physical location
4454	The indicating-light circle, which is normally drawn to a smaller scale compared to a ___ symbol in a ladder diagram, is further identified with four short ___ drawn at a diagonal of outside the circle
4455	When the fused vertical bus contains control contacts, as is typical in a control circuit which contains a safety circuit, you should add ___ to the wire number of the last control line number
4456	In the AC motor, the rotating member is referred to as the ___
4457	All circuit breakers, whether magnetic, thermal or thermal/magnetic, are required by the NE Code to be ___ indicating that if the circuit breaker is switched on and into a fault overcurrent circuit condition
4458	In the rotary switch symbol, a break-before-make configuration is noted (with the ___ operator) as ___ or ___ contacts
4459	___ switches are normally drawn as one set of NO switching contacts
4460	In an elementary diagram of switched lighting in the electrical-power distribution system of a building, which is normally referenced to earth ground ___
4461	Three supply lines identify a ___ -phase AC, 3-wire induction motor
4462	Drawn open or apart, the parallel lines in the symbol for instant-operating contacts indicates a set of ___ contacts
4463	When used as the supply-protection of a solid-state drive the more common application in electric-motor supply circuits, the instantaneous-trip circuit breaker is normally referred to as an MCP a ___
4464	Addressed by the acronym SPDT, a ___, ___ switch can also be either single-break or double-break in configuration
4465	The fused side of the ungrounded circuit conductor, extended from the load side of the control fuse, is identified as wire # ___
4466	The acronym ___ indicates the normally-closed at-rest status of the control contacts
4467	___ switches may be drawn as one set of switching contacts that are either NO or NC
4468	A letter inside the indicating-light circle in a ladder diagram is used to indicate the color of the switch: the capital letter ___ represents amber (yellow), ___ represents green, ___ represents red, and ___ represents blue
4469	When the typical pushbutton switch, mounted through the front cover of the control panel with the exposed energized contact block terminals contained inside the control panel ___
4470	The color-coding of the circuit conductors is normally not enough to identify the conductors that must be extended to a given switch or control component ladder diagram ___
4471	On the electrical plans, a given circuit is represented as a ___ drawing to reduce the clutter of too many lines or symbols on a given electrical print
4472	A single tap, which is connected to the reactor coil winding symbol with an arrowhead, represents a ___ -___ autotransformer
4473	Control-circuit switches are of two principal types: Either ___ or ___
4474	The complexity of electrical distribution and control circuits requires the engineer, electrician, or technician to learn a second language: the shorthand language of same term throughout ___
4475	The ___ offers an inversed-timed response to motor starting and running overload overcurrents
4476	Normally, selector switches are used with a ___ -type control rung (ladder-diagram control line), and pushbutton switches are normally used with a ___ -type control rung
4477	Normally, a single-gang knife switch or other single-gang disconnecting means indicates a single-phase AC motor supply, although either a single or 3-phase, AC supply is ___
4478	The midpoint of the two series-connected sets of control contacts in the first control line should be labeled with the next ___ consecutive number (___ to ___)
4479	On the electrical plans instead of color coding, the number of supply and return circuit conductors between the switch and the light, and between the switch and the AC source, the type of ___
4480	The term ___ indicates a state of being whole, unbroken or interrupted as ___ through part of a circuit, or ___ through a device winding
4481	___ circuits are electrical circuits within an automated system used to stop, start, and/or regulate flow of gas, liquid, and/or electricity in a specified manner or logical sequence
4482	When a solenoid piping valve is noted with a number-dash-letter, the number indicates the number of valve ___
4483	To facilitate the quick change of the electric motors, the supply conductors will often be cord and receptacle connected ___
4484	Two basic uses of precision ceramic core wire-wound variable resistors as adjustable autotransformers are ___ divide and ___ control
4485	The winding symbol of a reactor is also used to represent transformers ___
4486	The broken line interconnecting the three poles of the disconnect operator (handle), normally indicates a ___ all switches
4487	Drawn with railroad tracks, the symbol of a tap-connected reactor coil represents an ___-___ autotransformer
4488	The acronym used to identify the type of voltage solenoid or meter is normally written within the circle between the wire terminals: AH in the circle indicates a(n) ___
4489	A ___ switch is a type of lighting toggle switch designed for either recessed installation in a box or for surface mounting
4490	Two or more ___ drawn in series normally indicates some type of inductive coil or winding
4491	A ___ contains the switch but no means of sensing or responding to an overcurrent condition in the motor circuit — it is not an overcurrent protection device, but rather just a ___-___ circuit switch
4492	Also referred to as a coil and plunger, a ___ is an electromagnet consisting of a hollow coil or spool, which contains a movable iron core (armature) that is held partially out of the coil by spring tension
4493	The mushroom-head or palm-head pushbutton operator is extended past the end of the locking collar, such that the closing of the mushroom head is ___ by the collar
4494	As used in control circuits: a ___ switch is a maintain-type control switch with contacts so arranged as to permit a conductor in a circuit to be connected to a common terminal
4495	When a control switch contains one set of NO contacts and one set of NC contacts, and the NC contacts are opened before the NO contacts are closed, a ___ switching configuration is created
4496	The ___ interconnecting the three poles (switches) of a 3-pole disconnecting means operator (handle), normally indicates a mechanical linkage all switches
4497	With the exception of the vertical busess wire #1 andwire #2, you should increase the wire number by ___ each time a switching component is crossed from line side to load side
4498	In a ladder diagram, the “S” symbol drawn in the left vertical line and represents a ___
4499	There are two standard fuse symbols ___
4500	If a control switch is drawn with one end of the moveable linkage, or the bar of the switch is hinged to one of the ___
4501	Addressed by the acronym ___, a single-pole, double-throw switch can also be either single-break or double-break in configuration
4502	___ circuit conductors in any electrical circuit must be fused at their point of supply. These conductors must be insulated and color-coded to any color other than white, gray, or green
4503	___ circuit conductors in any electrical circuit must be fused at their point of supply
4504	A pair of series-connected control contacts will be paralleled with another pair of series-connected control contacts ___
4505	The short line with an arrowhead extended from the switch is another form of shorthand used to reduce clutter on the electrical plan ___
4506	A lighted pushbutton can be indicated in more than one way on a ladder diagram or other drawing ___
4507	The acronym used to identify the type of voltage solenoid or meter is normally written within the circle between the wire terminals: A or AM in the circle indicates a(n) ___
4508	To aid in the quicker response in an emergency shutdown (safety) situation, the ___ that keeps the operator extended and the switching contacts closed, is less for the mushroom-head operator
4509	Both potentiometers and rheostats can be classified as linear or taper. When classified as ___, the percentage of output voltage varies directly with the percentage of tap
4510	Because the ___ cannot momentarily pass current in excess of its rating, it must be set to trip at a value higher than the locked-rotor current rating of the electric motor when magnetic circuit breaker installed
4511	Because the magnetic circuit breaker cannot momentarily pass current in excess of its rating, it must be set to trip at a value higher than the ___-___ current rating of the electric motor
4512	At the top of the right vertical line in a ladder diagram, the ___ symbol (___) is shown connected common to the other side of the control transformer and to the return-circuit conductor of the ladder diagram
4513	The thermal/magnetic circuit breaker is also referred to as an ___-___ circuit breaker:
4514	The schematic diagram should not be confused with a ___ diagram, which does represent the physical location of the contained circuit components
4515	With the exception of solenoid coils, the symbol of a reactor coil consists of a number of arches or humps drawn in a straight line ___
4516	The acronym used to identify the type of voltage solenoid or meter is normally written within the circle between the wire terminals: V or VM in the circle indicates a(n) ___
4517	Numbered in this manner, the next ___ consecutive number will identify the ___ side conductor of both parallel sets of contacts
4518	Addressed by the acronym DPDT, ___- ___, ___-___ indicates two single-pole double-throw switches are ganged on a common switch operator
4519	If the line is not touching either circle, this indicates a normally ___ break switch
4520	The ___ represents a magnetic sensing element, which is normally a current solenoid (heavy coil of wire) wired in series with the latch switch
4521	A ___ or ___ diagram is normally a skeletal, geometrical drawing
4522	In the power or load circuit, line conductors are identified with the capital letter L and the representative phase conductor to which they are connected ___
4523	The electrical plan, or ___ as it is normally called, is drawn over the basic outline of the architectural floor plan of the building (or other structure)
4524	The 3-phase AC, 3-wire, wire-wound rotor induction motor is symbolized with two ___ circles
4525	When drawing a 3-position selector switch, the arrowhead should point to the ___ position
4526	Older schematics may show one line drawn with a hump over the other to indicate no ___ and use either the straight-line intersection or perpendicular line termination as ___
4527	Because the single-line drawings of the electrical layout are drawn over the floor plan of the building or floor level (multistory) being represented, electrical circuits are normally drawn as ___ lines
4528	To communicate between control and sensing equipment located on a rotating platform and stationary control and sensing equipment, a brush and slip ring assembly is required ___
4529	The double shepherd hooks on the load side of the latch-type switch symbol (an arc drawn between two straight lines) indicates a ___
4530	When a control switch contains one set of NO contacts and one set of NC contacts, and the NC contacts are opened before the NO contacts are closed, this is referred to as a ___ switching configuration
4531	If the short straight line is drawn over one of the open circles at a slight angle so that it is touching the side of the other open circle, this indicates a normally ___ break switch
4532	A bolt of lightning (zigzag line) laid on its side represents a ______coil
4533	On the electrical plan of a building or other structure, the capital ___ symbol for a toggle switch in a given circuit indicates a single-pole light switch
4534	As compared to the ___, which directs only the starting or stopping of an electric motor, the ___ supplies the 3-phase power to the line-side of the 3-phase manual or electromechanical motor starter
4535	A(n)___ circle connecting two or more straight lines indicates a splice or other interconnection of two or more wires
4536	A circle is normally used to indicate a wire connection: A(n) ___ is normally used to indicate a splice with some type of wire fastener
4537	The acronym used to identify the type of voltage solenoid or meter is normally written within the circle between the wire terminals: VA in the circle indicates a(n) ___
4538	A ___ /___circuit breaker is a hybrid circuit breaker that contains a magnetic sensing element (___ symbol) and a thermal sensing element (___ shepherd hooks) wired in series
4539	The ___ diagram represents the physical location of the contained circuit components
4540	The ___ at the angled-end of the selector-switch actuator symbol normally denotes a knob-type selector switch that is either turned left or right
4541	When used to control the available connected-load current, the variable resistor is referred to as a ___ characteristically a 2-terminal device
4542	As used with the acronym ___, double-pole, single-throw indicates two single-pole single-throw switches are ganged on a common switch operator
4543	The midpoint of the two series-connected sets of control contacts in the second parallel control line should be labeled with the next ___ consecutive number (___-to-___)
4544	As compared to the control circuit which only directs the starting or stopping of an electric motor, the ___ or ___ circuit supplies the 3-phase AC power from the load side
4545	___ of electrical equipment aid in familiarization of the different components within the electrical system, but they have limited use in conveying control information about the electrical circuit
4546	The three position, center-return, mushroom-head, push/pull operator is stacked with one set of NO contacts and a set of NC contacts ___
4547	To link the two together, mentally, they are identified in the same manner ___
4548	The zigzag line on the load side of the latch-type switch symbol (an arc drawn between the two straight lines) indicates a ___
4549	The prints or drawings of electrical-power distribution circuits within a building or other structure are normally referred to as ___
4550	When identifying the load-side of the first switching component in the next consecutive control line, you should add ___ to the last wire number used
4551	The ___ Push/Pull pushbutton switch is a special type of switch often used in safety circuits where immediate shutdown of the machine or process is required with easy access to the switch
4552	The symbol of a ___ (acronym) NO single-break toggle switch is representative of two of the SPST NO single-break toggle switches internally mechanically connected to a single switch operator in a common enclosure
4553	In the rotary switch symbol, a make-before-break configuration is noted (with an ___ at the end of the selector-actuator symbol) denotes ___ contacts
4554	A selector switch with more than three positions is normally re-classified as a ___ switch
4555	The switch symbols are categorized according to ___ (what the switch does):
4556	Autotransformers are often used because of their lower ___
4557	Any symbol is created with the thought of conveying as much information as possible about the device or circuit component it represents ___
4558	The acronym used to identify the type of voltage solenoid or meter is normally written within the circle between the wire terminals: VARH in the circle indicates a(n) ___
4559	Because most momentary PB switches are limited to two positions (either at-rest or activated) in either a NO or an NC switch configuration and cannot be left in a third state somewhere in between these two states ___
4560	The three-position, centre-return, mushroom-head, push/pull operator is stacked with one set of NO contacts and a set of NC contacts ___
4561	Many times the drawn lines in line or ladder diagrams must cross without connection to the lines they cross ___
4562	The ___ interconnecting the three poles (switches) of a 3-pole disconnecting means operator (handle), normally indicates a mechanical linkage — all switches or switching contacts shown interconnected with the broken line
4563	To reduce clutter and create parallel connections, ___ are used on schematics, especially in vertical bus connections, to indicate screw terminal splice on a control device
4564	In a separately-derived control circuit, these white- or gray-colored ___ circuit conductors are referred to as just the “common”
4565	A small ___ is a wire-terminal connection, but a medium to large circle is used with switch and relay-logic symbols to identify the solenoid or light as the load in a given line (or rung) in the control circuit
4566	The ___ head or ___ head momentary pushbutton switch is a special type of NC PB switch often used in safety circuits where immediate shutdown of the machine or process is required with easy access to the switch
4567	The acronym ___ indicates the normally-closed held-open at-rest status of the control contacts
4568	As used in the electrical-power distribution wiring of a building or other structure, a ___ is that part of a branch circuit extended from the panel or other load center housing the branch circuit fuse
4569	The ___ symbol in a ladder diagram indicates some type of annunciator
4570	The same size ___, which is used for relay or motor-starter voltage solenoids in a ladder diagram, is used to symbolize panel meters
4571	In a 2-wire branch-circuit, which operates at the lower phase-to-neutral voltage, ___ circuit conductors are referred to as the “grounded common return”
4572	A single circuit conductor is typically connected to several devices in a common ladder diagram that operates in parallel ___
4573	The ___ for the motor symbol is used in both the control or signal section (ladder diagram-the voltage solenoid) of a schematic and the power or load section of the same schematic
4574	In a ladder diagram, the “S” symbol drawn in the left vertical line and represents ___
4575	Because alternators, generators, electric motors, solenoids, and transformers are all constructed with one or more coils of wire, ___ are represented by a variety of symbols
4576	The acronym ___ indicates the normally-open at-rest status of the control contacts
4577	Addressed by the acronym ___, a single-pole, single-throw switch can be either a single-break or double-break configuration
4578	Both potentiometers and rheostats can be classified as linear or taper ___
4579	A special type of palm-head momentary pushbutton is a 3-position momentary switch that is at-rest in a 3rd ___ position
4580	The symbol of a winding(s), which consists of a number of arches or humps drawn in a straight line, represents a(n) ___
4581	If interrupted at only one break point (single-break), the temperature could be high enough to melt the respective pad surfaces and cause ___ holes, where the metal at the entry/exit point melted
4582	The stator winding leads of a 3-phase AC synchronous motor are identified the same as the 3-phase AC induction motors: ___, ___, and ___
4583	Double-break configuration increases the ___ of the switch by interrupting load (or control) current at two points
4584	Understanding electrical-power distribution and electrical-control circuits require a vast transfer of knowledge ___
4585	Two supply lines identify a ___ -phase AC, 2-wire induction motor
4586	When a control switch contains one set of NO contacts and one set of NC contacts, and the NO contacts are closed before the NC contacts are opened, a ___ switching configuration is created
4587	A ___ is a drawing that shows the length, height, and depth of a selected object in one view
4588	The acronym ___ indicates the normally-open held-closed at-rest status of the control contacts
4589	Pilot or indicating lights are also symbolized with a circle, which is normally drawn to a smaller scale compared to a voltage-solenoid symbol in the ladder diagram ___
4590	Two standard fuse symbols are used in electrical control print ___
4591	A ___ is a drawing of electrical components and their connections done in an agreed-to symbolic form and used as a convenient way of representing electrical circuits
4592	The thermal circuit breaker is also referred to as an ___ circuit breaker
4593	Normally the actuator of a pushbutton switch, whether momentary (standard pushbuttons) or maintained (selector pushbutton), is a vertical line ___ the arrowhead
4594	The circuit conductors are wire-numbered to identify their ___ in the control sequence
4595	The circle in the control section, which actually identifies the voltage solenoid of the motor-starter, contactor, or relay controlling the power applied to the motor, is normally ___
4596	A ___ -actuated solenoid coil is symbolized with a circle with short wire leads extended on either side along the horizontal centerline of the circle, whereas a ___ -actuated solenoid coil is symbolized with a zigzag line
4597	What is drawn on top of the square box is used to symbolize the type of annunciator ___
4598	As used with the electrical plan of a building or other structure, the term ___ indicates a single ON/OFF snap switch
4599	Rheostats and potentiometers are both ___ resistors
4600	Most symbols use a combination of straight lines and circles, straight lines and boxes, and/or straight lines and arches ___
4601	As used with 3-phase AC wire-wound rotor induction motors, a ___ bank is a form of reduced-torque starting in which two or more resistors are wired in series with the rotor circuit of the motor upon initial starting
4602	The majority of the relay-logic symbols represent some type of ___
4603	A special type of palm-head momentary pushbutton is a 3-position momentary switch that is at-rest in a third neutral position ___
4604	When a pushbutton switch is configured as a ___ -type switch, the switch symbol in the schematic or wiring diagram relates two separate PB switches
4605	Switches in most power or load circuits are drawn ___
4606	A ___ diagram is a detailed diagram showing a complicated circuit in a logical sequence
4607	The extension of the vertical control busses can be visualized as the ___ of a ladder
4608	A ___ is a nonconductive device or assembly designed with fuse clips to hold a cartridge fuse
4609	The acronym used to identify the type of voltage solenoid or meter is normally written within the circle between the wire terminals ___
4610	In a switch or relay logic ladder diagram: The acronym ___ indicates the normally-open at-rest status of the control contacts
4611	___ is the storage of an electrical charge between two conductive surfaces in the form of an electrostatic field across an insulating surface in a ___
4612	Which of the following safety rules are not true ___
4613	Which of the following safety rules is not true ___
4614	When you become part of the electrical circuit, the severity of the electrical shock is determined by which of the following ___
4615	The severity of the electrical shock is determined by which of the following ___
4616	The ___ or ___ of current allowed to flow through the body is the most important factor that will differentiate between a light electrical shock, a severe electrical shock, and death by electrocution
4617	As used with cabinets, disconnects, controllers, and other enclosures: the electrical power distribution system of a building or other structure, the term “___ enclosure” indicates without live parts
4618	You are part of the ground return path in the equipment-grounding system because the floor you are normally standing on or the metal enclosure you may be touching is part of the ___
4619	When the outer layer of skin is ___, it has a high-value of resistance
4620	For all practical purposes, the human body can be considered a ___ conductor of low ___
4621	Although the circuit conductors do offer a minute resistance to the flow of electrical current, the ___ is the main opposition to current flow
4622	You should ___ all equipment enclosures including plug-in type test equipment, especially when ___ are present
4623	In order for you to suffer ___, you must become part of the circuit
4624	Hands are not the only body surface that may be accidentally placed in the path of electrical current ___
4625	Most electrical-power distribution systems within a building or other structure operate with one circuit conductor, normally the ___ conductor
4626	Both ___ voltages and ___ body resistances will reduce the degree of electrical shock or damage to the human body
4627	In addition to providing a single path for current flow along the length of the circuit conductors, the ___ on the circuit conductors of the electrical power distribution
4628	A(n) ___ is a conducting object through which a direct connection to earth is established
4629	Electricity must either be controlled or commanded to do ___ or as is the case with static electricity
4630	A ___ electrical-power distribution system is a premises wiring system (building or other structure) whose power is derived from a source of electric energy or equipment other than a service
4631	Electrical ___ is the connection of two or more metal parts to establish electrical continuity and conductivity
4632	Other than protection from structural fire or the dispersion of molten metal, a fuse or circuit breaker technically is not people protection at all ___
4633	The duration of contact (amount of time) in an electrical shock is closely related to skin resistance ___
4634	Electrical shock to the heart muscles or to the nerves directing the heart in the human body can disrupt the brain’s electric impulses and cause the heart to lose its rhythmic coordinated ___
4635	Electricity can be described as a potential that ___ a flow or movement of free electrons along the length of a conductor
4636	The length of the conductor, which is normally copper or aluminium wire, any type of metal, including the steel or ___
4637	The best prevention of shock or electrocution available to all is safety first ___
4638	It is possible for an electrician to work a full career in the electrical field without any serious accident or injury ___
4639	You are advised not to grab an individual who is in contact with a live wire (being shocked) ___
4640	You are advised not to grab an individual who is in contact with a live wire ___
4641	In order to avoid the harmful effects of possible electrical shock or electrocution, you should always consider ___
4642	Other factors that may affect the severity of the electrical shock include the phase of the heart cycle at the initial moment of the electrical shock; the frequency of the ___
4643	You should not place both hands on an energized circuit at the same time ___
4644	The ground-fault return path of the electrical-power distribution system is referred to as the ___ system
4645	In addition to providing a single path for current flow along the length of the circuit conductors, the ___ on the circuit conductors of the electrical-power distribution
4646	Electricity must either be controlled or commanded to do useful work, or as is the case with ___ electricity, it must be discharged
4647	The ___ or ___ within an electrical circuit is commonly referred to as the circuit voltage
4648	Before using a tool, you should know its ___ and how it ___
4649	Static electricity is a form of ___ generated by friction, where a static charge is maintained between two conductive surfaces separated by an insulator
4650	You should always turn off or remove all power ___ making alterations to an electric circuit
4651	The NE Code requires bonding of all the non-current-carrying metal parts of the electrical-power ___
4652	You should always use the ___ tool for the job
4653	Because current will take every available path back to its source, the circuit conductors must be ___
4654	Because current will take every ___ back to its source, the circuit conductors must be ___ to form a single path for current flow
4655	The path of current is the most ___ one from one point of contact (entry) to the other point of contact in the human body
4656	Electrical ___ is connection to ground or to a conductive body extends the ground connection
4657	Grounding the service neutral conductor limits the magnitude of the voltage that can occur on the non-current-carrying ___
4658	The NE Code requires bonding of all the non-current-carrying metal parts of the ___
4659	The ground-fault return path of the electrical-power distribution system is referred to as the ___ system a conductive path installed to connect normally non-current-carrying metal parts of equipment together
4660	The operating voltage of the equipment you are working with determines the ___ voltage
4661	Accidents are sometimes the result of ___ by the individual, but so often accidents happen because we are ___ of the dangers
4662	Grounding the service neutral conductor limits the magnitude of the voltage that can occur on the non-current-carrying metal parts within the ___
4663	The magnitude or amount of current allowed to flow through the body is the most important factor that ___
4664	Whether in the wiring laboratories or on the job, electrical safety depends on the use of safe procedures in ___
4665	___ resistance is an important factor in controlling the harmful effect of a electric current
4666	During a severe electrical shock, ___ burns are the result of an electrical-equipment failure in the form of short circuit
4667	Voltage, along with the current, your individual body resistance, the duration of electrical contact, and the path of ___
4668	Before using a tool, you should know its function and how it ___
4669	You should always think ___ either in the wiring laboratories you are about to begin or on the job
4670	___ should be a number one priority in all walks of life and in all phases of life
4671	During a severe electrical shock, ___ burns are normally caused by contact with the superheated air
4672	To ___ the magnitude of current that flows in an electrical shock situation we must ___ a person’s resistance
4673	___, along with ___, your individual body ___, the ___ of electrical contact, and the ___ of current flow through your body all combine to determine the extent of harm to you
4674	A ___ is a conducting object through which a direct connection to earth is established
4675	The best or safest form of electrical ___
4676	The non-current-carrying metal or other conductive parts of the building or other ___
4677	Grounded or grounding is ___ to ground or to a conductive body that extends the ground connection
4678	Besides a ground-fault return path, bonding within the equipment-grounding system provides a means to dissipate ___
4679	Bonded or bonding is the connection of two or more metal parts to establish ___
4680	To reduce your risk of personal injury due ___
4681	The more common electrically shock-related injury is ___
4682	Which of the following safety rules are not ___
4683	As used with cabinets, disconnects, controllers, and other enclosures: the electrical power ___
4684	The duration of contact (amount of time) in an electrical shock is closely related to ___
4685	___ burns occur when current flows along the skin or within the body (most dangerous)
4686	___ burns are normally caused by contact with the superheated air
4687	You should always wear safety glasses because the majority of your wiring-laboratory exercises or work on the ___
4688	Whether in the wiring laboratories or on the job, electrical safety depends on the use of ___
4689	Other factors that may affect the severity of the electrical shock include the ____ of the heart cycle at the initial moment of the electrical shock
4690	During a severe electrical shock, ___ burns occur when current flows along the skin
4691	Because of this constant contact, you are on one side of the circuit at all ___
4692	The equipment-grounding system is designed to ground-fault any of the ungrounded circuit conductors in the ___
4693	In order for you to suffer electrical ___ you must become part of the circuit
4694	Two important concepts must be understood and honoured when wiring or ___
4695	Installing the electrical-power distribution system in raceways and other enclosures, the insulated circuit conductors are protected from ___
4696	Horseplay or just kidding around is OK in the wiring- laboratory exercises or on the ___
4697	Besides a ground-fault return path, bonding within the equipment-grounding system, as well as the ___
4698	___ is the main safety factor when using hand tools
4699	To reduce your risk of personal injury due to electrical shock, you should apply the safety rules presented to you in the ___
4700	Once inside your body, resistance to the flow of ___
4701	Once inside your body, resistance to the flow of current is ___
4702	___ should be a number one priority in all walks of life and in all phases of life especially in the workplace
4703	A ___ conductor is a conductor used to connect the system grounded conductor or the electrical distribution or utilization equipment to a grounding electrode
4704	The two best safety precautions an electrician can use is ___
4705	___ burns are the result of an electrical-equipment failure in the form of either a short circuit or ground fault
4706	The generation of electricity, which is technically the ___ flow of electrons along the length of a material or the ___ transfer of electrons from one material to another
4707	Electricity must either be controlled or commanded to do useful work, or as is the case with ___
4708	You should remove all jewellery when working with ___
4709	A _____________ is the rate of change of the varying magnitude of a substance
4710	________ should be a number one priority in all walks of life and in all phases of life
4711	You should not use a lead pencil or a metal shank tool, such as a screwdriver, to poke at an ___
4712	The voltage range for either process equipment or for electrical-power distribution within a building is ___
4713	To minimize the magnitude of current that flows in an electrical shock situation, we must ___
4714	The forced flow or movement of the electrons is described as ___
4715	The __________ within an electrical circuit is commonly referred to as the circuit
4716	Skin resistance is an important factor in controlling the harmful effect of an ___
4717	To reduce your risk of personal injury due to ___
4718	The length of the conductor is normally copper or aluminium wire, although just about any type of ___
4719	Whether in the wiring laboratories or on the job, electrical safety depends on the use of safe procedures in the ___
4720	The ___ system is designed to ground-fault any of the ungrounded circuit conductors in the electrical-power distribution system should one come in contact with any of the noncurrent-carrying bonded surfaces
4721	Damage to the lungs is normally due to electrical ___ that scar or otherwise damage (destroys the ___ of) lung tissue
4722	When you become part of the electrical circuit, the severity of the electrical shock is ___
4723	Electrical shock occurs when you complete a path by touching a ___
4724	Because abnormal conditions such as short-circuit or ground-fault overcurrents can occur and effectively ___
4725	___ are sometimes the result of carelessness by the individual, but so often accidents happen because we are unware of the dangers that are present in what we are attempting to do
4726	Your individual body resistance, the duration of electrical contact, and the path of current flow (along with voltage) through your ___
4727	A separately derived electrical-power distribution system is a premises wiring system whose power is ___
4728	___ is a general term, including fittings, devices, appliances, luminaires, apparatuses, machinery and the like used as a part of, or in connection with, an electrical installation
4729	The forced flow or movement of the electrons is as the ___
4730	The path of the current is the most direct one from one point of contact (entry) to the other point of ___
4731	Other than protection from structural fire or the dispersion of molten metal, a fuse or circuit breaker technically is ___
4732	Because abnormal conditions such as short-circuit or ground-fault overcurrents can occur and effectively bypass the ___
4733	Insulated circuit conductors are protected from physical damage by ___
4734	A ___ system consists of all grounding electrodes that are present at each building or structure served bonded together to form the grounding electrode system
4735	Damp shoes will not contribute to a possible electrical shock ___
4736	Because the electrical circuit or circuits you are working on are normally voltage-referenced to the ___
4737	___ can be described as a potential that forces a flow or movement of free electrons along the length of a conductor
4738	The synchronous rotor speed of a ___ 3-phase AC alternator is 1800 rpms for an output frequency of 60 Hz
4739	Because supply line L2 might be a grounded circuit conductor in the electrical power distribution system of ___
4740	The rotating speed of a 3-phase AC alternator is determined by ___
4741	When the primary and secondary leads of three single-phase AC transformers are interconnected (respectively) in either a delta or ___
4742	When a transformer is used for ___, the primary and secondary voltage ratings are equal
4743	Electric motors, whether AC or DC, use either the ___ or ___ or to a certain extent both ___ of two magnetic
4744	Due to the line losses along the extreme length of the circuit conductors, ___ are required to increase the voltage of the generated AC power for transmission
4745	The locked-rotor current and the start-up current of a motor under full-load conditions are ___
4746	For ___ wiring configurations, the transformer has a secondary load voltage lower than the primary supply voltage
4747	The output voltage of a 3-phase AC alternator is determined by ___
4748	The average AC induction motor will draw up to ___ % of its nameplate full-load current rating under locked-rotor conditions
4749	In terms of their operating characteristics, single-phase AC induction motors are commonly referred as ___
4750	If an AC induction motor has a successful start and near running speed is attained, the motor appears to be a ___
4751	At the load end of the utility-owned transmission/distribution system, more 3-phase or single-phase AC ___
4752	The ___ value of impedance reflected into the primary circuit of a transformer will occur when the secondary circuit is open
4753	In the electrical power distribution system of a building or other structure, the wye and delta wiring configurations are ___
4754	Within a building or other structure, the X2 common-node connection of the wye-connected secondary of a 3-phase transformer is ___
4755	Due to the sometimes vast lengths of wire (circuit conductors) required to transmit the electrical energy from the ___
4756	In the standard delta or wye configuration, individual single-phase AC transformers cannot be haphazardly wired together to form a ___
4757	The average electric motor will draw up to ___ % of its nameplate full-load current rating under locked-rotor conditions
4758	The revolving- ___ type rotates the three single-phase windings, located 120 mechanical degrees apart on the rotor assembly around the inside of a fixed or stationary electromagnetic field
4759	The external motor overload-protection device can have a rating or setting between ___% and ___% with ___% being the normal setting
4760	In a split-phase AC induction motor, to attain the phase shift from the single-phase AC source, the start winding would have to be ___
4761	Because the start winding is purposely made more resistive than inductive, and because the starting winding current is out of phase with both the ___
4762	In the electrical-power distribution system of a building or other structure, the wye and delta wiring configurations are normally mixed between the ___
4763	In an isolation ___ transformer: The secondary winding is physically and electrically isolated from the primary winding
4764	For power transformers, the excitation current is of such low value when compared to the secondary full-load ___
4765	The stationary assembly of a 3-phase AC alternator is referred to as ___
4766	The delta-to-delta transformation of a 3-phase AC electrical-power distribution system was the preferred electrical-power distribution in a ___
4767	When the respective circuit windings of three single-phase AC transformers are mounted on a common ___
4768	Transformer or motor action depends on the ___ of two opposing electromagnetic fields
4769	The turning rotor of an AC induction motor can never attain the synchronous speed of the ___
4770	The external overload protection can be a ___ mounted in the bell housing on the non-drive end of the motor
4771	The effect of eddy currents is reduced to a bare-bones minimum by constructing the iron core of several ___
4772	The impedance of a second isolation transformer located in the immediate vicinity of the switchgear, which includes ___
4773	At the branch-circuit level, the overload-overcurrent protection is normally ___
4774	The magnitude of the output voltage of a 3-phase AC alternator is normally set at the desired value by ___
4775	The electrical characteristics ____ of the start and run windings in the stator assembly
4776	A motor-circuit switch used as the disconnecting means for an electric motor circuit must be ___
4777	The number of cycles the three single-phase AC sinusoidal waveforms complete in one second in a ___
4778	In addition to power transmission and distribution, transformers ___
4779	In a given single-phase AC transformer, the voltage and turns ratios are ___ proportional to each other
4780	The output frequency of a 3-phase AC alternator is determined by ___
4781	The power supplied to almost all 3-phase AC motor applications is controlled through a system of electromechanical control ___
4782	An electromagnetic field is produced by passing electrical ___ through the windings of a generator, a motor, a reactor, a solenoid, or a transformer
4783	When the voltage ratio of a power transformer is 1-to-1 (same voltage ratings), the transformer is ___
4784	The expended electrical energy in a transformer, which is normally ___
4785	Electric motors use either the repulsion or attraction (interaction) of two ___ or ___ fields to cause the rotating member of the motor (the rotor) to turn
4786	In the high-voltage configuration of 9-lead, dual voltage (230/460), 3-phase AC induction motors ___
4787	The main restriction of primary-circuit current is ___ from the secondary circuit of the transformer
4788	In terms of their operating characteristics, single-phase AC induction motors are commonly referred to as ___
4789	The output voltage of a 3-phase AC alternator is ___
4790	In comparison to the delta wiring configuration, the wye configuration is the more common ___
4791	If the motor branch-circuit will be protected against high-level short-circuit/ground-fault overcurrent ___
4792	At the branch-circuit level, the ___ -overcurrent protection of an AC induction motor is normally thermal
4793	The secondary of the electrical-utility distribution system load-end transformer supplies the service conductors for ___
4794	For a single electric motor supplied by an individual branch circuit, the rated-load ampacity of the ___
4795	If the branch-circuit breaker or fuses are the combined overcurrent protection, their rating should fall within ___
4796	According to the size of the motor and the type of manufacture, the electric motor may be ___
4797	The electric motor is used to convert electrical energy into ___
4798	The main restriction of primary-circuit current is reflected ___ from the secondary circuit of the transformer
4799	All transformers are initially rated as ___ with minimum construction of one primary 2-wire winding (connected to the AC ___)
4800	For ___ wiring configurations, the transformer has a secondary load voltage higher than the primary supply voltage
4801	The continual de-magnetization and re-magnetization of the iron core due to electromagnetic field reversal make the ___
4802	Technically, a true single-phase AC induction motor, which would have a single pair of electromagnetic poles about its ___
4803	Once a three-phase AC motor is wired in either a wye or delta configuration at the correct operating ___
4804	An electromagnetic field is produced by passing electrical ___ through the windings of a generator a motor, a reactor, a solenoid, or a transformer
4805	The electric ___ is used to convert electrical energy into mechanical energy in the form of rotary motion
4806	Both the time-delay fuses and the inverse-time circuit breaker have inverse-time characteristics in response to ___
4807	The open-secondary primary-circuit current, which supports the continual reversal of the
4808	Not all split-phase AC induction motors employ a centrifugal switch to disconnect the ___
4809	The principal type(s) of single-phase AC induction motors ___
4810	The interaction of the primary and secondary electromagnetic fields is at its maximum, which causes the ___
4811	___ is defined as the average field intensity of a magnet multiplied by its area
4812	For signaling, remote control, or other low-power, low-voltage control or sensing ___
4813	Normally, separate overload protection devices for AC induction motors are not designed to respond to ___
4814	The operating full-load current of an AC induction motor, as specified on the motor nameplate, is initially ___
4815	___ lines are imaginary lines that indicate the strength and direction of a given magnetic field
4816	The revolving ___ alternator rotates the three single-phase windings located 120 mechanical degrees apart on the rotor assembly, around the inside of a fixed or stationary electromagnetic field
4817	In the wiring diagram of a 9-lead, 230/460-volt, ___ -three-phase AC, squirrel-cage induction motor for 460-volt operation, six connections are required
4818	The output frequency of a 3-phase AC alternator is ___
4819	With the coils of the start and run windings placed at ___ mechanical degrees apart around the inner surface of the stator structure at the point of manufacture of the single-phase AC induction motor
4820	If the motor branch-circuit will be protected against high-level short-circuit/ground-fault overcurrent with instant-acting ___
4821	The two ___ in the indicated circuit conductors in the standard symbol of a transformer represent either wire terminals on some sort of terminal block, or short sections of wire
4822	The wye and delta wiring configurations are normally mixed between the primary and secondary load circuits of the ___
4823	Only the branch-circuit fuse or circuit breaker can provide the necessary _______ overcurrent protection
4824	If the motor branch-circuit will be protected against high-level short-circuit/ground-fault overcurrent with ___
4825	The relative motion of the sinusoidal electromagnetic field will cause stray currents to flow at ___
4826	The turning rotor of an AC induction motor can never attain the synchronous speed of the stator circuits rotating electromagnetic field ___
4827	In the ___ or ___ circuit, three separate sets of normally-open contacts on the power contactor are closed simultaneously by the energization of a solenoid coil
4828	In a given single-phase AC transformer, the ratios of both current and voltage are dependent on the ___
4829	Many AC induction motors are designed to operate in an overload condition which will draw overcurrent in excess of ___
4830	The impedance of a second isolation transformer located in the immediate vicinity of the switchgear of ___
4831	The turning of the electromagnetic field of the rotor in a 3-phase alternator induces three single-phase ___
4832	___ overloads are a common occurrence with driven machinery
4833	It is a temporary magnet whose magnetic properties are produced from the application of ___
4834	The expended electrical energy of the excitation current is referred to as ____ losses
4835	For power transformers, the excitation current is of such low value when compared to the ___
4836	Reset of an ___________ overload relay is normally accomplished by turning the control power off
4837	For lightning suppression and electrical safety in terms of proper electrical-power control, distribution, and ___
4838	The load of the secondary (rotor) circuit of the motor is reflected into the primary for ___
4839	Electrical power applied to the solenoid coil is controlled by an array of normally-open or normally-closed ___
4840	The normal dual voltage rating of 3-phase AC induction motors is ___ volts
4841	Most AC motors listed as “induction” will be the squirrel-cage type, which describes the type of ___
4842	In the wiring diagram of a 9-lead, 230/460-volt, ___ -configured, 3-phase AC, squirrel-cage induction motor for 230-volt operation, four connections are required
4843	The transformation of voltage, current, or circuit impedance is by mutual ___
4844	Normally, separate overload protection devices are not designed to respond to ___
4845	The two parallel bars (lines) between the two winding symbols in the standard symbol of ___
4846	The motor lead identification of single-phase AC induction motors is not as standard as the ___
4847	The ever-changing and periodically-reversing alternating ____ of the primary and secondary circuits of the transformer
4848	The ____ rating of the transformer indicates the maximum amount of power that can be drawn by the load
4849	When the transformer circuit is put in a fault (shorted) condition, the flow of high-magnitude overcurrent generates ___
4850	The single-phase AC resistance-start/induction-run motor can develop a rotating electromagnetic field due to the higher ___ of the start winding as compared to the run winding
4851	The process of induction, which is required for the magnetic operation of a transformer, depends on a length of conductor and a concentrated magnetic or electromagnetic field with relative motion between the two ___
4852	As within a transformer, the primary (stator) winding of the electric motor offers only a ___
4853	The increased current flow in the primary or stator circuit during start-up or ___
4854	There are three principal types of single-phase AC induction motors ___
4855	External overload protection can be provided at the branch-circuit level as ___ overcurrent protection or it can be provided within the control circuit by separate ___ relays
4856	In the high-voltage configuration of 9-lead, dual voltage, 3-phase AC induction motors, the winding leads are wired in ___
4857	The generated electromagnetic field causes an alternating voltage to be induced in the ___
4858	Ignoring transformer core losses, the power rating of a transformer is equal to ___
4859	When an AC induction motor operates in an ___ condition other words, the torque required by the connected (driven) load exceeds the torque available from the motor according to its horsepower rating
4860	The ___ value of impedance reflected into the primary circuit of a transformer will occur when circuit open
4861	The fact that the transformer has only one power rating for both the primary and secondary circuits sets the ___
4862	The increased current flow in the primary or stator circuit of an AC induction motor during start-up or under locked-rotor conditions will ___
4863	The turning rotor of an AC induction motor can never attain the synchronous speed of the stator circuits rotating electromagnetic field: The induction motor has to have a small percentage of ___ to supply the heat
4864	When an AC induction motor enters an overload condition, the motor must be taken off the line before the heat buildup, due to the slowing of the turning rotor, has reached insulation-failure level ___
4865	When combined as a single unit, the power contactor and thermal overload relay are ___
4866	___ motors are easily recognized by the two slip rings on the rotor shaft
4867	The rotor will continue to turn with the start winding disconnected from the motor supply circuit once the single-phase AC induction motor is ___
4868	The magnitude of currents flowing in the respective circuits of a transformer is governed by the ___
4869	Because the motor supply circuit may be configured as a three-phase AC, 3-wire corner-ground delta electrical-power distribution ___
4870	Regardless of the type of motor or its application, all-electric motors have several things in ___
4871	The magnitude of the output voltage of a 3-phase AC alternator is normally set at ___
4872	When overrating the branch-circuit fuses or circuit breaker for the NE Code-maximum rating of the ___
4873	If the branch-circuit fuse(s) or circuit breaker is the only overcurrent protection provided for the ___
4874	In addition to power transmission and distribution ___
4875	The amount of fault overcurrent available at the load terminals of switchgear either short-circuit or ___
4876	If the rotor of an electrical induction motor is turning near the cyclic speed of the induced rotating electromagnetic field in ___
4877	The expended electrical energy in a transformer, which is normally dissipated as ___
4878	The operating full-load current of an AC induction motor as specified on the motor nameplate is initially established by its design ___
4879	In a single-voltage, ___ -connected, 3-phase AC induction motor, the three single-phase windings are wired end-to-end to form three nodes and a completely closed loop circuit
4880	Once the squirrel-cage rotor has accelerated to a point that it is operating at about ________ % of the synchronous speed
4881	Mutual ___ is defined as the production of varying or alternating EMF in one circuit by movement of field lines rising from another nearby circuit with varying current across its conductors
4882	In a given single-phase AC transformer, the voltage and turns ratios are ___
4883	The capital letter X is used to identify the in and out terminals of the ___ -voltage winding
4884	The last step-down transformer in the electrical-utility distribution system is normally used as the ___
4885	If the motor branch-circuit will be protected against high-level short-circuit/ground-fault overcurrent with an inverse-time circuit breaker, the standard overrate is ___ %
4886	When overrating the branch-circuit fuses or circuit breaker for the standard rating of the electric motor branch-circuit ___
4887	Because the phase rotation of the three-phase AC supply controls the direction of rotation for the ___
4888	Electrically, whether single-phase, 2-phase, or 3-phase, the common AC ___ motor appears as a transformer to the applied electrical power
4889	The ___ value of impedance reflected into the primary circuit of a transformer will occur when the secondary circuit is shorted
4890	Transformer or motor action depends on the interaction of two opposing electromagnetic fields ___
4891	The amount of fault overcurrent available at the load terminals of switchgear— either short-circuit or ___
4892	Electrically, whether single-phase, 2-phase, or three-phase, the common AC ___ motor appears as a transformer to the applied electrical power
4893	A standard squirrel-cage, AC induction motor will be provided with across-the-line starting and separate ___
4894	Technically, a true single-phase AC induction motor, which would have a single pair of electromagnetic poles about ___
4895	As the name implies, the start winding is only necessary for the starting of the single-phase AC motor ___
4896	If the rotor is not turning (during start-up or under locked-rotor conditions), the motor’s stator and rotor circuits now function as a transformer ___
4897	The ___ rating of the transformer indicates the maximum amount of power that can be drawn by the load without seriously overheating the transformer
4898	The revolving- ___ -type rotates the three single-phase windings, located 120 mechanical degrees apart on the rotor assembly, around the inside of a fixed or stationary electromagnetic field
4899	The current drawn in the primary (stator) windings, because of the value of the reflected impedance, is also of ___ value
4900	In comparison to the wye wiring configuration, the delta configuration is ___
4901	Internal thermal overload protection normally consists of a solid-state device that has a ___
4902	The rotor assembly now turns at synchronous speed at ___ slip
4903	Through brushes riding on the three slip rings on the rotor shaft, the magnitude of the rotor current in ___
4904	The capital letter X is used to identify the in and out terminals of the __________ -voltage winding
4905	The last step-down transformer in the electrical-utility distribution system is normally used as the service ___
4906	In the wiring diagram of a 9-lead, 230/460-volt, __________
4907	At the load end of the utility-owned transmission/distribution system, more 3-phase or single-phase AC transformers are ___
4908	The number of cycles the three single-phase AC sinusoidal waveforms complete in a 3-phase AC alternator in ___
4909	The motor lead identification of single-phase AC induction motors is not as standard as ___
4910	In the wiring diagram of a 9-lead, 230/460-volt, ___-configured, 3-phase AC, squirrel-cage induction motor for 460-volt operation, six connections are required
4911	In a rotating-field 3-phase AC alternator each of the three single-phase windings consists of a ___
4912	A ___ is comprised of lines of force concentrated in the region surrounding a magnet
4913	The more common type of control transformer contains two ___ volt primary windings
4914	As with any AC induction motor, the speed of the rotating magnetic field of a single-phase AC induction motor is ___
4915	The lower the magnitude of overcurrent the ___ the time interval before the circuit is opened
4916	Three-phase AC motors can be divided into three general types ___
4917	The electric-utility’s power grid is considered to be an ___
4918	The electric-utility’s power grid is considered to be an ___ in terms of the magnitude
4919	Three-phase AC power can be transformed either by three individual single-phase AC transformers or ___
4920	“Two-pole” means there are two poles or one ___ for each single-phase AC source
4921	The main restriction of primary-circuit current is reflected ___
4922	To prevent ___ buildup, especially in the rotating member, fins are normally mounted on the ends of the rotor
4923	On the standard symbol for a transformer, the in and out winding numbers ___
4924	The outs of the same windings are identified with _________ numbers
4925	The revolving ___ alternator is constructed by placing the three sets of single-phase windings
4926	External overload protection can be sensed by ___
4927	External overload protection can be sensed by either ___ or ___ means
4928	The windings of an AC induction motor appear as an almost short-circuit to the incoming power on ___
4929	The insulated conductors must be identified to a colour other than ___
4930	The switch used to control the operation of the connected load in an electrical circuit may function ___
4931	Identification of the circuit conductors, either by ___ -coding, or by an effective ___ system
4932	In a DC circuit or in a single-phase resistive AC circuit, the product of the line ___ times the line
4933	Going into a 3-phase motor or transformer, the 3-phase ___ wiring configuration is referred to as a voltage divider
4934	The conductive material employed (steel, copper, or aluminium) and the cross-sectional of the circuit conductors are the ___
4935	To protect the conductor insulation by preventing the conductors, normally in the form of round wires, from ___
4936	This conductor can be left bare, or when insulated, it must be colour-identified ___
4937	The power factor (pf) will always be ___
4938	A switch to provide ___ control; and an overcurrent protection device to provide ___ control
4939	A(n) ___ is labelled or referred to as a voltage device because it stores electrical energy
4940	In terms of power calculations of a single-phase AC circuit, the apparent power available from ___
4941	The power factor (pf) of an AC circuit will always be a value ___
4942	The rating of the _________ determines how much electrical current the load will receive
4943	Circuit conductors with inadequate wire size present a higher value of resistance to the flow of ___
4944	For small-scale electrical-power generation, the generation of AC power is ___
4945	Power lost as wattage along the length of the circuit conductors is dissipated as ___
4946	When a change in the magnitude of the circuit current occurs, is described as the ___ power
4947	The power factor of an AC circuit is the ratio of the ___ power to (divided by) ___ power
4948	The power factor of an AC circuit is the ratio of the ___ power to ___ power of the circuit
4949	In terms of power calculations of a 3-phase AC circuit, the apparent power available from a feeder is ___
4950	___ overcurrent normally involves an accidental cross-connection of at least two circuit conductors
4951	Without some form of overcurrent protection device installed in series with the ___
4952	An inductor is ___
4953	A(n) ___ consists of two or more conductive plates with an insulating, non-conducting plate dielectric
4954	A(n) _______________ consists of two or more conductive plates with an insulating, non-conducting plate
4955	The ____________ required by a connected load will dictate the size of wires installed
4956	The most economical way to mass-produce AC power is by steam turbines that drive large ___ AC generators
4957	The three major categories or divisions (types) of overcurrent are ___, ___, and ___
4958	Three-phase AC power is the more common form of ___
4959	At the standard 60-Hz electrical-power distribution frequency, the ____________ of the circuit
4960	___ overcurrent is a short-circuit between one of the ungrounded circuit conductors and the metal enclosure
4961	A(n) _______________ is manufactured as a wound or spiral-wrapped coil of continuous wire
4962	The acronym AC stands for ____________ current
4963	The stored power, which is returned to the circuit either by the capacitor, when a change in the magnitude of the circuit ___
4964	The means of ___ control in an electrical circuit is normally in the form of a switch
4965	___ electricity is a convenient means of generating large amounts of power at one location
4966	___ overcurrent, which is a very low resistance connection between one of the ungrounded circuit conductors
4967	The circuit conductors within an electrical circuit must be ___
4968	One of the circuit conductors in other-structure electrical-power distribution system is ___
4969	The magnitudes of the 3-phase AC line current are 173% greater than ___
4970	___ current(s) that can destroy circuit conductors or wiring equipment
4971	The 3-phase AC line ___ and the individual single-phase winding ___, measured
4972	Together, the two ___ electrical-degree alternations in AC power generation equals one cycle
4973	The means of ___ control in an electrical circuit is normally an overcurrent protection device
4974	In a 3-phase resistive AC circuit, the product of the ___ times the line ___ times
4975	A 3-phase AC line conductors appear to be in parallel; the transformer is connected in a 3-phase ___
4976	All AC circuits other than purely resistive AC circuits have another element that offers ___
4977	A(n) _______________ is labelled or referred to as a current device
4978	The basic electrical circuit for generated electricity, ___ consists of a power supply
4979	For a small-scale electrical-power generation, the generation of AC power is ___
4980	Lightning and friction are sources of ___ electricity that must be controlled normally
4981	Coming out of transformer, the 3-phase ___ wiring configuration is referred to as a current multiplier
4982	A switch to provide ___ and an overcurrent protection device to provide ___ control
4983	The rated-load current of the electrical utilization equipment, such as luminaires is described as a(n) ___
4984	The distinctive ___ colour of insulation along its length identifies this specific conductor
4985	The ___ power, represented by the acronym of VA or kVA
4986	In the United States, the utility electrical power transmission frequency is held at ___ Hz
4987	In terms of thousands (k) of circular mils (c mil) area in a range of ___kcmil to ___kcmil
4988	When a switch is placed in series with the supply power, ___ control has been added
4989	Generators or alternators, motors, transformers, solenoids for valves are all ___ loads
4990	In terms of insulated circuit conductors, the National Electrical Code lists wire sizes in ___
4991	An inductor __________
4992	The ___ power, represented by the acronym of VA or kVA, is the power supply circuit
4993	The flow of ___ in an electrical circuit is actually the forced movement of electrons
4994	The basic electrical circuit generated electricity or static electricity, consists ___
4995	When electricity is generated by friction, the transfer of free electrons from ___
4996	The 3-phase AC line ___, measured between any two of the three supply lines
4997	The ___ mechanical-degree displacement within the alternator generates an electrical displacement
4998	The components required for electrical induction to take place in a generator include ___
4999	In ___ current circuits, the current flow in the electrical circuit alternates directional flow
5000	The rated ampacity of given wire size is normally defined as the magnitude of ___
5001	The resistance is used to determine the wire’s rated ___ according to wire
5002	__________ overcurrent is self-defining
5003	The circuit conductors within an electrical circuit must be ___ to ensure that current is directed
5004	The power factor of an AC circuit is the ratio of the ___ power to the ___ power of the circuit
5005	The length of the electrical circuit must be ___ to provide a single path for the current to flow
5006	The 3-phase AC line conductors, the alternator, motor, or transformer is connected in a 3-phase ___ configuration
5007	The rms values of voltage or current normally are referred to as the ___values of power
5008	The excessive voltage drop will cause excessive ___ buildup
5009	The forced flow of free electrons in an electrical circuit, whether AC or DC, is always from ___
5010	The flow of voltage in an electrical circuit is actually the forced movement of ___
5011	The overcurrent protection device supplying an electrical circuit is ____
5012	In a 3-phase __________ wiring configuration: The 3-phase AC line voltage, measured
5013	A(n) ________ condition is a controlled overcurrent situation, normally of low magnitude
5014	The forced flow of free electrons in an electrical circuit, whether AC or DC, is always ___
5015	For data processing and other types of electronic (solid-state) equipment where the energy ___
5016	The capacitor ______
5017	For data processing and other types of electronic (solid-state) equipment where ___
5018	Wattage, which is representative of the work being done, whether it is heat, light, or ___
5019	The magnitude of the _______ required by a connected load will dictate the size of wires
5020	________ overcurrent normally involves an accidental cross-connection
5021	__________ overcurrent is self-defining:
5022	The rated ______ of given wire size is normally defined as the magnitude of load current
5023	The ______ mechanical-degree displacement within the alternator generates an electrical displacement
5024	Together, the two _______ electrical-degree alternations in AC power generation equals
5025	The magnitudes of the 3-phase AC line ___ and the single-phase AC winding ___ are equal
5026	The status of the ______ determines when load will receive electrical current
5027	The rated ampacity of the circuit conductors, the full-load current rating of the ___
5028	In general, circuit conductors must be provided with a means of ___
5029	The resistance is used to determine the wire’s rated ___ according to wire size
5030	The power factor of an AC circuit is the ratio of the ___ power to ___ power
5031	As shown in the AC power triangle: Wattage, which is representative of the work being done ___
5032	When the respective ends of the individual single-phase windings in a 3-phase alternator ___
5033	In terms of power calculations of a 3-phase AC circuit, the apparent power available ___
5034	As shown in the AC power triangle: The ______ power of the AC circuit is the hypotenuse
5035	A capacitor __________
5036	The generation of electrical power within the alternator of a single-phase ___`
5037	______ current(s) (is) are high-magnitude fault overcurrent(s) that can destroy circuit conductors
5038	When the respective ends of the individual single-phase windings in a 3-phase alternator, motor, or transformer are ___
5039	For the majority of the generated ____________ to be applied to the connected load
5040	Any value or magnitude of current that is greater than (in excess of) the rated-ampacity of ___
5041	The required rated-load ampacity of the circuit conductors determines the required wire ____
5042	The switch used to control the operation of the connected load in an electrical circuit may function ____
5043	When the three principal components of an electrical circuit are series-connected ___
5044	A non-circuit conductor that has been intentionally grounded and must be installed or ___
5045	For electrical induction to take place in ___
5046	The acronym DC stands for __________
5047	The rated ampacity of the circuit conductors, the full-load current rating ___
5048	Generators or alternators, motors, transformers, solenoids for valves and for relays ______
5049	To protect against the flow of high-magnitude fault overcurrent, the wires ___
5050	For the electrical energy or power to be effectively transmitted or transferred from ___
5051	The connected loads can be supplied as a 2-wire branch circuit at either __________ volts
5052	There are other sources of ___ electricity, such as lightning or friction
5053	In terms of power calculations of a 3-phase AC circuit, the apparent power ___
5054	There are two types of electrical-circuit current: ___
5055	The generation of electrical power within the alternator of a single-phase or 3-phase AC electrical-power distribution system creates a ______
5056	The most economical way to mass-produce AC power is by steam turbines that drive large __________ AC generators
5057	The electrical energy stored in a reactive load is released back into the circuit when circuit conditions ___
5058	The overcurrent protection device in an electrical circuit is designed or rated to protect ___
5059	The magnitudes of the 3-phase AC line ___ are 173% greater than (times 1.732) the single-phase AC winding ___
5060	In terms of power calculations of a single-phase AC circuit, the apparent power available from a feeder or branch circuit is simply the product of line ____ times line _____
5061	When an overcurrent protection device is placed in series with and ahead of the control switch, then _______ control has been added
5062	In a 3-phase _______wiring configuration: The 3-phase AC line voltage, measured between any two of the three supply lines in the 3-phase alternator, motor or transformer, is
5063	The _______ power of an AC circuit is the hypotenuse of the power triangle
5064	The rms values of voltage or current, normally referred to as the _____ values of power
5065	In general, circuit conductors must be provided with a means of overcurrent protection _______
5066	______ overcurrent can occur only if the electrical power distribution system is referenced to earth ground
5067	Reactance does not effectively dissipate electrical resistance as ______
5068	All AC circuits (other than purely resistive AC circuits) have another element that offers a type of resistance to the flow of electrical current______
5069	The magnitude of short-circuit overcurrent is normally less than the magnitude of ground-fault overcurrent available from the same transformer
5070	A compressor seal is required to prevent ___
5071	The purpose of a condenser in a refrigeration system is ___
5072	The refrigeration compressor’s operating control that uses a bimetal element is a ___
5073	The expansion valve in a refrigeration system
5074	The oil-pressure failure switches of a mechanical refrigeration system
5075	The safety control that uses a current transformer with a resistor in the motor circuit is known as ___
5076	About the Electrical MCQ category