4000+ Analog Electronics Questions

Explore 4000+ Analog Electronics questions and answers covering electronic components, analog circuits, amplifiers, semiconductor devices, oscillators, filters, signal processing, and practical electronics engineering concepts.

This collection includes technical questions related to:

• Diodes
• Transistors
• Operational Amplifiers
• Analog Circuits
• Semiconductor Devices
• Amplifiers
• Oscillators
• Filters
• Power Supplies
• Wave Shaping Circuits
• Feedback Circuits
• Rectifiers
• Voltage Regulators
• Electronic Measurements

The questions cover analog electronics fundamentals, circuit analysis, practical applications, troubleshooting methods, signal behavior, component characteristics, and electronic system design concepts commonly used in engineering studies and industrial applications.

These Analog Electronics questions are useful for engineering students, diploma holders, electronics technicians, electrical engineers, competitive exam aspirants, and professionals looking to improve technical knowledge and practical understanding of analog electronic systems.

Browse the Analog Electronics questions below and strengthen your understanding of electronic circuits, semiconductor devices, and analog engineering concepts.

4000 Analog Electronics Questions

S.No.	Analog Electronics Question
1	The varactor is a type of pn junction that acts as which of the ___
2	The Darlington pair consists of the following two stages ___
3	Each of two cascaded stages has a voltage gain of ___
4	Which of the following represents ___
5	Which of the following amplifier circuit using junction transistor has the best gain ___
6	Which of the following is not provided in a ___
7	A quiescent state of a transistor implies ___
8	A FET has ___
9	Which of the following is correct statement ___
10	When a transistor is connected in common emitter mode, it will have ___
11	Which class of amplifiers operates with leas distortion ___
12	The leakage current in CE configuration may be ___
13	Emitter region in NPN transistor is more heavily doped than base region so that ___
14	A FET has a gate source bias of ___
15	Which of the following circuit would be preferred for a ___
16	Common emitter transistor has ___
17	Common base configuration is little used because ___
18	Which junction transistor is preferred for high input an low output impedance ___
19	As compared to a CB amplifier, a CE amplifier has ___
20	The input and output signals for CE amplifier are ___
21	The leakage current in CB configuration may be ___
22	Thermal run away of a transistor occurs when ___
23	In a transistor leakage current mainly depends on ___
24	In a PNP junction transistor as compared to base region the emitter region is ___
25	In a PNP transistor the electron flow into the transistor at ___
26	In a transistor with normal bias ___
27	Which circuit has its output signal from the emitter ___
28	Which of the amplifier circuits using junction transistors has ___
29	A triac is a semi-conductor device which acts as a ___
30	Which of the following is necessary for transistor action ___
31	In a NPN transistor, when emitter junction is forward biased and collector junction is reverse biased the ___
32	A diac is a semi-conductor device which acts as a ___
33	In a normally biased NPN transistor the main current crossing the ___
34	In a NPN transistor if the emitter junction is reverse biased and collector junction is also reversed biased, he transistor ___
35	Which of the following number specification refers to FET with one gate ___
36	Conventional biasing of a bipolar transistor has ___
37	Largest current flow of a bipolar transistor occurs ___
38	The heat sink disposes off heat mainly by ___
39	Arrow head on a transistor symbol indicates ___
40	The transistor is usually encapsuled in ___
41	A transistor may fail due to ___
42	Most small signal transistors are ___
43	Which of the following statement is correct ___
44	In a PNP transistor, electrons flow ___
45	A transistor will operate in inverted region when ___
46	In a NPN transistor, when emitter junction is forward biased and collector junction is reverse biased, the ___
47	In a PNP transistor, with normal bias, the emitter junction ___
48	In a NPN transistor the function of the emitter is ___
49	In a transistor which of the following region is very lightly doped and ___
50	In most transistors, the collector region is made physically larger than the ___
51	A PNP transistor is made of ___
52	In a PNP transistor, with normal bias ___
53	A collector collects ___
54	The bipolar transistors or JFETs in a multivibrator are usually connected in ___
55	If the load impedance for an oscillator is too high ___
56	A ferromagnetic-core coil is preferred for use in the tuned circuit of an RF oscillator ___
57	A frequency synthesizer has ___
58	A varactor diode ___
59	A radio-frequency oscillator usually ___
60	The different sounds of musical instruments are primarily the result of ___
61	The frequency at which a crystal oscillator functions is determined mainly by ___
62	An advantage of a crystal-controlled oscillator over a VFO is ___
63	An oscillator might fail to start for any of the following reasons except ___
64	Ferromagnetic coil cores are not generally good for use in RF oscillators because ___
65	An RF choke ___
66	A tapped coil is used in a(n) ___
67	In an oscillator circuit, the feedback should be ___
68	A Colpitts oscillator can be recognized by ___
69	Oscillation requires ___
70	Negative feedback in an amplifier ___
71	A loading control in a tuned PA ___
72	A tuned PA must always be ___
73	A broadband PA is ___
74	A certain bipolar-transistor PA is 66 percent efficient ___
75	A disadvantage of transfer coupling, as opposed to capacitive coupling, is that ___
76	A graphic equalizer is a form of ___
77	Which of the following amplifier classes generally needs the most driving power?
78	How can a class-C amplifier be made linear?
79	How can a class-B amplifier be made suitable for hi-fi audio applications?
80	Which bipolar amplifier type has some distortion in the signal wave, with collector current during most, but not all, of the cycle?
81	Which of the following amplifier types produces the least distortion of the signal waveform?
82	In which of the following FET amplifier types does drain current flow for 50 percent of the signal cycle?
83	A class-A circuit would not work well as ___
84	The capacitance values in an amplifier circuit depend on ___
85	A resistor between the base of an NPN bipolar transistor and the positive supply voltage is used to ___
86	A power gain of 44 dB is equivalent to an output/input power ratio of ___
87	A device has a voltage gain of 23 dB ___
88	A gain of _15 dB in a circuit means that ___
89	If a circuit has a voltage-amplification factor of 20, then the voltage gain is ___
90	The decibel is a unit of ___
91	Which of the following circuits generally has the greatest gain?
92	Which of the following circuits has its output 180 degrees out of phase with its input?
93	In a source follower, which of the electrodes of the FET receives the input signal?
94	An enhancement-mode MOSFET can be recognized in schematic diagrams by ___
95	When an enhancement-mode MOSFET is at zero bias ___
96	The channel in a zero-biased JFET is normally ___
97	An advantage of MOSFETs over JFETs is that ___
98	The input impedance of a MOSFET ___
99	A disadvantage of a MOS component is that ___
100	Characteristic curves for JFETs generally show ___
101	Transconductance is the ratio of ___
102	When a JFET is pinched off ___
103	A JFET circuit essentially never has ___
104	The gate of a JFET has ___
105	A JFET is sometimes biased at or beyond pinchoff in ___
106	In a P-channel JFET ___
107	A JFET might work better than a bipolar transistor in ___
108	The current consists mainly of holes when a JFET ___
109	In an N-channel JFET, pinchoff occurs when the gate bias is ___
110	The current through the channel of a JFET is directly affected by all of the following except ___
111	The gain of a transistor in a common-emitter circuit is 100 at a frequency of 1000 Hz ___
112	The input signal to a transistor amplifier results in saturation during part of the cycle ___
113	In a common-base circuit, the output is taken from the ___
114	The configuration noted for its stability in radio- frequency power amplifiers is the ___
115	The input is applied to the collector in ___
116	The greatest possible amplification is obtained in ___
117	The output is in phase with the input in a ___
118	The configuration most often used for matching a high input impedance to a low output impedance puts signal ground at ___
119	In a common-emitter circuit, the gain bandwidth product is ___
120	When a transistor is conducting as much as it possibly can, it is said to be ___
121	With no signal input, a bipolar transistor would have the least IC when ___
122	The current through a transistor depends on ___
123	In the dual-diode model of an NPN transistor, the emitter corresponds to ___
124	A bipolar transistor has ___
125	In many cases, a PNP transistor can be replaced with an NPN device and the circuit will do the same thing, provided that ___
126	In a PNP circuit, the collector ___
127	To service a power supply with which you are not completely familiar, you should ___
128	Bleeder resistors are ___
129	A fuse with nothing but a straight wire inside is probably ___
130	If a fuse blows, and it is replaced with one having a lower current rating, there’s a good chance that ___
131	Transient suppression minimizes the chance of ___
132	A current surge takes place when a power supply is first turned on because ___
133	Voltage regulation can be accomplished by a Zener diode connected in ___
134	If you needed exceptionally good ripple filtering for a power supply, the best approach would be to ___
135	Which of the following would make the best filter for a power supply?
136	The ripple frequency from a full-wave rectifier is ___
137	A transformer secondary provides 10 V rms to a voltage-doubler circuit ___
138	The principal disadvantage of a voltage multiplier is ___
139	If a full-wave bridge circuit is used with a transformer whose secondary provides 50 V rms, the PIV across the diodes is about ___
140	If a half-wave rectifier is used with 117-V rms ac (house mains), the average dc output voltage is about ___
141	The part of a power supply immediately preceding the regulator is ___
142	In a supply designed to provide high power at low voltage, the best rectifier design would probably be ___
143	An advantage of full-wave bridge rectification is ___
144	___ Of the following appliances, which would need the biggest transformer?
145	Which of the following might not be needed in a power supply ___
146	The output of a rectifier is ___
147	A photodiode, when not used as a photovoltaic cell, has ___
148	An oscillator employs ___ feedback
149	The frequency of oscillation is L and C in an LC oscillator ___
150	Increasing the overall Beta is an advantage of ___
151	The largest theoretical voltage gain obtained with a common collector amplifier is ___
152	The final stage of an amplifier uses ___ coupling
153	In order to have more voltage gain from a transformer amplifier the transistor used should have ___
154	If an amplifier has a power gain of 100, then its dB gain is ___
155	In transistor amplifiers, what transformer is used for impedance matching?
156	The ___ the voltage regulation, the better the operation of the voltage supply circuit
157	A dc voltage supply provides 60V when the output is unloaded ___
158	Transformer coupling is generally employed when load resistance is ___
159	The efficiency of class AB operation has a maximum of between ___ percent
160	Class C operation can have ___ percent efficiency
161	Why is transformer coupling provides high frequency?
162	What class of operation has little use in general purpose amplifiers, but is used in high frequency oscillators?
163	What class of operation is used where a portion of a signal only is required, such as the synchronizing pulse separator of a television receiver?
164	What class of operation is used either where the signal needs to be cut in half, such as in pulse detector or noise detectors or where push-pull operation of two stages is required?
165	What class of operation is used for general amplification where no distortion can be tolerated?
166	Feedback factor is always ___
167	The gain of an amplifier ___ when negative feedback is added
168	What coupling provides maximum voltage gain?
169	Practically, the voltage gain of an amplifier is expressed ___
170	What oscillator is used on order to produce frequencies in the microwave region?
171	To amplify dc signals, multistage amplifier uses what coupling?
172	The general characteristics of a common base amplifier are ___
173	Which of the following describes a common collector amplifier?
174	The operating point is generally located at ___ of dc load line in class A operation
175	Power amplifiers handle ___ signals
176	Which frequency produces the highest noise factor?
177	The capacitors are considered in the dc equivalent circuit of a transistor amplifier ___
178	What is the basic purpose of applying negative feedback to an amplifier?
179	A feedback circuit is ___ frequency
180	If the noise factor of an ideal amplifier expressed in dB, then it is ___
181	An amplifier configuration where the input signal is led to the emitter terminal and the output from the collector terminal is called ___
182	An electronic transfer from one stage to the next is termed as ___
183	What is the typical value of coupling capacitor Cc in RC coupling?
184	Transformer coupling is used for ___ amplification
185	An instrument use to measure ones location in terms of coordinates ___
186	A type of filter which is having a single continuous transmission band with neither the upper nor the lower cut-off frequencies being zero or infinite is called ___
187	What is the advantage of RC coupling scheme?
188	The driver transformer has center- tapped secondary to provide ___
189	A type of oscillator wherein the frequency is determined by the charge and discharge of resistor-capacitor networks used in conjunction with amplifiers or similar devices ___
190	To obtain the frequency response curve of an amplifier ___ is kept constant
191	The input impedance of an amplifier ___ when negative current feedback is applied
192	The input impedance of an amplifier ___ when negative voltage feedback is applied
193	The voltage gain over mid- frequency range in an RC coupled amplifier ___
194	A tuned amplifier uses what load?
195	When the non-linear distortion in an amplifier is D without feedback, with negative voltage feedback it will be ___
196	What circuit increases the peak   -to-peak voltage, current or power of a signal?
197	An ammeter’s ideal resistance should be ___
198	The conductivity of semiconductor depends on ___
199	In an Intrinsic semi conductor, the mobility of electrons in a conduction band is ___
200	Which one of the following material is not a semiconductor material ___
201	Conduction of electrons will have more mobility than the ___
202	The forbidden energy gap of germanium is ___
203	In a semiconductor the movement of holes is ___
204	Avalanche breakdown in a semiconductor diode occurs when ___
205	In Zener diode large reverse current is due to ___
206	An example of solid state device is ___
207	An ideal voltage source will charge an ___
208	The process of electron emission from the surface of a metal into the surrounding space by ___
209	A practical current source is usually represented by ___
210	A Vacuum diode is ___
211	A Thyratron is ___
212	In a conductor the valence band and the ___
213	The Covalent bond is formed by ___
214	When a thyristor turn on, the gate drive ___
215	In the depletion region in the P-N junction there are ___
216	Highest operating frequency can be expected in case of ___
217	Which one of the following is expected to have the ___
218	The cascaded amplifier which is often used in ___
219	When n-channel depletion type MOSFET are used in enhanced mode ___
220	Which of the following is not true in case of ___
221	Which one of the following is a unipolar device ___
222	The input gate current of FET is close to ___
223	The properties of JFET resemble those of ___
224	A Junction Field Effect Transistor can operate in ___
225	Which of the following is the point of ___
226	Which of the following statement is false?
227	Which of the following is the fastest switching device ___
228	A bipolar transistor is a ___ controlled device
229	A dc amplifiers ___
230	Which of the following circuits can operate class AB for ___
231	Complementary symmetry use two transistors that ___
232	Which coupling produces the minimum interference with ___
233	How many cascaded stages of CE amplifiers will result in polarity inversion of ___
234	Three cascaded stages have gains of ___
235	In oscillators class C operation is preferred ___
236	The circuit consisting of two transistors connected in series with ___
237	Which of the following combinations has no phase inversion of ___
238	In amplifiers, the parasitic oscillations result due to ___
239	Robotic manipulator arms mostly use ___
240	Oscillators MCQ Questions and Answers
241	What is a pentragrid converter?
242	#VALUE!
243	What is the complex impedance of a circuit with an absolute resistance of 300 ohm(s)?
244	Which of the following elements is active?
245	Which of the statements below is true?
246	In an RL series circuit ___
247	A multistage amplifier uses at least how many transistors?
248	AC load line has a/an slope compared to that of dc load line ___
249	The input capacitor in an amplifier is called ___ capacitor
250	The number of stages that can be directly coupled is limited because ___
251	Which transistor configuration offers no phase reversal at the output?
252	Which configuration has the lowest current gain?
253	The basic concept of the electric wave filter was originated by ___
254	To obtain good gain stability in a negative feedback amplifier, AB is ___
255	What is the time taken by the electrons or holes to pass from the emitter to the collector?
256	The bandwidth of a single stage amplifier is that of multistage amplifier ___
257	What is the purpose of RC or transformer coupling?
258	The value of collector load resistance in a transistor amplifier is ___ the output impedance of the transistor
259	Which is not a basic BJT amplifier configuration?
260	The collector current in an common base configuration is equal to ___
261	If gain without feedback and feedback factor are A and þ respectively, then gain with negative feedback is given by ___
262	Class C is an amplifier whose output current flows for ___
263	What represents common-emitter small signal input resistance?
264	Amplitude distortion is otherwise known as ___ distortion
265	An AF transformer is shielded to ___
266	What is a non-linear type of amplifier?
267	Which power amplifier has the highest collector efficiency?
268	Which is used to establish a fixed level of current or voltage in a transistor?
269	What happens if the input capacitor of a transistor amplifier is short-circuited?
270	In a class A amplifier, the output signal is ___
271	Oscillators operate on the principle of ___
272	What is the operating point in the characteristic curve called?
273	An oscillator produces ___ oscillations
274	What is the point of intersection of dc and ac load lines called?
275	The coupling capacitor Cc must be large enough to ___ in an RC coupling scheme
276	Which amplifier whose output current flows for the entire cycle?
277	What type of coupling is generally used in power amplifiers?
278	What linear circuit compares two input signals and provides a digital level output depending on the relationship of the input signals?
279	What piece of equipment in an oscilloscope is used to indicate pulse condition in a digital logic circuit?
280	Which of the following is considered an amplifier figure of merit?
281	If a transistor is operated in such a way that output current flows for 160 degrees of the input signal, then it is ___ operation
282	The voltage gain of a common collector configuration is ___
283	Which of the following amplifier is considered linear?
284	#VALUE!
285	A mechanism for carrier motion in semiconductors which occurs when an electric field is applied across a piece of silicon ___
286	The gate-to-0 source on voltage if an n-channel enhancement mode MOSFET is ___
287	The preferred form of biasing a JFET amplifier is through the ___
288	Boltzmann’s constant is equivalent to ___
289	Thermal voltage Vt is approximately equal to ___ at room temperature (20 ºC)
290	An ideal diode ___
291	An electron in the conduction band ___
292	When PN junction is connected to a battery in such a way that P-side is connected to negative terminal of the battery and positive terminal to N-side, this connections is known as ___
293	When PN junction is connected to a battery in such a way that P-side is connected to positive terminal of the battery and negative terminal to N-side, this connections is known as ___
294	When charges are forced to move by the electric field of a potential difference, ___ current is said to flow
295	A positive charge outside the nucleus which is present only in semiconductor due to unfilled covalent bonds
296	It is a stable positive charge in the nucleus that is not free to move ___
297	Which of the following doping elements have a valence of 3 ___
298	Which of the following doping elements have a valence of 4 ___
299	Which of the following doping elements have a valence of 5 ___
300	When a diode is forward biased, the recombination of free electrons and holes may produce ___
301	An intrinsic semiconductor has some holes in it at room temperature ___
302	How many protons does the nucleus of a silicon atom contain ___
303	The nucleus of a copper atom contains how many protons ___
304	Reverse recovery time of the diode is computed as the ___ of the storage time and transition interval from the forward to reverse bias
305	The maximum temperature the diode can operate before burning ___
306	The reduction of power handling capability of the diode due to the increase of ambient temperature form room temperature ___
307	What extrinsic semiconductor is produced when a trivalent atom is added to the molten silicon ___
308	Which of the items below is not a pentavalent atom ___
309	An extrinsic semiconductor produces ___ when a pentavalent atom is added to the molten silicon
310	The amount of time between the creation and disappearance of a free electron ___
311	The merging of a free electron and a hole inside the silicon crystal ___
312	What term is used to refer to the vacancy left by the free electron when it departs from its original shell ___
313	What term is used to describe the released electrons dislodged from its original shell due to the increase in temperature which joins into a larger orbit ___
314	What refers to the temperature of the surrounding air ___
315	When an atom has bound electrons, it is described as ___
316	The eight electrons which are tightly held by the atom are called ___
317	The sharing of valence electrons to produce a chemically stable atom ___
318	It is an arrangement of silicon atoms combine to form a solid such that there are now 8 electrons in the valence shell ___
319	Which of the items below is not taking place inside a silicon crystal ___
320	Which of the following is considered as the best conductor ___
321	What type of material usually has four valence electrons ___
322	What type of material usually has one valence electron ___
323	The energy gap for germanium made semiconductor is ___
324	The energy gap for semiconductors made of silicon is ___
325	Approximate energy gap in insulator is ___
326	An energy band in which electrons can move freely ___
327	The highest energy band of an atom which can be filled with electrons ___
328	Which of the following items is not a type of material ___
329	The reason why electrons are not pulled in the positive charged nucleus is because of the ___ which usually became exactly equals the inward attraction of the nucleus
330	What are the electrons at the outermost shell which are usually weakly attracted by the core such that an outside force can easily dislodge these electrons from the atom ___
331	What term is used to describe the outermost shell of an atom ___
332	What is approximate mass of an electron at rest ___
333	What particles are of zero charge and zero mass ___
334	The break up of nuclei into nuclear fragments that are themselves nuclei is called ___
335	Electron emitted by the mechanical impact of an ion striking a surface is called ___
336	The ___ as fundamental particle is considered as a bundle of radiant energy or light, the amount energy being related to the frequency
337	Present atomic theories place the mass and positive charge of an atom in a central nucleus composed of protons and ___
338	Which of the items below is not true with a of a transistor ___
339	It is also known as a solid state lamp which utilizes the fall of an electron from the conduction level to the valence level to develop an energy release in the form of heat or light ___
340	It refers to any of the over 100 different substances which have never been separated into simpler substances by chemical means and which alone or in combination constitute all matter ___
341	Its maximum amount of reverse voltage which can be applied on a diode before breakdown point is reached ___
342	Which of the items below describes an RF amplifier which will amplify a weak signal voltage in relatively the same proportion as it will amplify a stronger signal voltage ___
343	Termed as unwanted oscillation that may occur in most any type of circuits, oscillator, amplifier, power supply, receiver and transmitters ___
344	It is the process by which atoms are constantly losing and regaining free electrons
345	A unijunction transistor is a three terminal consisting of ___ semiconductor layers
346	An amplifier has an output power of 3 watts. Determine the power output level with reference to 1 mW ___
347	Impedance matching in circuit is important for ___ transfer of energy
348	When the transistors are used in video amplifiers, its main limitation is ___
349	When the electron transmit time through the base region is very short, this ___
350	What is the most important factor of a power transistor ___
351	When transistor applications call for a temperature operating condition which exceeds 185 ºF, which element is most suitable ___
352	The maximum operating frequency of a transistor should be ___ percent of the frequency cut-off of the transistor to ensure best performance
353	The drift transistor has a high frequency cut off ___
354	The current gain of an emitter follower circuit is ___
355	JFET’s input impedance is ___
356	Depletion  -mode MOSFET acts mostly as ___
357	The voltage that turns on an enhancement-mode device is the ___
358	When a JFET is cut-off, the depletion layers are ___
359	Equivalent of transistor at saturation in JFETs is ___
360	What are often called square law devices ___
361	Calculate the drain current for a gate-source voltage of -1V ___
362	What is the dc resistance of the JFET in the ohmic region if the drain to source current at gate shorted is equal to 20 mA and the pinch off voltage is 5 \ volts ___
363	A datasheet gives these JFET values; IDSS = 20 mA and pinch-off voltage is 5 volts ___
364	Which of the items below is a special precaution necessary in handling FET and CMOS devices ___
365	A FET without a channel and no current occurs with zero gate voltage is ___
366	When a transistor is fully saturated, ___
367	What are the three terminals of a FET ___
368	The maximum forward current in a junction diode is limited by its ___
369	A special type of semiconductor diode which varies its internal capacitance as the voltage applied to its terminal varies ___
370	The principal characteristics of a tunnel diode ___
371	Zener diodes can be primarily classified as ___
372	Structural category of a semiconductor diodes can be either ___
373	The semiconductor device that radiate light or utilize light are called ___
374	Another name for a light activated diode (LAD) is ___
375	The equation for JFET’s transconductance ___
376	Which of the following is true about the emitter follower circuits ___
377	What is also called as the conventional amplifier ___
378	If the input frequency of a full-wave rectifier is 400 Hertz, the ripple frequency will be ___
379	If the input power of a half wave rectifier has a frequency of 400 Hertz, then the ripple frequency will be equal to ___
380	The arrow in semiconductor symbol ___
381	Who invented the feedback amplifier in 1928 ___
382	Which of the following is considered a unipolar device ___
383	If the line frequency is 60 Hz, the output frequency of a bridge rectifier is ___
384	In a push-pull power amplifier, an input transformer can be used as a ___ providing equal amplitude input signals opposite in polarity
385	Electron mobility property of silicon at 300 K is approximately equal to ___
386	A coupled amplifier which has the major advantage of permitting power to be transported from the relatively high output impedance of the first stage to the relative low input impedance of the second stage ___
387	The maximum rectification efficiency of a full-wave rectifier is ___
388	The maximum rectification efficiency of a half wave rectifier is ___
389	The way in which the gain of an amplifier varies with the frequency is called ___
390	The use of ___ coupling is particularly desirable in low level, low noise audio amplifier stages to minimize hum pick up from stray magnetic fields
391	A volt-ampere characteristic curve that describes the relationship of the output voltage of a transistor to its output current is a set input current _
392	A special type of diode which is often used in RF switches, attenuators and various types of phase shifting devices is called ___
393	Junction diodes are commonly rated by its ___
394	Eg for silicon is 1.12 eV and germanium is 0.72 eV ___
395	When the collector current Ic is plotted against the collector base voltage at constant emitter Ie, the curve obtain is called ___
396	A graphical representation in transistor wherein the emitter current is plotted against the variable emitter base voltage ___
397	What are the solid state gallium arsenide devices that emit beam of radiant flux when forward biased ___
398	What diode gives off light when energized ___
399	What are the majority current carriers in the N-type silicon ___
400	What happens to the voltage drop across the diode when current flow increases rapidly in a forward-biased diode ___
401	What two elements widely used in semiconductor devices exhibit both metallic and nonmetallic characteristics ___
402	Unijunction transistor has three terminals, namely ___
403	In enhancement-type MOSFETs, the ___ regions are used for operation as a switch
404	In enhancement-type MOSFETs, the ___ region is used if the FET is to operate as an amplifier
405	Another name for metal-oxide semiconductor field effect transistor is ___
406	Diode that operates in the reverse breakdown voltage and is used as a voltage regulator ___
407	Refers to a three-layer diode ___
408	A diode that has a negative resistance region and widely used in the design of oscillators, switching networks and pulse generators ___
409	What is the largest region of a bipolar transistor ___
410	A method of connecting amplifiers in cascade ___
411	The ___ transistor configuration has the highest value of input resistance
412	What device whose internal capacitance varies with the applied voltage ___
413	What is the principal characteristic of a zener diode ___
414	A silicon diode has a maximum allowable junction temperature of 150 ºC __
415	A manufacturer quotes in his specifications that a germanium diode conducts 50 mA at 1 volt ___
416	In an amplifier, the emitter junction is ___
417	How much voltage would you measure across the base-emitter junctioof a silicon transistor at class A ___
418	Another name for saturation current in a diode, which arises from the fact that it is directly proportional to the cross-sectional are of the diode ___
419	Which of the following is NOT one of the three distinct regions in the characteristic curve of a diode ___
420	A ___ is a light-sensitive device whose number of free electrons generated is proportional to the intensity of the incident light
421	Varactor diode’s transition capacitance is directly proportional to the product of the permittivity of the semiconductor material and PN junction area but inversely proportional to its ___
422	If the temperature of a semiconductor material increases, the number of free electrons ___
423	What is the most commonly used color of an LED ___
424	A photodiode which conducts current only when forward biased and is exposed to light ___
425	Mass of proton or neutron is ___ times that of an electron
426	The charge of proton has the same value to that of an electron but ___
427	What is the number of protons in the nucleus or the number of electrons in an atom ___
428	What is approximately the sum of the number of protons and neutrons of an atom ___
429	What semiconductor material is used in the construction of LED ___
430	What type of diode is used for tuning receivers; operate with reverse bias and derived its name from voltage-variable capacitor ___
431	What happens to the photoconductive material when light strikes on it ___
432	Photoconductive effect means ___
433	A measure of the ability of an LED to produce the desired number of lumens generated per applied watt of electrical energy ___
434	What is the point of intersection between a diode characteristic and a load line ___
435	FET has a pinch-off voltage of about ___
436	The value of coupling capacitor, Cc in RC coupling is about ___
437	A ___ is considered a voltage controlled device
438	A ___ is considered a current controlled device
439	The voltage gain of an emitter follower circuit is ___
440	Which of the following choices is an advantage of a MOSFET over a BJT in an RF amplifier circuit ___
441	A MOSFET is sometimes called ___ FET
442	What is the reason why FET has high input impedance ___
443	A nuclei with a common number of protons, but with different number of neutrons ___
444	In power supplies, circuits that are employed in separating the ac and dc components and bypass the ac components around the load, or prevent their generation are called ___
445	What is the reason why a common collector is used for impedance matching ___
446	What capacitors are used in transistor amplifiers ___
447	Charge of an electron is approximately equal to ___
448	Approximate mass at rest of a proton is ___ to that of a neutron
449	What is the approximate mass of a neutron at rest ___
450	What is the ideal value stability factor ___
451	The forward resistance crystal diode is in the order of ___
452	What is the resistivity of an extrinsic semiconductor ___
453	An acceptor atom contains how many valence electrons ___
454	Pure semiconductor atoms contain how many valence electrons ___
455	Reducing the number of free electrons in a doped semiconductor forms a/an ___ semiconductor
456	When the number of free electrons is increased in doped semiconductor, it becomes a/an ___ semiconductor
457	What in a semiconductor is defined as the incomplete part of an electron pair bond ___
458	As a general rule, ___ are found only in semiconductors
459	The amount of additional energy required to emit an electron from the surface of metal is called ___
460	What are the two possible breakdown mechanisms in pn junction diodes ___
461	What refers to annihilation of a hole and electron ___
462	Which of the following materials has the smallest leakage current ___
463	Percentage ripple can be calculated by getting the ___ and multiplying the result by 100%
464	Clamper is also known as ___
465	The holding of one extreme amplitude of the input waveform to a certain amount of potential is called ___
466	Under standard conditions, pure germanium has a resistivity of ___
467	What is the approximate voltage drop of LED ___
468	What is the net charge if a certain semiconductor gains one valence electron ___
469	What is the net charge if a certain semiconductor losses 4 valence electrons ___
470	Which of the items below is not a good conductor ___
471	#VALUE!
472	What silicon npn tetrode serves as bistable negative-resistance device ___
473	What type of diode is used for tuning receivers and is normally operated with reverse bias and derived its name from voltage variable capacitor ___
474	When both emitter and collector junctions are reverse biased, the transistor is said to be at ___ region
475	Which of the choices below is another name for a photoconductive cell ___
476	What line is drawn between the open-circuit current on a JFET characteristic curve ___
477	An emitter resistor is used for in most amplifier circuits ___
478	When a factor a junction transistor is 0.98, the factor would be equivalent to ___ value of transistor’s beta
479	It is the current gain for the common-emitter configuration ___
480	What is the charge of the hole ___
481	Which of the item below does not mean a VARACTOR diode ___
482	Aging effect exists in ___
483	The advantage of transistor over vacuum tube is ___
484	The PREFERRED solder alloy ratio for electronic repair is ___
485	A roll of solder is marked ___
486	Solder used in electronics is an alloy composed of which of the following metals?
487	The handpiece that can be used for the greatest variety of operations is ___
488	In the selection of a soldering iron tip, which of the following factors should be considered?
489	During fault isolation procedures, a device or component should be ___
490	Fault diagnosis using GPETE should only be attempted by which of the following personnel?
491	Which of the following types of test equipment is classified as off-line automatic test equipment?
492	A dc voltmeter that is permanently attached to a power supply for ___
493	Test equipment that continuously monitors performance and ___
494	Source, Maintenance, and Recovery (SM & R) codes that ___
495	Boards or modules that are SM & R code D may be repaired at ___
496	The maintenance level at which normal 2M repairs are performed is ___
497	Inspecting, servicing, and adjusting equipment is the function of ___
498	Direct support to user organizations is provided by ___
499	SM & R code D maintenance facilities are usually located at which of the following activities?
500	The most extensive shop facilities and highly skilled technicians are ___
501	If a technician should fail to maintain the required standards of ___
502	To ensure that a 2M technician maintains the minimum standards of ___
503	Repairs that are limited to discrete components and ___
504	A technician is authorized to perform 2M repairs upon satisfactory completion of ___
505	The standards of workmanship and guidelines for specific repairs to ___
506	Training requirements for miniature and ___
507	Ground planes and shielding are used to prevent ___
508	Environmental performance requirements for ICs are set forth in ___
509	The most complex to produce and difficult to repair ___
510	Which of the following circuit connection methods is ___
511	Which of the following characteristics is NOT an advantage of ___
512	A chassis located in a radar antenna pedestal would be identified as ___
513	A faulty transistor would be identified as what level of packaging?
514	A technician has isolated a problem to a plug-in module on ___
515	An assembly of microcircuits or a combination of microcircuits and ___
516	Assemblies made up EXCLUSIVELY of discrete electronic parts are classified as ___
517	Descriptive information about a particular type of IC may be found in ___
518	Letters and numbers stamped on the body of an IC serve to ___
519	The need for bonding wires has been eliminated by ___
520	IC packages that may be easily installed by hand or machine on ___
521	In IC production, gold or aluminum bonding wires are ___
522	Which of the following types of DIPs are most commonly used in ___
523	IC packaging is required for which of the following reasons?
524	Which of the following is a major advantage of hybrid ICs?
525	To produce thin film resistors, which of the following materials is/are used?
526	To deposit highly reactive materials on a ___
527	Vacuum evaporation and cathode sputtering are two methods used to ___
528	The prevention of unwanted interaction or leakage between components is ___
529	Pn junctions are protected from contamination during the ___
530	Elements penetrate the semiconductor substrate in ___
531	Artificially grown silicon or germanium crystals are used to produce substrates for ___
532	A typical silicon wafer has approximately (a) what diameter and (b) what thickness?
533	Which of the following types of material is preferred for film circuit substrates?
534	A device that allows the depositing of material in selected areas of ___
535	Which of the following pieces of equipment is used to ___
536	Integrated circuits containing more than 64,000 bits of memory are ___
537	What maximum number of logic gates should be expected in ___
538	Which of the following types of electronic circuits is NOT a hybrid integrated circuit?
539	In integrated circuits, a conductive or nonconductive film is ___
540	Monolithic integrated circuits are usually referred to as ___
541	All components and interconnections are formed on or within a ___
542	A module which is difficult to repair because it is completely imbedded in ___
543	A module in which the components are supported by end plates is ___
544	Which of the following characteristics of a printed ___
545	Functional blocks of a system that can easily be removed for ___
546	Point to point wiring in a vacuum tube circuit often caused which of the
547	For a vacuum tube to operate properly in a variety of different ___
548	The development of which of the following types of components had ___
549	During World War II, which of the following limitations were considered ___
550	What term is used to describe electronic systems that are made up of extremely small parts or elements?
551	The operating point in a transistor amplifier moves along ____ when an ac signal is applied
552	The maximum collector efficiency of class B operation is
553	Electron volt is the unit of ___
554	The temperature coefficient of an intrinsic semiconductor is ___
555	For N-type semiconductor material the doping material is ___
556	Which is the pair of acceptor elements ___
557	Higher the electric field intensity ___
558	On increasing the temperature of the intrinsic ___
559	An alloy composed of 80% copper ___
560	What refers to such work at very low temperatures, near absolute zero?
561	The superposition theorem is used when the circuit contains a/an ___
562	Which of the following is not a factor affecting dielectric strength?
563	What is the peak factor for alternating current or voltage varying sinusoidally ___
564	Leakage resistance in a capacitor results to ___
565	In an ac circuit with Xl and R in series, the ___
566	“Any resistance R in a branch of network in which a current I is flowing can be replaced by a voltage equal to IR.” ___
567	The resonance curve is a plot of frequency versus ___ for a series RLC circuit
568	A capacitance of 6 uuF means ___
569	An ideal current source has an internal conductance of siemen/s ___
570	What is the resonant frequency of a circuit when L of 25 microhenrys and C of 10 picofarads are in parallel?
571	Which of the following does not refer to electrical energy?
572	Which of the following is the most popular waveform?
573	A trigger circuit consisting of a capacitor of 0.01 uF is connected in series with a resistor ___
574	Which of the following is not considered a physical factor in affecting resistance?
575	Which of the following does not affect resistance?
576	What determines the direction of induced emf in a conductor or coil?
577	What happens when the input to a digital IC is left unconnected for TTL IC’s?
578	An acceptable voltage range of a logic 0 for CMOS operating at Vdd = 5V ___
579	What is the output of an EX-NOR gate when a logic signal and its exact inverse are connected to its input?
580	A graphical device used to convert a truth table to its corresponding logic circuit in a simple, orderly process ___
581	Determine the sum-of- products expression for a circuit with four inputs and an output that is HIGH only when input A is low at the same time that exactly two inputs are low ___
582	A circuit with no memory characteristic, and so its output depends only on the current value of its inputs ___
583	In boolean algebra, X + 1 =___
584	In boolean algebra, B.B’ =
585	Simplify the expression y = AB’D + AB’D’ ___
586	The boolean expression for a six-input OR gate ___
587	Use the expression for x = D + [(A+B)C]’. E to determine the output of the circuit for conditions ___
588	Determine the output of the circuit x if A = 0, B = 1, C = 1, and D = 0
589	The output of an inverter is connected to the input of a second inverter. Determine the output level of the second inverter ___
590	What is the hex equivalent of an ASCII code which means “HELP”?
591	The most widely used 7- bit alphanumeric code is the ___
592	The ___ belongs to a class of codecs called the minimum-change codes, in which only one bit in the code group changes when going from one step to the next
593	Which of the following items below is NOT one of the three basic operations in Boolean algebra?
594	Convert (B2F)16 to octal ___
595	What is the smallest type of semiconductor in terms of their physical size?
596	A digital circuit is also referred to as a/an circui ___
597	What is the next binary number following (10111)2 in the counting sequence?
598	Change in state is ___What is the decimal equivalent of (1101011)2?
599	Which of the following choices is NOT a characteristic of analog quantity ___
600	A circuit made up of combinations of logic gates, with no feedback from outputs to input ___
601	Performing binary subtraction to 6 1/4 minus 4 1/2 results to ___
602	An analog memory circuit used to eliminate aperture error is called a ___
603	Add 74(8) with 1.1(2) ___
604	Which of the following below is not one of the three major sections of an MPU?
605	Meaning of checksum in ROM’s ___
606	Why are voltage DAC’s generally slower than current DAC’s?
607	The time it takes for the DAC output to settle to within the 1/2 step size of its full scale value when the digital input changes from zero to full scale ___
608	An actuator in the DAC performs ___
609	It converts a non- electrical physical quantity to an electrical quantity ___
610	How many flip-flops are required for counter that will count 0 to 255?
611	The state of the flip-flop before the occurrence of clock pulse is called as its ___
612	If a short circuit occurs in a parallel branch of a circuit, what is the effect in total resistance, and (b) total current?
613	If a short circuit occurs in a series portion of a circuit, what is the effect on (a) total resistance, and (b) total current?
614	If an open occurs in a parallel branch of a circuit, what is the effect on (a) total resistance, and (b) total current?
615	Which of the following terms describes a single resistor that represents a complex circuit?
616	Two resistors with ohmic values of 90 ohms and 45 ohms are connected in parallel ___
617	Three resistors with ohmic values of 120 ohms, 60 ohms, and 40 ohms are connected in parallel ___
618	Three equal resistors are connected in parallel and each resistor has an ohmic value of 300 ohms ___
619	If a current has a negative polarity when Kirchoff’s current law is applied, which of the following, statements is true of the current?
620	What is the relationship of total current to the current through a component in (a) a series circuit, and (b) a parallel circuit?
621	A circuit consists of three resistors connected in parallel ___
622	When maximum power is transferred from a source to a load, what is the efficiency of power transfer?
623	Maximum power is transferred from a source to a load when the value of the load resistance is of what value when compared to the source resistance?
624	When Kirchoff’s voltage law is used to assign polarities to the voltage drop across a resistor, which of the following references is used to indicate the end of the resistor that the current enters?
625	If the energy used by the -horsepower motor is 9.5 kWh, what is the efficiency of the motor?
626	How much total energy is converted by a l-horsepower motor in 10 hours?
627	What type of resistor should be used in resistor with 4 amps of current?
628	What is the total power used by a 15-ohm resistor with 4 amps of current?
629	What is the current in a circuit with 15 ohms of resistance that uses 135 watts of power?
630	Which of the following is a correct formula for determining power in an electrical circuit?
631	Which of the following circuit quantities can be varied ONLY by varying one of the other circuit quantities?
632	Which of the following terms applies to the rate at which an electrical force causes motion?
633	If a battery is being charged at the proper rate, which, if any of the following types of gassing should occur?
634	If violent gassing occurs during the charging of a battery, which of the following actions should be taken?
635	Which of the following types of routine charges follows the nameplate data in restoring a battery to its charged condition during the ordinary cycle of operation?
636	A battery with a capacity of 600 ampere-hours should provide 3 amperes for a maximum of how many hours?
637	If electrolyte comes in contact with the skin, what first aid treatment should be given immediately to the affected area?
638	Which one of the following safety precautions for batteries is NOT correct?
639	If the electrolyte level in a battery is low, what should be added to the electrolyte to bring it to the proper level?
640	To flush a hydrometer, which of the following liquids should be used?
641	When a hydrometer is used to check the specific gravity of the electrolyte in a battery, to what level should the electrolyte be drawn?
642	What is the first step in performing maintenance on a secondary-cell battery?
643	What is the minimum number of cells necessary to form a battery?
644	In addition to the nickel-cadmium and silver-zinc cells, which of the following cells uses potassium hydroxide as the active ingredient in the electrolyte?
645	What is the most common use of a silverzinc cell?
646	Which of the following is/are the difference(s) in the construction of a NICAD cell as compared to a lead-acid cell?
647	___ Of the following types of cells, which one is a primary cell?
648	Which of the following factors should be considered when selecting a primary cell as a power source?
649	What is the common name for manganesedioxide-alkaline-zinc cell?
650	What is/are the advantages(s) of using a manganese-dioxide-alkaline- zinc cell over the zinc-carbon cell?
651	Which of the following describes the shorting of a cell?
652	___ Of the following characteristics, which one describes the mercury cell?
653	The blotting paper in a dry cell serves which of the following purposes?
654	How should the dry cell be stored to obtain maximum shelf life?
655	What serves as the cathode in a common type of dry cell?
656	In a dry cell, what is the consistency of the electrolyte?
657	Which of the following is caused by local action in a cell?
658	Which of the following methods is used to control polarization in a cell?
659	Polarization has what effects on an electrical cell?
660	When all the lead sulfate in a lead-acid cell is converted to sulfuric acid, lead peroxide, and sponge lead, what is the condition of the cell?
661	Which of the following actions will recharge a secondary cell?
662	In a fully charged lead-acid cell, what is the composition of the anode, cathode, and electrolyte respectively?
663	The lead-acid cell is an example of which of the following types of cells?
664	In a zinc-carbon primary cell, what is the function of the carbon electrode?
665	The primary cell is completely discharged when which of the following conditions exists?
666	What causes the cathode to be “eaten away” in the primary cell while the cell is discharging?
667	What causes hydrogen to be attracted to the anode of a primary cell when the cell is discharging?
668	What causes negative ions to be attracted to the cathode of a primary cell while the cell is discharging?
669	Which of the following actions will lower the internal resistance of a cell?
670	With respect to recharging a primary or secondary cell, of the following statements, which one is correct?
671	What term is given to the process that takes place inside a cell?
672	What are the three basic parts of a cell?
673	Which of the following is the purpose of an electrical cell?
674	Used to extend the length of a network or to expand the network ___
675	Similar to a bridge, which connects networks at different sites, it connects networks with different protocols ___
676	Used in connecting networks at different sites ___
677	A ___ will decide which route the message or messages should follow through the network
678	Network topology, where stations are connected to a concentric ring through a ring interface unit (RIU) ___
679	A multi-network IBM token ring network is also a network
680	Networks that include telecommunications are called ___
681	It describes its System Services Control Point (SSCP), Logical Units (LU), and Physical Units (PU) as network addressable units ___
682	___ network topology has more than one level of host computer
683	___ is the process of asking each remote terminal, one at a time, if it has data to send
684	It is term that is used to describe the form or the shape of a network ___
685	It is term that is used to describe the conventions of how network components communicate with each other ___
686	To ___ is to receive a file from a remote computer
687	To ___ is to send a file to a remote computer
688	A microcomputer attached to a network requires a ___
689	The process of choosing a terminal on a network to receive data is called ___
690	Networks that transmit data across town using electromagnetic signals are called ___
691	A ___ network requires that message travel around the ring to nthe desired destination
692	Workstations in a star network that can operate without storage devices ___
693	It is simply the term that is used to refer to an I/O device that relies entirely on the host computer for processing ___
694	It is the other term that is used to refer to a central device into which each node of a star network is directly connected ___
695	This topology is the most efficient centralized network for a small company ___
696	A type of server that allows multiple users to take advantage of a single printing device ___
697	It is also known as cooperative processing that involve using two or more networked computers to perform an application task ___
698	It is a fast computer with a large amount of secondary storage, to which all of the other computers in a network have access for data storage and retrieval ___
699	It is a type of computer networking technology that is used to connect computers that are located within the same room, building, or complex ___
700	The component that provides control or supporting services for other computers, terminals, or devices in a network ___
701	A network switching that creates a dedicated temporary connection between computers in a network ___
702	A computer network configuration that makes the host computer manages a network of dependent terminals ___
703	Network configuration that let computers share their resources ___
704	A network that is built and owned by a common carrier ___
705	A network classification that is usually built and owned by a single company or governmental organization ___
706	The interconnections of computers, terminals, and other equipment ___
707	What network facility used to interconnect distinct networks physically?
708	What do you call the devices that allow computers to communicate with other computers through telephone lines or radio frequency?
709	A device that enables users to transmit computer data and fax messages along telephone lines ___
710	What is the circuit that detects bit error in binary characters?
711	A network facility used to connect individual similar network segments forming a larger extended network is called ___
712	Refers to digital interface in which data characteristics are individually synchronized and may be sent at a time ___
713	The instructions and data in a computer system is referred to as ___
714	A sequence of instructions or statements designed to tell the computer how to carry out a particular processing task ___
715	A source program can run in computer only after translation into a machine code by a compiler ___
716	A program in a programming language, as written by the programmer ___
717	Assemble language to machine language translator ___
718	Translates source program to object program ___
719	Translator from high-level program to machine instructions ___
720	An advanced programming language, more advanced than high-level language ___
721	The first generation language of instruction, and is considered as the most primitive instruction that can be given to a computer ___
722	Machine instructions represented by mnemonics is considered as ___
723	Refers to a condition wherein the result of an arithmetic operation is more than the capacity of the output register ___
724	Refers to a condition wherein the result of an arithmetic operation is more negative than the capacity of the output register ___
725	An instruction, which means  “clear the interrupt mask” ___
726	Part of the instruction cycle where the instruction is moved from memory to the instruction register ___
727	An instruction tat moves data from accumulator to the memory ___
728	An instruction that can move data from memory to the accumulator ___
729	An instruction that causes the program to go another task ___
730	The op-code of a computer instruction ___
731	A 7-bit alphanumeric code that is widely used ___
732	Which of the code below is considered as minimum-change code?
733	What code that gives each digit of a decimal number with a corresponding binary equivalent?
734	A logic/digital circuit that generates an output code for every input signal ___
735	The smallest computer in terms of physical size ___
736	A very high-dense and probably the most versatile integrated circuit used in digital electronics ___
737	The purpose of the fetch cycle in a computer is to ___
738	___ is a software that converts a high level language program into machine or assembly language program
739	What is a program that translated English-like word of high-level language into the machine language of a computer?
740	A detailed step by step set of direction telling a computer exactly how to proceed to solve a specific problem or process as specific task ___
741	A ___ a program which converts instruction written in a source language into machine code, which can be read and acted upon by the computer
742	What is the medium of communication with a computer where programs are written in mnemonics?
743	Diagram showing procedures that are followed, and actions taken is called ___
744	___ is a sequence of instructions that tells the computer machine on how available data shall be processed
745	The technical term used when signals are converted from analog-to-digital ___
746	Binary codes are converted into ASCII by what circuit?
747	A digital circuit that produces logic 1 output pulse for every 10 input pulses ___
748	Is formed when the complemented output of the last stage of a shift register is fed back to the input of the first stage?
749	An electronic counter in which bistable units are cascaded to form a loop ___
750	A device/circuit used to separate two or more signals from one line ___
751	Another name for universal logic module (ULM) ___
752	A circuit used for selecting a single output from multiple inputs ___
753	The difference between a programmable logic array (PLA) and a programmable array logic (PAL) is that, ___
754	What is the difference between a read only memory (ROM) and a programmable logic array (PLA)?
755	Digital device similar to that of a ROM and whose internal connections of logic arrays can be programmed by passing high current through fusible links ___
756	Register wherein data can be serially inputted, while the output can be retrieved in parallel manner ___
757	Computer hardware device constructed to perform shifting of its contained data ___
758	A hardware used to program a PROM ___
759	Non-semiconductor digital memory device ___
760	Type of memory that is formed by a series of magnetic bubbles at the substrate ___
761	Dynamic RAM (DRAM) uses capacitor as its data storage element, while static RAM (SRAM) uses what?
762	Random access memory that needs recharging of capacitors ___
763	Semiconductor-based, volatile data storage device that can be written and read randomly ___
764	What is the time interval to undertake a refresh operation in a typical dynamic RAM?
765	A nonvolatile memory ___
766	A variation of PROM, wherein its stored data can be erased by electrical signal instead of ultraviolet light ___
767	What memory device that can be programmed, and reprogrammed after the old programs are erased usually by an ultraviolet light?
768	A type of ROM that allows data to be written into the device by a programmer ___
769	A semiconductor memory device in which data can be stored after fabrications ___
770	Type of memory wherein the data are permanently stored ___
771	One of the following can program PROMs ___
772	Memory whose contents are lost when, electrical power is removed ___
773	Sequential access digital memory uses what storage circuit?
774	Group of flip-flops used to store more bits ___
775	A flip-flop without an undefined output state condition whatever the input combination is ___
776	Combination of flip-flop, arranged so that they can be triggered at the same time ___
777	Flip-flop arrangement, such that the first receives its input on the positive edge of a clock pulse, and the other receives its input from the output of the first during the negative edge of the same pulse ___
778	Flip-flop that changes state every time the input is triggered ___
779	A flip-flop whose output is always the same as its input ___
780	When a flip-flop is constructed from two NAND-gates, its output will be undefined if the R/S inputs are ___
781	An RS flip-flop constructed from NOR-gates would have an undefined output when the inputs R/S combinations are ___
782	Several gates combined to form the basic memory element ___
783	A dynamic memory will store information ___
784	___ refers to a circuit that stores pulses and produces an output pulse when specified numbers of pulses are stored ___
785	What do you call the duration within it takes to read the content of a memory location after it has been addressed?
786	___ is a kind of memory where only manufacture can store program and has s group of memory locations each permanently storing a word
787	___ is a device that stay on once triggered and store one or two conditions as a digital circuit
788	___ is a storage device used to accommodate a difference in rate of flow of data or time of occurrence of events when transmitting from one device to another
789	___ is a segment register which normalcy access variables in the program
790	___ is called retrieving data from memory
791	___ is a byte data stored in a memory location
792	What is the higher voltage level in digital gates and flip-flop circuits?
793	___ is not a type of flip-flop
794	What is the function of flip-flop as logic element?
795	Determine which item is not a storage device ___
796	A memory circuit that has 9 address inputs has how many storage locations?
797	The density of data recorded on magnetic tape is measured in ___
798	___ are non-semiconductor devices still used in digital memories
799	A static memory will store information ___
800	How ill you handle unused inputs in a logic gate/ logic IC?
801	What is the purpose of the internal clamping diodes at the input of a logic circuit?
802	In TTL ICs, which input configurations gives a high-input impedance at both logic states (HIGH and LOW state)?
803	The output configuration of most CMOS ICs ___
804	In digital ICs, such as buffers and registers, what output configuration is used if they are intended for  “busing”?
805	A digital IC whose output transistor has no internal pull-up resistor ___
806	NMOS can be interfaced to CMOS by providing a ___
807	PMOS and CMOS have normally different supply requirements ___
808	CMOS are normally supplied a voltage up to what value?
809	PMOS are generally supplied with a voltage up to ___
810	Of the MOS logic family, which is the fastest?
811	Of all bipolar logic families, TTL is widely used ___
812	Other name of emitter-coupled logic (ECL) ___
813	Which of the bipolar logic circuits is the fastest?
814	In a transistor-transistor logic (TTL), if the base collector junction of a transistor is clamped with a Schottky diode it becomes Schottky TTL ___
815	A variation of transistor-transistor-logic (TTL) wherein transistor’s base and collector junctions are clamped with a Schottky diode ___
816	A logic circuit family with a supply voltage of 25 V, and are generally used in industry where machinery causes electrical noise and large power line transients to occur ___
817	Logic family that uses diodes and transistors as its circuit elements ___
818	A bipolar logic family that uses resistors as its input circuit ___
819	Refers to the number of logic gate of the same family that can be driven by a single output of a particular logic gate ___
820	The number of logic gates of the same family that can be connected to the input of a particular gate without degrading the circuit performance ___
821	Refers to the ability of logic circuit it withstand noise superimposed on its input signal ___
822	CMOS, NMOS, and PMOS belong to MOS family, what is (are) the significance of these devices?
823	Logic devices are broadly divided or categorized into two families, bipolar and MOS ___
824	OR function can be achieved by using how many NOR gates?
825	The number of NAND-gates needed to form an OT-gate ___
826	How many NAND-gates are needed to have an AND function?
827	___ Known as universal gates
828	A logic gate that can be wired to function like any other gate ___
829	___ Is considered as a controlled inverter
830	A buffer multiplies the number of gates a certain output can drive, and this can also be used as a/an ___
831	If the fan out of a logic gate is not enough, a/an should be used ___
832	A circuit that converts the input logic level to its complement ___
833	Logic gate that gives a HIGH output when the input has an even number of 1’s ___
834	What logic gate that gives an output of logic one if there is an odd number of 1’s at the input?
835	Gate with HIGH output level every time one of its inputs goes LOW ___
836	A logic gate whose output is logic zero every time one of its inputs goes to logic one ___
837	Only when all inputs are LOW thus, this logic gate produces an output of HIGH ___
838	What logic gate that generates an output of logic zero (LOW) only when all its inputs are logic one (HIGH)?
839	Logic gate whose output is HIGH when one or all of its inputs is LOW ___
840	Circuits used to implement Boolean expression or equations ___
841	The output pulses of the logic pulser ___
842	What is the process of converting multiple analog input signals sequentially to digital output?
843	What is the process used to describe analog-to-digital conversion?
844	What is a multi-wire connection between digital circuits?
845	___ refers to the class of logic circuit containing flip-flops
846	___ is a single bit comparator
847	The rapidly flashing logic probe tip tells you that the logic node being probe ___
848	To cause a three-state buffer to output 0-1 levels, the following must be true ___
849	A solid state logical device which only gives a  “1” output if all inputs are  “0” is called a ___ gate
850	Only when all inputs are logic one that this gate can delver an output of logic one ___
851	A solid state device which only gives a  “1” output if all inputs are also  “1” is called ___
852	Logic gate that generates an output of logic zero if and only if all inputs are zero ___
853	An output of logic zero can be generated by what logic gate(s) if all inputs are zero?
854	A logic gate whose output is HIGH when a single HIGH at its input is present ___
855	What is the logic circuit having two or more inputs but only output, with high output of any or all inputs are high, with low output only if all inputs are low?
856	___ is a gate which has two or more low inputs signals to get a low output
857	What level is used to represent logic  “0” in a negative logic circuit?
858	What level is used to represent logic 1 in a negative logic circuit?
859	A suitable method in simplifying Boolean expression when the system deals with more than six variables ___
860	Karnaugh map is the most commonly used method in simplifying Boolean expression or logical functions ___
861	Method(s) used in simplifying Boolean algebra ___
862	Mathematics used in expressing, analyzing, and designing of digital electronic circuits ___
863	Give the true complements of ___
864	Find the radix-minus one complement of ___
865	What is the difference between the given binary numbers, 110.1101 and 11.01?
866	Get the sum of (110.1101)2 and (11.01)2 ___
867	Find the sum of binary number 1010 and 0011 ___
868	Convert (1111 1111 1111 1111)2 to decimal number
869	The binary equivalent of the hexadecimal number ECE.5 ___
870	The most practical way of converting hexadecimal numbers to binary is to give each number its ___ equivalent bits
871	What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the binary number 1010011.01?
872	Convert the given binary number 1010011.01 to octal system ___
873	Conversion from binary to octal number system needs a grouping of bits by ___
874	The code 1011 in BCD is ___
875	What is the equivalent of decimal 14 in binary?
876	What is the equivalent of decimal 7 in octal?
877	Which of the following is not used in hexadecimal digital symbols?
878	What is the equivalent of decimal number 11 in binary?
879	How many symbols does hexadecimal digital number system used?
880	How many symbols are used in octal digital number system?
881	1 and 0 in binary number system are used to represent the two different voltage levels or logic levels in digital circuits ___
882	In digital electronics, there are mainly two possible voltage levels and these make ___ number system to be useful in its analysis
883	Electronics methodology in solving application problems using circuits, in which there are only two possible voltage levels ___
884	What does ALU which carries arithmetic and logic operations process?
885	Refers to the part of computer that performs mathematical operations ___
886	What is a group of circuits that provides timing and signals to all operations in the computer?
887	Refers to the increased use of data conversion circuits as a result of increased application ___
888	Whirlwind I, develop at Massachusetts Institute of Technology is capable of ___ operations per second
889	ENIAC could perform ___ additions or up to ___ multiplications per second
890	ENIAC consist of how many vacuum tubes?
891	Who constructed ENIAC and UNIVAC?
892	ENIAC was developed at ___
893	The first electronic computer and was completed in 1946 ___
894	First commercial computer introduce in 1953 that uses valves ___
895	An electronic device design to accept data performs prescribed computational and logical operations at high speed and output the results of this operation ___
896	Built a computer in 1946 at the Institute of Advance Study (IAS), Princeton, USA, that uses binary numbers and stores information ___
897	An English mathematician who invented the slide rule in 1622 ___
898	Why is SCARA Robot attractive in industry?
899	SCARA Robots are designed for what applications?
900	SCARA Robots has how many axis of motion?
901	In robotics, SCARA means ___
902	When a robot moves on several axis at the same time, it is to have ___
903	A robot program that has the ability to move a robot to any position within the range with specific path ___
904	A robot program that has the ability to move a robot to any position within the range but without specific path ___
905	A robot software or program that produces only two-position motion for a given robot axis ___
906	Disadvantages of electric actuators in industrial robots ___
907	Disadvantages of pneumatic actuators ___
908	Advantages of hydraulic actuators ___
909	Advantages of pneumatic actuators ___
910	Advantages of electric actuators ___
911	The most messy robot actuator ___
912	Robot actuator that has the highest operating cost ___
913	Actuator that requires the highest initial cost ___
914	Which of the actuators that has the greatest force capability?
915	Actuators used in industrial robots ___
916	The number of axis a robot is free to move is called ___
917	What is(are) the common mechanical configurations for industrial robots?
918	The technology for automations ___
919	A programmable, multifunction manipulator designed to move materials, parts, tools or specific devices ___
920	A system in which the precise movement of a large load is controlled by a relatively weak signal ___
921	___ includes tow of the actuator type used in industrial robots
922	One advantage of hydraulic actuator in industrial robots include ___
923	The ___ are two of the most common mechanical configuration of industrial robots
924	If On-Off mode of control is the simplest, what is its opposite or the most complex?
925	What is (are) being considered in Proportional plus Integral plus Derivative (PID) mode of control?
926	Proportional mode of control wherein the controller is not only considering the magnitude of the error signal but as well as its rate of change ___
927	Proportional mode of control wherein the controller is not only considering the magnitude of the error signal but as well as the time that is has persisted ___
928	___ is a mode of control wherein the controller has a continuous range of possible position, not just two as in bang-bang control
929	What are the general basic modes of control in control system?
930	In control system, the manner in which the controller reacts to an error is termed as ___
931	A good closed-loop control system has the following characteristics ___
932	The small error signal or system deviation where the system cannot correct anymore ___
933	In a closed-loop control system, when the error signal is zero the system is at ___
934	Error signal in closed-system is also known as ___
935	In closed-loop system, what do you call the difference in the measured value and the set value or desired value?
936	When a closed-loop system is used to maintain physical position it is referred as ___
937	In control system, closed-loop means ___
938	Open-loop in control system means ___
939	What do you call a circuit or system that is self-correcting?
940	Industrial circuit or system that is not self-correcting ___
941	What is the purpose of using a differential synchro instead of a regular synchro?
942	The system is ___ if a position servo system does not respond to small changes in the input
943	Refers to the system that has no feedback and is not self correcting ___
944	After the release interval in automatic welding, the system will go to ___
945	Next to hold interval is ___ interval in automatic welding system
946	After the welding interval, it goes to ___ interval wherein the electrode pressure is maintained on the metal surfaces
947	The portion of the weld interval during which the current is absent ___
948	During the welding or weld interval, when a welding current is flowing the system is said to be at ___
949	After the squeeze interval, what comes next in an automatic welding system?
950	In automatic welding what do you call the first interval wherein the material to be welded are held together?
951	In automatic welding system, basically there are how many intervals?
952	Portion in the welding process interval during which the welding current is flowing is called ___
953	Why does thyristors with high breakback voltage desirable?
954	Semiconductor devices with inherent ON-OFF behavior and has no linear operating regions are called thryistors ___
955	For a unijunction transistor (UJT) to witch ON ___
956	A UJT has an internal resistances of RB1 = 6 KΩ and RB2 = 3 KΩ, what is its interbase resistance?
957	A UJT or unijunction transistor is a three terminal breakover-type switching device ___
958	What will happen to the forward breakdown or breakover voltage of SCRs and triacs if the gate current is increased?
959	Thyristor whose characteristic curve closely resembles that of SCR’s and SUS’s, except that its forward breakover voltage (+VBO) is not alterable, for the device has no gate terminal ___
960	A silicon unilateral switch (SUS) has a forward breakover voltage of 8 V. a zener diode is connected between its gate and cathode terminals with the diode’s cathode at SUS’s gate ___
961	Silicon unilateral switches (SUSs) generally have a breakover voltage of 8 V, however, this value can be altered by normally connecting a zener diode ___
962	A thyristor that is very similar to an SCR except that it has low voltage and current ratings ___
963	A silicon bilateral switch may be considered as s small power triac, and has three terminals namely, ___
964	What are the three terminals of a triac?
965	Which are the three terminals of a TRIAC?
966	A triac can be triggered ON by the application of a ___
967	What is the difference between a triac and a silicon bilateral switch (SBS)?
968	A three terminal device that behaves roughly like SCR, except that it can conduct current in either direction when at ON ___
969	How many times per second does an SCR is turned ON and OFF when it is operated in a full-wave phase control at a line frequency of 60 Hz?
970	In controlling electrical power using phase control method with SCR/triac being the active device, what do we call the period of the cycle before the device switches to conduction?
971	When a high current is needed, SCRs are connected in parallel ___
972	A circuit used for voltage equalization during ON-OFF switching action of SCRs in series ___
973	What is true regarding blocking-equalizing resistors in SCRs connected in series?
974	In connecting two SCRs in series, during  “OFF” state, the voltage source must be properly shared between them, but due to devices’ differences, there might be unequal voltages across each SCR ___
975	How can we increase the forward-voltage blocking capability of SCRs?
976	Use of heat sinks, forced air, and water cooling are examples of external cooling in SCRs and other devices ___
977	How can we extend the rating of SCRs?
978	What is(are) the gate limitation(s) of SCRs and triacs?
979	The needed voltage at the gate of an SCR before it conducts ___
980	An SCR rated 10 A is used as the controlling switch in a circuit powered by 50Vdc ___
981	The voltage decreased across the anode (A) and cathode (K) of an SCR from non- conducting state to conducting state ___
982	What is(are) the condition(s) in triggering SCR?
983	The minimum amount of current needed for an SCR to conduct continuously ___
984	The voltage across the anode (A) and cathode (K) terminals of an SCR when conducting ___
985	What is true about SCRs after they are being switched  “ON”?
986	How do we turn  “ON” or trigger an SCR?
987	How do you stop conduction during which SCR is also conducting?
988	Find the two stable operating conditions of an SCR ___
989	The most popular thyristor used in electrical power controllers ___
990	A four-element solid state device that combines the characteristics of both diodes and transistors ___
991	A break-over device that is basically a diode ___
992	General term of electronic devices used to control or trigger large-power switching devices ___
993	Which of the trigger diodes has the highest holding voltage?
994	Which power control switching method that greatly generates RFI or EMI and is therefore limited to low-frequency applications?
995	Using electronic devices as switches, what is(are) the general methods of controlling electrical power?
996	Semiconductor devices equivalent to thyratrons are generally called ___
997	The purpose of installing thyrectors across the incoming power lines to the speed control system is to ___
998	A semiconductor, electronic switch that has the highest single-device current rating ___
999	An electronic switch that has the highest single-device current capacity and can withstand overloads better ___
1000	Thyratrons in industrial electronics refers to ___
1001	A saturable reactor with regenerative feedback ___
1002	A reactive device used in controlling electrical power by using two windings on a common iron core ___
1003	What are the primary methods of controlling electrical power?
1004	One type of circuit control device which may be manual, automatic or multi-contact ___
1005	A meter when ___ damped will become insensitive to small signals
1006	When the meter is insufficiently damped, it is considered as ___
1007	In meter movement, how do you prevent the meter from oscillation and overswing?
1008	A type of dip meter employing a vacuum tube oscillator, whose indicating dc microammeter is in the grid circuit ___
1009	A tunable RF instrument, which, by means of a sharp dip of an indicating meter, indicates resonance with an external circuit under test ___
1010	A type of photometer used to measure reflection ___
1011	In RF or microwave system, what instrument is used to measure the incidental and reflected signals ___
1012	When do you need a noise generator?
1013	A device or instrument able to generate noise with accurate voltage for test purposes ___
1014	What are the two most popular RF oscillators ___
1015	The two most common audio oscillators are ___
1016	A device or instrument, which delivers signals of pre3cise frequency and amplitude, usually over a wide range ___
1017	Generally, oscilloscope uses what type of deflection?
1018	What do call an oscilloscope that uses sampling technique in processing signals having frequencies beyond its normal capabilities?
1019	Types of oscilloscopes that are able retain the display for a longer period for analysis ___
1020	An instrument that is capable of displaying waveforms by means of fluorescence in a CRT ___
1021	An electronic measuring device that provide instantaneous visual indication of voltage excursions ___
1022	Indications of spectrum analyzer is presented by means of ___
1023	Spectrum analyzer is ___
1024	An instrument capable of displaying simultaneously the amplitude of signals having different frequencies ___
1025	What is an electronic instrument capable of showing on screen and maybe on print, relative spacing of transmitter carriers, their sidebands and harmonics?
1026	Comparison between dc and ac measuring instruments ___
1027	A bridge wherein all legs are electrically identical ___
1028	Bridge used to measure both inductive and capacitive impedances at higher frequencies ___
1029	A simplified version of the Wheatstone bridge wherein, two of the ratio arms are replaced by a 100 cm long Manganin of uniform cross-sections and provided with a slider ___
1030	When the capacitors of a Wein bridge are replaced by inductors, the bridge becomes ___
1031	What do you call of that frequency-sensitive bridge in which two adjacent arms are resistances and the other two arms are RC combinations?
1032	A type of four-arm capacitance bridge in which the unknown capacitance is compared with a standard capacitance ___
1033	This is a special bridge for measuring very low resistance (0.1Ω or less) ___
1034	Refers to an ac bridge for measuring the inductance and Q of an inductor in terms of resistance, frequency and a standard capacitance ___
1035	This refers to a four-arm ac bridge used for measuring inductance against a standard capacitance ___
1036	This is the method of using a Wheatstone bridge to determine the distance from the test point to a fault in a telephone or telegraph line or cable ___
1037	A four-arm bridge. Al arms of which are predominantly resistive; used for measuring resistance ___
1038	What is this instrument or circuit that has four or more arms, by means of which one or more of the electrical constants of an unknown component may be measured?
1039	What do you call of that instrument used for measuring reactive power in vars?
1040	What is that instrument used for measuring the strength and direction of magnetic fields?
1041	It’s an electrostatic voltmeter in which an assembly of figure   – 8   – shaped metal plates rotates between the plates of a stationary assembly when a voltage is applied between the assemblies ___
1042	#VALUE!
1043	A meter for its operation, it depends on a movable iron vane which aligns itself in the resultant field of a permanent magnet and an adjacent current carrying coil ___
1044	#VALUE!
1045	What is the meter that depends for its operation on the forces of attraction and repulsion between electrically charged bodies?
1046	Where can we use the dynamometer?
1047	In a moving coil ammeter, a ___ is connected in series with the soil to compensate for temperature variations ___
1048	Shunts in meters should have a ___ temperature coefficient of resistance
1049	A Kelvin electrostatic voltmeter uses what method of damping?
1050	Material that is mostly used as a pointer in indicating instruments ___
1051	What is(are) the force(s) acting on the pointer of an indicating instrument when it is in motion?
1052	The force(s) that is(are) acting on the pointer of an indicating instrument as it rest on its final deflected position ___
1053	In indicating instruments, what will happen to the controlling torque if the deflection becomes greater?
1054	Induction type instruments are mostly used as ___
1055	What damping method is used in induction type ammeters?
1056	Controlling torque in PMMC ___
1057	Basically, a PMMC instrument can be used only in ___
1058	Which electrical instruments below is the most sensitive?
1059	To increase the measuring capability of a moving-iron ac ammeter, a ___ should be used
1060	Moving iron instrument have a scale function that is ___
1061	The scale of a hot wire instrument is a/an ___ function
1062	The zero-adjust control in an analog type ohmmeter is used to ___
1063	What is the purpose of the rheostat in ohmmeter?
1064	An ammeter has a full-scale deflection current of 100mA ___
1065	In order to make an accurate measurement as possible, the internal resistance of a voltmeter must be ___
1066	If a meter with a full-scale current of 100μA is used as an ac voltmeter with half-wave rectification, its ac sensitivity is ___
1067	A meter has a full-scale current of 50μA, what is its sensitivity?
1068	Voltage measurement in a high impedance circuit requires a voltmeter with ___
1069	For the greatest accuracy, what should be the input impedance of a VOM beFor the greatest accuracy, what should be the input impedance of a VOM be?
1070	To prevent damage of the multirange ammeter during selection, a/an ___ should be used
1071	Which of the ammeter below that has no insertion error?
1072	A device that is used to measure current without opening the circuit ___
1073	Increasing the value of the series resistor of a voltmeter, its voltage measuring capability ___
1074	Decreasing the value of the shunt resistor of an ammeter, its current measuring capability ___
1075	Error in ohmmeter reading is due to ___
1076	Which type of meter requires its own power source?
1077	Error in ammeter reading id due to ___
1078	Error in voltmeter reading is due to ___
1079	For a dynamometer to be able to measure high current, a should be used ___
1080	Which dynamometer instrument has a uniform scale?
1081	What damping method is generally used in dynamometers?
1082	Dynamometers are mostly used as ___
1083	An indicating instrument whose movable coils rotate between two stationary coils, usually used as wattmeter ___
1084	A device used to mechanically measure the output power of a motor ___
1085	An electrodynamic meter used to measure power ___
1086	Resistance measuring instrument particularly used in determining the insulation resistance ___
1087	What is the normal indication on a megger (megohmmeter) when checking insulation?
1088	This instrument refers to that one, which measures the intensity of the radiation, received from any portion of the sky ___
1089	This instrument measures temperatures by electric means, especially temperatures beyond the range of mercury thermometers ___
1090	Measuring instrument that can be used only to measure voltages ___
1091	Measurement of high dc-voltages is usually done by using ___
1092	What ammeter is mostly used in measuring high-frequency currents?
1093	What is that device, which depends on the action of a movable permanent magnet, in aligning itself in the resultant field, produced either by a fixed permanent magnet and adjacent coil or ___
1094	An instrument which depends on current in one or more foxed-coils acting on one or more pieces of soft iron, at least one of which is movable ___
1095	A permanent-magnet moving-coil instrument ___
1096	What is the common type of meter movement?
1097	An instrument used to detect and measure the presence of electrical current is generally called ___
1098	What is the basic unit for measuring current flow?
1099	A device or mechanism used to determine the value of a quantity under observation ___
1100	The smallest change in a measured variable to which an instrument will respond ___
1101	An instrument or device having recognized permanent or stable value that is used as a reference ___
1102	What do you call the difference between any number within the set of numbers and the arithmetic mean of that set of numbers?
1103	Errors in analog meter reading due to your physical position with respect to the meter scale ___
1104	Errors introduced by the observer or user ___
1105	When an instrument is subjected to harsh environments such as high temperature, strong magnetic, electrostatic or electromagnetic field, it may have detrimental effects and cause errors known as ___
1106	Errors due to frictions of the meter movement, incorrect spring tension, improper calibration or faulty instruments ___
1107	The deviation of a reading from the expected value ___
1108	In measurements, the sum of a set of numbers divided by the total number of pieces of data in the given set is called ___
1109	Precision is also known as ___
1110	A measure of consistency or repeatability of measurements is called ___
1111	In measurement, what do you call the degree of exactness compared to the expected value of the variable being measured?
1112	A procedure or sequence of operations for determining whether a component or equipment is functioning or working normally ___
1113	The art or process of determining the existence or knowing the magnitude of something, directly or indirectly in terms of a recognized standard ___
1114	Active devices used in switching regulators may experience large over-currents during conduction (turn-on-state) and large over-voltages during turn-off ___
1115	In voltage regulators, the control element plays a major part in providing proper and efficient regulation ___
1116	In switching regulators, what are the semiconductor devices that can be used as controllable power switches?
1117	Which of the regulators dissipates less power and therefore generates less heat?
1118	Technique(s) in using low-power, low-voltage transistors in high voltage regulators ___
1119	A crowbar circuit is used ___
1120	What is the simplest way of protecting power supplies from reverse polarity/reverse- current flow?
1121	The three-terminal voltage regulators, such as the 78XX series has a typical current rating of 1.5 amperes ___
1122	Typical ripple rejection of most three-terminal voltage regulators ___
1123	In a three-terminal adjustable positive voltage regulator (317), what is the band-gap voltage between the output terminal and adjustment terminal?
1124	What three-terminal IC regulator that has a variable negative voltage output?
1125	A three-terminal variable positive voltage regulator ___
1126	What is the regulated output voltage of a 7924 regulator?
1127	Three-terminal fixed positive voltage regulators commonly used in industry ___
1128	A load draws 1 A current from a 10-V regulated power supply ___
1129	A 12 VDC power supply is regulated using 7805 IC and is used in TTL circuits that require a 0.2 amps current ___
1130	The most efficient voltage regulator and is therefore used in high-current high-voltage applications ___
1131	Most voltage regulators used ___ as their control element
1132	Sampling circuit used in most voltage regulators ___
1133	The element/device used as a comparator in most voltage regulators ___
1134	In voltage regulators, what do you call the element/device that controls the amount of current/voltage/power?
1135	Voltage reference element in most voltage regulators ___
1136	Which regulator is the most efficient?
1137	A voltage regulator connected in parallel with the load ___
1138	Ripple voltage in power supplies causes unwanted effects on the load it is supplying, i.e. a hum in audio amplifiers ___
1139	Which power supply filter gives the smallest ripple voltage?
1140	A 20-Vdc power supply was found to have a ripple voltage of 2 Vrms when supplying 1.5 amps load ___
1141	For a power supply with a peak-to-peak ripple voltage of 5 Vpp, determine its rms ripple ___
1142	In capacitor-filtered power supply, what will happen to the ripple voltage if the load is disconnected?
1143	Calculate the peak-to-peak ripple voltage of a 20 V full-wave power supply with a filter capacitor C = 220  µF when delivering a load current of 50 mA ___
1144	Find the ripple factor (kr) of a sinusoidal signal with peak ripple of 4 volts on an average of 30 ___
1145	Making the filter capacitor large in a power supply results to ___
1146	Factor(s) that can reduce the ripple voltage of a power supply ___
1147	To improve the dc output voltage of a power supply, a ___
1148	Ripple factor of a full-wave rectifier ___
1149	Determine the dc-voltage of a full-wave bridge rectifier when the input ac-voltage is 24 Vrms ___
1150	Relate the magnitude of the dc-output voltage to the ac input rms voltage of a full-wave rectifier ___
1151	Find direct current voltage from a full-wave rectifier with 120 V peak rectified voltage ___
1152	Common to both full-wave and full-wave bridge rectifiers ___
1153	Fullwave rectifier defers from fullwave bridge in what aspect?
1154	To double the capability of the half-wave rectifier, a ___ must be used
1155	Calculate the dc-voltage at the output of a half-wave rectifier with a 12Vrms input ___
1156	Percent ripple of a half-wave rectifier ___
1157	For a half-wave rectifier, the average output voltage is ___ of the maximum ac- voltage
1158	A rectifier that uses either the positive or negative portion only of the main ac-supply ___
1159	Most electronic devices/circuits require dc-voltage to operate ___
1160	One of the following items below is not one of the main components of an alternating current power supply ___
1161	Mutual inductance between two coils can be decreased by ___
1162	The ratio of the amount of magnetic flux linking a secondary coil compared to the flux generated by the primary coil ___
1163	The loss in a transformer due to the changing field is called ___
1164	Large transformers have approximately an efficiency of ___
1165	What is the purpose of laminating the core of a transformer?
1166	Practically how many percent is copper loss to the total loss in transformers?
1167	What is true about core-type transformers?
1168	In transformer windings, the more number of turns ___
1169	In transformers, the voltage per turn at the primary is the secondary ___
1170	The increase in temperature in a transformer is mainly due to ___
1171	Leakage flux in transformers will cause ___
1172	What will happen to the eddy current loss in transformers when the load is increased?
1173	___ currents are wasteful currents which flows in cores of transformers and produces heat
1174	What is the effect of air gaps at the transformer core?
1175	Considered as an ideal transformer ___
1176	In ___ transformers, when its primary is energized the secondary should never be open-circuited
1177	Generally, in what application you consider the use of core-type transformers?
1178	What do you think will happen to a transformer when its primary is connected to a DC supply?
1179	In a single-phase transformer, the core flux is ___
1180	How are the primary and secondary coupled in autotransformers?
1181	What will happen if a power transformer is to be operated at a very high frequency?
1182	At very low frequencies, transformers woks poorly because ___
1183	In transformers, the amount of copper used in the primary is ___
1184	What are the two parameters in transformers that are the same in both primary and secondary?
1185	In constructing transformers, the primary and secondary windings should have ___
1186	For transformers, maximum efficiency happens when ___
1187	For transformers, zero efficiency happens when it has ___
1188	Cooling system for transformers with ratings less than 5kVA ___
1189	When the transformer secondary winding is short-circuited, its primary inductance will ___
1190	Short-circuit test with transformers is always done on what winding?
1191	Open-circuit test with transformers is always done on what winding?
1192	With transformer, what is measured when performing open-circuit test?
1193	Transformer is considered by many as an efficient device due to the fact that ___
1194	A transformer consist of the following ___
1195	In electronic converters, what signal is mostly used to trigger the active device?
1196	A converter that changes ac-voltage frequency from one to another ___
1197	What converter must be used if one wished to change dc-voltage into ac-voltage?
1198	A converter that changes ac-voltage to another ac-voltage level ___
1199	Conversion from dc-voltage to another dc-voltage requires a ___
1200	A circuit that converts ac-voltage to dc-voltage ___
1201	In motor speed control, what is responsible for SCR firing?
1202	How do you reverse the rotation of a dc shunt motor?
1203	In controlling motor speed, the SCRs controls the ___
1204	Which thyristor is commonly used is motor speed control?
1205	DC shunt motor speed can be controlled electronically by using a ___ in series with the armature winding
1206	Motors are used to convert electrical energy to mechanical energy ___
1207	Why does in dc motor, brushes are positioned such that they will be with the direction of the rotation?
1208	When armature current is increased in a dc motor, its armature reaction will ___
1209	In dc motors, the speed will ___
1210	Why do motors take large current during starting?
1211	When an armature opens in dc motor, it may cause ___
1212	Which motor that produces the highest increase in torque considering the same increase in current?
1213	When a motor is overloaded, it will usually ___
1214	Motor vibrations are usually caused by ___
1215	Dirt on the commutator may produce ___
1216	In dc motors, power loss is contributed greatly by ___
1217	Factor(s) that affect friction and winding loses in dc motors ___
1218	In motors of the same rating, which has the least starting torque?
1219	In applications where sudden heavy loads happen for short duration, a motor is the best choice ___
1220	In applications where a high torque is needed during starting a ___ motor is preferred
1221	In applications where an almost constant speed is required, a motor is a good choice ___
1222	One advantage of a cumulatively compounded motor is that it does not run widely at light loads, this feature is due to ___
1223	Factor(s) that affect iron losses in a dc motor ___
1224	A motor whose speed increases as the load is increased ___
1225	What will happen to a dc series motor when its load is removed?
1226	What will happen to the dc shunt motor if the load torque greatly increases?
1227	In choosing a motor for a particular application, what characteristic you should consider?
1228	The running speed of a dc series motor is greatly affected by what factor?
1229	What is the most common method used in varying the speed of a dc motor?
1230	Considered as a variable speed motor ___
1231	For heavy-duty dc motor, how does the effect of armature reaction be corrected?
1232	One causes why the shaft torque is less than the developed armature torque of a dc motor ___
1233	The torque of a dc motor is ___
1234	When can we get a maximum mechanical power from a dc motor?
1235	When a dc motor has no load, what will happen to the back emf?
1236	Motors whose speed can be easily controlled ___
1237	Which dc motors whose speed is greatly affected by a change in load?
1238	To minimize arcing during starting of dc motors, a resistance should be added to limit the current in the ___
1239	In dc motors, the emf developed which opposes to the supplied voltage ___
1240	In dc motors, when does severe arcing happens?
1241	Dc motor that has the most stable speed ___
1242	Among the dc motors, which produces the highest torque?
1243	In ac motors, generally ___
1244	Generally in dc motors ___
1245	Synchronous type of ac-motor, ___
1246	Electrical machines that convert electrical energy to mechanical energy ___
1247	In electrical power distributions, what insulator is generally used?
1248	In electrical power Generating/distribution Company, which do you think is their highest expenses?
1249	The lines which carry the energy from the transformer to a customer’s services are called ___
1250	In electrical power distribution, what do you call the first distribution line from the main generating station?
1251	How alternators rated?
1252	What do you mean by break power transfer?
1253	In changing power from one generator to another, what do you call the operational sequence wherein the incoming generator is connected first before removing the existing generator?
1254	Description used for generators trying to self-adjust its parameters before paralleling with on line generators ___
1255	In paralleling ac generators, ___ is very important
1256	What term applies to the use of two or more generators to supply a common load?
1257	For what reason, why carbon brushes are widely used dc machines?
1258	Is usually used to drive high-speed alternators ___
1259	Usually used to drive low-speed alternators ___
1260	Calculate the voltage regulation of a generator having a no-load voltage of 220 V and a full load voltage of 180 V ___
1261	What is the voltage regulation when the full load voltage is the same as no-load voltage assuming a perfect voltage source?
1262	What should be the speed of a 6-pole ac generator in order to have a frequency of 50Hz?
1263	If an ac generator is to be driven from prime mover having variable speed, such as aircraft engine, a must be used ___
1264	With alternators connected in parallel, the voltage of the system can be changed by ___
1265	With alternators connected in parallel, the frequency of the system can be changed by ___
1266	What is the purpose of laminating the field poles and armature of a dc machine?
1267	Which winding in a dc-compound generator that is relatively made of fine wires?
1268	In a compound generator, which field winding usually, has a lower resistance?
1269	What is true about field poles in electric machines?
1270	A dc generator whose excitation is produced by a winding connected to its own positive and negative terminals ___
1271	Generally in ac generators ___
1272	In electrical machines, what type of voltage is generated at the armature winding?
1273	Generally, in dc generators ___
1274	In dc generator, what converts the alternating emf to DC?
1275	In electrical machines, what do you call the set of conductors wound on laminated cores of good magnetic permeability?
1276	Two essential parts in rotating generators ___
1277	Generation of voltage in a generator can only happen when?
1278	It consist of a single coil rotated in a magnetic field and produces an A.C. voltage ___
1279	Electrical machine that changes ac voltage at one frequency to another ac voltage at another frequency ___
1280	Electrical machine that converts ac voltage to dc voltage, or vice versa ___
1281	Electrical machines that convert mechanical energy to electrical energy ___
1282	Electrical machines refer to machines that convert ___
1283	The source of mechanical power to turn the rotors of alternators, large and small, A.C. and D.C ___
1284	Electricity that is generated due to heat, as in thermocouple ___
1285	A junction between two conductors that exhibits electrical characteristics under condition of changing temperature ___
1286	Substance used in photovoltaic cells ___
1287	A cell whose voltage is generated as a function of light ___
1288	Substance, which generates a voltage when exposed to light ___
1289	Output of automotive battery with six lead-acid cells in series ___
1290	The flat 9-V battery, has how many cells in series?
1291	Output of six carbon-zinc cells connected in series ___
1292	Silver-cadmium cell has a nominal open-circuit voltage of ___
1293	Find the output of a four (4) lead acid cells ___
1294	A primary cell with carbon and zinc as its positive and negative electrodes respectively, and an electrolyte of either a gel or paste ___
1295	A battery is rated 20 A-hr and is delivering a current of 2A ___
1296	How long will a battery need to operate a 240 Watts equipment, whose capacity is 100Ah and 24 volts rating?
1297	In batteries, the material used to insulate the positive plates from negative plates are technically called ___
1298	The maximum current a cell can deliver through a 0.01 ohm load during testing ___
1299	In a dry cell, what will happen to the internal resistance as it aged?
1300	A battery is used to ___
1301	A battery means ___
1302	A voltage source in a single container made from one or more cells combines in series, parallel, or series-parallel ___
1303	A cell whose chemical reaction is not reversible ___
1304	What type of cell that cannot be recharged which cannot restore chemical reaction?
1305	If a cell can be charged after it is depleted, it is considered as ___
1306	A secondary cell whose active positive plate consists of nickel hydroxide, and active negative-plate material is powdered iron oxide mixed with cadmium ___
1307	A device that is capable of converting chemical energy into electrical energy ___
1308	A device that transforms chemical energy into electrical energy ___
1309	Considered as a free-running multivibrator ___
1310	Flip-flop is actually a ___ multivibrator
1311	Is also known as Eccles/Jordan circuit ___
1312	A multivibrator having two stable state ___
1313	What determines the pulse time in a monostable multivibrator?
1314	Monostable multivibrator is also known as ___
1315	A multivibrator that generates one output pulse for each input trigger pulse ___
1316	A circuit usually containing two transistors or tubes in an RC-coupled amplifier, the two active devices switch each other alternately on and off ___
1317	A self-excited oscillator in which the tank is divided into input and feedback portions by an inductive voltage divider or a tapped coil ___
1318	A self-excited oscillator in which the tank is divided into input and feedback portions by a capacitive voltage divider ___
1319	A microwave oscillator ___
1320	Type of oscillator whose frequency is dependent on the charge and discharge of RC networks ___
1321	What determines the resonant frequency of a crystal?
1322	What do you call the oscillator circuit that uses a tapped coli in the tuned circuit?
1323	Circuits that produces alternating or pulsating current or voltage ___
1324	Which of the following is not an essential part of an oscillator?
1325	Which condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate?
1326	Example(s) of surface-mounted technology (SMT) devices ___
1327	For high density ICs involving many op-amps, what packaging is suitable?
1328	Dual-in-line or DIL package is designated as ___
1329	The most popular op-amp packages are the metal can, 8-pin DIP, and the SMT ___
1330	What op-amp parameter(s) that can be governed by the bias control in a programmable op-amp?
1331	Op-amps whose internal transistor biasing can be controlled externally are categorize as ___
1332	The magnitude of the op-amps input offset voltage before it can be classified as a low- input offset voltage op-amp ___
1333	Generally, where does hybrid op-amps found its application?
1334	Op-amps designed to operate at high slew rate, about 2000 V/ µsec and at high frequencies, more than 50 MHz ___
1335	What do we mean by a general-purpose op-amps?
1336	Typical value of the external frequency-compensating capacitor of op-amps ___
1337	What is true about the external frequency-compensation capacitor?
1338	What do we mean by externally compensated op-amps?
1339	Op-amps with internal frequency compensation are very stable with respect to signal frequencies ___
1340	Approximate the noise gain of an inverting adder using op-amps if it has five inputs ___
1341	In most ac-amplifiers using op-amps, the feedback resistor is shunted with a very small capacitance, what is its purpose?
1342	Which of the following of the resistor combinations that provides lesser noise in op- amp circuits?
1343	The random voltage at the output of an op-amp which could occupy the entire bandwidth ___
1344	A unity-gain summing amplifier has three inputs, ___
1345	What is the noise gain of op-amps?
1346	The gain of an inverting amplifier is determined by the ratio of the feedback and input resistors (Rf/Ri), meaning we can select any value of resistors as long as its ratio is the same ___
1347	Calculate the closed-loop voltage gain of an inverting amplifier having a feedback and an input resistance of 100 kΩ and 10 kΩ, respectively ___
1348	The voltage gain of an op-amp voltage follower ___
1349	An active integrator uses an op-amp, what is its feedback element?
1350	The feedback element of a differentiator constructed from op-amp is ___
1351	An op-amp zero-crossing detector without hysteresis, ___
1352	What gain is significant when an op-amp is used as a voltage comparator?
1353	Two comparators using op-amps, configured such that it can detect voltage levels within a certain range of values rather than simply comparing whether a voltage is above or below a certain reference ___
1354	When an op-amp is used as a comparator, the output voltage would be +VSAT if ___
1355	What must be the slew rate of an op-amp to be used in order to provide an undistorted output voltage of .10 V ac a frequency of 100,000 rad/sec?
1356	What is the maximum signal frequency that can be used in an op-amp having a specified slew rate of 0.5 V/ µsec?
1357	Factor(s) or parameter(s) that determine(s) the op-amps maximum operating temperature ___
1358	The maximum output voltage rate of change of an op-amp ___
1359	Rise time is defined as the time required for the output voltage to rise from ___ to ___ of its final value
1360	An op-amp has a specified transient response rise time of 0.3  µs, calculate its unity- gain bandwidth ___
1361	Calculate the cutoff frequency (fc)of an op-amp having a unity-gain bandwidth product ___
1362	The low and high cutoff frequencies of an amplifier is also called ___
1363	Frequency at which the voltage gain of op-amp reduces to unity ___
1364	A reduction of op-amp’s voltage gain by a factor of two each time the frequency doubles ___
1365	What do we mean by a 20 dB/decade roll-off?
1366	The reduction of op-amps gain due to increasing operating frequency ___
1367	What will happen to the voltage gain of op-amp when its operating frequency is increased?
1368	The frequency at which the open-loop gain of an op-amp is 0.707 times its value at very low frequency ___
1369	What do we mean by internally compensated op-amps?
1370	If an op-amp is used to amplify small ac-signals, what parameter you should greatly consider to ensure better performance?
1371	For ac-amplifiers using op-amps what parameters can affect its performance ___
1372	In large signal dc-amplifiers using op-amp, which parameter has the least effect on its performance?
1373	Op-amp parameter(s) that is important in large signal dc-amplification ___
1374	Which op-amp parameter(s) that normally affects its small signal dc-amplification performance?
1375	What cause(s) the well-adjusted output offset voltage of op-amps to change?
1376	What is the most effective way of minimizing the output offset voltage of an op-amp?
1377	An op-amp is wired as an inverting amplifier with an input and feedback resistances of 1 kΩ and 100 kΩ, respectively ___
1378	How can we minimize the effect of the input offset current and input offset voltage at the output offset voltage?
1379	What is the effect of the input offset voltage to the output voltage if the op-amp has no feedback element?
1380	The battery representing the input offset voltage in op-amp circuit analysis is connected where?
1381	In op-amp analysis, the input offset voltage is represented by ___
1382	The approximate value of the bias-current compensating resistor in op-amp circuits is ___
1383	What is a bias-current compensating resistor in op-amp circuits?
1384	How will you minimize the output offset voltage due to the input offset current of an op- amp?
1385	The output offset voltage of an op-amp is due to the input offset current and voltage
1386	An op-amp inverting amplifier uses a feedback resistor of 100 kΩ and input resistor of 10 kΩ ___
1387	Calculate the output offset voltage of an inverting amplifier using op-amp with an input offset current of 10 nA ___
1388	The output offset voltage of an op-amp is (are) due to ___
1389	Ideally, the output voltage of an op-amp is zero when there is no input signal, however, in practical circuits, a small output voltage appears, this voltage is known as ___
1390	It is known through experiment that the input bias currents at the non-inverting (IB+) and inverting (IB-) inputs of a certain op-amp is 100 nA and 80 nA, respectively ___
1391	As electronic circuit operates, its operating temperature changes which causes device parameters to change ___
1392	The reason why a slight difference between the input bias current occurs in op-amps is due to the unsymmetrical circuit component parameters ___
1393	The change in input offset current due to temperature change ___
1394	Ideal op-amp requires no input current, but real op-amp needs a very small input current called input bias current ___
1395	The current needed at the input of an op-amp to operate it normally ___
1396	The  µA741 op-amp has a CMRR of 90dB and a differential-mode voltage amplification of 200,000.What is the op-amp’s common-mode voltage gain?
1397	What is the maximum output voltage swing of an op-amp?
1398	The non-inverting and inverting inputs of an op-amp have an input voltage of 1.5 mV and 1.0 mV, respectively ___
1399	Calculate the CMRR of an op-amp having a common-mode gain of 10 and a differential- mode gain of 100,000 ___
1400	An operational amplifier has a common-mode voltage gain of 10 and a differential-mode voltage gain of 20,000, calculate its common-mode rejection ratio (CMRR) ___
1401	The ratio of the differential gain and common gain of an op-amp ___
1402	In op-amps, which gain is the highest?
1403	If op-amps are operated in differential mode, its gain is technically termed as ___
1404	When one input of the op-amp is connected to ground and the other is to the signal source, its operation is called ___
1405	What do you call of the gain of an op-amp if operated in common mode input?
1406	The operating mode of an op-amp, when both inputs are tied together or when the input signal is common to both inputs ___
1407	When the same signal is applied to both inverting and non-inverting input terminals of an ideal op-amp, the output voltage would be ___
1408	Op-amps have two input terminals namely, the inverting (-) and non-inverting (+) inputs ___
1409	Primarily, op-amps are operated with bipolar power supply, however, we can also use single polarity power supply by ___
1410	What is the purpose of a level shifter in op-amps?
1411	The stage followed by the output complementary in op-amps functional block diagram ___
1412	Why do most op-amps use a common collector at the output stage?
1413	The transistor configuration used at the output complementary stage of most op-amps ___
1414	What type of amplifier commonly used at the output stage of op-amps?
1415	How does the input of an op-amp made high?
1416	A good op-amp has a ___
1417	In op-amps functional block diagram, what follows the differential amplifier?
1418	An amplifier whose output is proportional to the difference between the voltages applied to its two inputs ___
1419	The circuit at the input stage of operational amplifiers ___
1420	An operational amplifier must have at least how many usable terminals?
1421	What are the possible applications of operational amplifiers (op-amps)?
1422	It is a very high-gain differential amplifier with very high input impedance and very low output impedance ___
1423	One of the most versatile and widely used electronic device in linear applications ___
1424	An amplifier having high direct-current stability and high immunity to oscillation, this is initially used to perform analog-computer functions such as summing and integrating ___
1425	An amplifier basically constructed from two transistors and whose output is proportional to the difference between the voltages applied to its two inputs ___
1426	Transistor arrangement that operates like a darlington but uses a combination of pnp and npn transistors instead of both npn ___
1427	What is the approximate threshold voltage between the base-emitter junction of a silicon darlington transistor?
1428	What are the transistor configurations used in a cascade amplifier?
1429	Famous transistor amplifier configuration designed to eliminate the so called Miller effect ___
1430	A two-stage transistor amplifier in which the output collector of the first stage provides input to the emitter of the second stage ___
1431	A direct-coupled two-stage transistor configuration wherein the output of the firs transistor is directly coupled and amplified by the second transistor ___
1432	A multistage transistor amplifier arranged in a conventional series manner, the output of one stage is forward-coupled to the next stage ___
1433	Which of the following refers to the gain of a circuit?
1434	An amplifier has the following percent harmonic distortions ___
1435	Calculate the 2nd harmonic distortion for an output signal having a fundamental amplitude of 3V and a 2nd harmonic amplitude of 0.3V ___
1436	A nonlinear distortion in which the output consists of undesired harmonic frequencies of the input signal ___
1437	Distortion that is due to the inability of an amplifier to amplify equally well all the frequencies present at the input signal ___
1438	A type of distortion wherein the output signal does not have the desired linear relation to the input ___
1439	Basically, which class of amplifiers has the least distortion?
1440	Amplifiers conversion efficiency are calculated using what formula?
1441	A push-pull amplifier that uses either npn or pnp as its final stage ___
1442	A push-pull amplifier that uses npn and pnp transistors to amplify the positive and negative cycles respectively ___
1443	Two class B amplifiers connected such that one amplifies the positive cycle and the other amplifies the remaining negative cycle ___
1444	What do you call an amplifier that is biased to class C but modulates over the same portion of the curve as if it were biased to class B?
1445	Which amplifiers can be used for linear amplification?
1446	Which of the amplifiers given below that is considered as non-linear?
1447	The Q-point of a class D amplifier can be set or positioned at what region in the load line?
1448	Where does the Q-point of a class C amplifier positioned?
1449	The Q-point for class A amplifier is at the active region, while for class B it is at cutoff region, how about for class AB?
1450	For a class B amplifier, the operating point or Q-point is set at ___
1451	In most transistor class A amplifiers, the quiescent point is set at ___
1452	In order to have the best efficiency and stability, where at the loadline should a solid state power amplifier be operated?
1453	Among the given amplifiers below, which is the most efficient?
1454	An amplifier of class AB means its output signal is between the output of class B and A, such that it varies from 180° (class B) to 360° (class A) ___
1455	For pulse-amplification, class D amplifier is mostly used ___
1456	Transistorized class C power amplifiers will usually have an efficiency of ___
1457	Class B amplifiers deliver an output signal of 180° and have a maximum efficiency of ___
1458	A class A amplifier has an efficiency of only 25%, but this can be increased if the output is coupled with a transformer ___
1459	What is the efficiency of a series-fed class A amplifier?
1460	Which class of amplifiers that has the highest efficiency?
1461	How do you classify an amplifier used to amplify either amplitude modulated (AM) or frequency modulated (FM) signals?
1462	Which class of amplifiers that is intended for pulse operation?
1463	A full 360° sine-wave signal is applied as an input to an unknown class of amplifier, if the output delivers only a pulse of less than 180°, of what class does this amplifier belongs?
1464	What is the distinguishing feature of a class C amplifier?
1465	A class of amplifiers wherein the output signal swings more than 180° but less than 360° ___
1466	An amplifier that delivers an output signal of 180° only ___
1467	If a transistor amplifier provides a 360° output signal, it is classified as ___
1468	Class A amplifier can be built from what transistor configuration?
1469	What do you call an amplifier which has an output current flowing during the whole input current cycle?
1470	In semiconductor application, which of the following statement is not true?
1471	A junction field effect transistor has a drain saturation current of 10 mA and a pinch-off voltage of -4 V ___
1472	A monolithic semiconductor-amplifying device in which a high-impedance GATE electrode controls the flow of current carriers through a thin bar of semiconductor called the CHANNEL ___
1473	In general, which of the transistors is particularly more useful in integrated-circuit (IC) chips?
1474	Advantage or advantages of V-MOS over BJT ___
1475	A type of FET wherein the channel is formed in the vertical direction rather than horizontal ___
1476	Which FET has a wide and short effective channel?
1477	Which FET operates as close as BJT in terms of switching?
1478	JFET cutoff frequency is dependent on channel length by a factor of ___
1479	One drawback of JFET devices is the strong dependence of the devices’ parameters on the channel geometry ___
1480	Calculate the transconductance of a p-channel MOSFET enhancement type if the gate- source voltage ___
1481	What is the difference between a JFET and a MOSFET?
1482	Which FET that has a substrate?
1483	The base material of a MOSFET which extends as an additional terminal ___
1484	To deplete a channel from a p-channel IGFET depletion type, the gate voltage should be ___ with respect to the source
1485	In an n-channel enhancement type MOSFET, the gate voltage should be ___ with respect to the source in order to produce or enhance a channel
1486	The substrate of a MOSFET is usually connected internally to ___
1487	To switch off the depletion type MOSFET, the channel should be depleted. Depletion of the channel is done by applying enough voltage across the gate-source terminal ___
1488	The amount of voltage needed at the gate-source terminal for an enhancement type MOSFET so that a channel can be formed for the current to flow ___
1489	What type of MOSFET whose channel is originally thick but narrows as the proper gate bias is applied?
1490	A type of MOSFET wherein originally there is no channel between the drain and the source ___
1491	In MOSFET, it is the foundation upon which the device will be constructed and is formed from a silicon base ___
1492	A field-effect transistor in which the gate electrode is not a pn junction (as in the junction field-effect transistor) but a thin metal film insulated from the semiconductor channel by a thin oxide film ___
1493	Base from Shockley’s equation of a JFET, what is the drain current when the applied voltage ___
1494	An n-channel JFET has a drain-source saturation current ___
1495	What is the insulator used in most MOS-FET?
1496	In order to increase further the input resistance of a FET, its gate is insulated ___
1497	Which type of FET has the lowest input resistance?
1498	A FET in which the gate electrode consists of a pn junction ___
1499	An early version of the field effect transistor in which limited control of current carriers near the surface of a semiconductor bar or film was obtained by an external electric field applied transversely ___
1500	The graph of the drain current ___
1501	The current that flows into the channel of a JFET when the gate-source voltage is zero ___
1502	The voltage across the gate-source terminal of a FET that causes drain current ID equal to zero ___
1503	For a normal operation of an n-channel JFET, how do you bias the gate-source junction?
1504	What will happen to the channel of a JFET as current flows to it?
1505	What do you call the area in a JFET where current passes as it flows from source (S) to drain (D) ___
1506	A BJT is a current-controlled current-source device while JFET is a device ___
1507	One obvious advantage of a JFET over BJT is its ___
1508	Junction field effect transistor or JFET has three terminals, which corresponds to the E- B-C of the BJT?
1509	Considered as the basic FET or the simplest form of FET ___
1510	The operation of BJT involves both the flow of electrons and holes and is therefore, considered as a bipolar device ___
1511	Field-effect transistors (FETs) offer high input impedance than BJT ___
1512	Another difference between a BJT and a FET with regards to its normal biasing ___
1513	What is the primary difference between the BJT and the FET?
1514	The base of a transistor serves a purpose to what element of the FET?
1515	The graph of the product of collector-emitter voltage VCE and collector current IC in the transistor output characteristic curve ___
1516	Which of the following transistor characteristic curves that is most useful?
1517	Common-collector has the lowest power gain and a voltage gain of approximately one ___
1518	Common-base configuration has a high voltage gain and a current gain of ___
1519	In most transistor input equivalent circuit it comprises of a resistor and a ___
1520	The input impedance of a common-base configuration is hib, and its magnitude is approximately equal to ___
1521	Hybrid parameter that is usually neglected in circuit analysis ___
1522	For a common-emitter transistor configuration, the hybrid parameter hfe stands for forward transfer current ratio ___
1523	Which transistor configuration hybrid parameters, that is usually specified by the manufacturers?
1524	Calculate the common-emitter amplification factor β of a transistor with a common-base amplification factor α=0.99 ___
1525	Most frequently used transistor configuration for pnp and npn ___
1526	A transistor is said to be configured as common emitter if the emitter terminal is ___
1527	One of the following amplifier characteristic refers to that of a common-base (C-B) as compared to common-emitter (C-E) and common-collector (C-C) amplifiers ___
1528	Which transistor configuration has the highest input resistance?
1529	When base is common to both the input and output sides of the configuration and is usually the terminal closes to, or at ground potential, it is called what?
1530	The current gain of a transistor decreases as the operating frequency increases ___
1531	If the current-gain-bandwidth product of transistor is 250 MHz and is operated at 100 MHz, what is the effective current gain of the transistor?
1532	The maximum voltage that can be applied across the collector-emitter terminal for a given transistor is specified as ___
1533	ICBO of an ideal transistor ___
1534	The most correct technical term of the reverse leakage current that flows between the collector and base junctions when the emitter is open circuited ___
1535	A transistor with β = 100 is connected as common base, was found to have a leakage current ___
1536	The leakage current that flows at the collector-base junction when the emitter is open ___
1537	Collector-emitter resistance of ideal transistor at cut-off ___
1538	When the transistor is saturated, VCE is approximately ___
1539	Solve for the base current if collector current is 600 mA and the current gain is 20 ___
1540	What best describes the transistor current that flows between the collector and emitter terminals when the base is open?
1541	Which indicates the degree of change, in operating-point due to temperature variation in the dc biasing?
1542	The transistor terminal that handles most current ___
1543	In dc biasing, it means quiet, still, inactive ___
1544	What region the transistor should be operating to have minimum distortion at the output signal?
1545	Under what region does the transistor operate if both the base-emitter and base- collector junctions are reverse-biased?
1546	If the base-emitter junction is reverse biased and the base-collector junction is forward biased, the transistor will be at what region of operation?
1547	In saturation region, the collector-base and base-emitter junctions of a transistor are ___
1548	At cutoff region, the collector-base and base-emitter junctions of a transistor are ___
1549	It is necessary, in order to establish the proper region of operation for ac amplification ___
1550	In the active region, the collector-base junction is ___, while the base-emitter junction is ___
1551	Among the three characteristics of a transistor amplifier, which region is normally employed for linear (undistorted) amplifiers?
1552	For an  “on” transistor, the voltage VBE should be in the neighborhood of ___
1553	It is applied to any system where levels have reached their maximum values ___
1554	On a voltage-current condition curve, the point belong to which a further increase in voltage produces no (or very little) further increase in current ___
1555	Transistors of heavy duty construction ___
1556	At base-emitter junction, if the positive (+) lead is connected to the base and the negative (-) lead to the emitter, a high resistance reading would indicate ___
1557	At base-emitter junction, using an ohmmeter, if the positive (+) lead is connected to the base and the negative (-) lead to the emitter, a low resistance reading would indicate ___
1558	With an ohmmeter, a large or small resistance in either junction of an npn or pnp transistor indicates ___
1559	The information that can be found in most specification sheets?
1560	It is referred to as the communication link between the manufacturer and user ___
1561	The ___ id defined as that area below
1562	It is a particularly important parameter that provides a direct link between current levels of the input and output circuits for a common-emitter configuration ___
1563	The formal name of ___
1564	For practical transistor devices, the level of β typically ranges ___
1565	In the dc mode, the levels of IC and IB are related by a quantity called ___
1566	In the dc mode, the levels of IC and IE due to the majority carriers are related by the quantity ___
1567	Is temperature sensitive, and can severely affect the stability of the system, when not carefully examined during design ___
1568	For general-purpose transistors, IC is measured in ___ , while ICO is measured in ___
1569	The minority-current component of a transistor is called ___
1570	At forward-biased junction of pnp transistor, majority carriers flow heavily ___
1571	What device, that employs only electron or hole?
1572	The term ___ reflects the fact that holes and electrons participate in the injection process into the oppositely polarized material
1573	The ratio of the doping level of the outer layers to that of the sandwiched material ___
1574	The ratio of the total width of the outer layers to that of the center layer ___
1575	For a transistor, the outer layers are ___
1576	The predecessor of the junction transistor, and is characterized by a current amplification factor, alpha of greater than one ___
1577	A two-junction transistor whose construction takes the form of a pnp or a npn ___
1578	A transistor in which one or both electrodes are created by diffusion ___
1579	In a semiconductor device, a p-n junction formed by alloying a suitable material such as indium with the semiconductor ___
1580	A transistor whose junctions are created by alloying ___
1581	A transistor in which the base is diffused and the emitter is alloyed ___
1582	The region or area in a transistor that is heavily doped ___
1583	Which of the three regions/areas in a transistor that is the smallest in construction?
1584	Transistor replaces the old vacuum tubes because it has several obvious advantages, what are they?
1585	An active semiconductor device, capable of amplification, oscillation, and switching action ___
1586	A three terminal, three layer semiconductor device that has the ability to multiply charge carriers ___
1587	The flow of electron in a NPN transistor when used in electronic circuit is from ___
1588	An over-voltage protection circuit employing a zener diode and an SCR whose function is to produce high overload by-pass current on a circuit ___
1589	What is a bridge rectifier having diodes in two arms and resistors in the other two?
1590	Logic circuitry in which a diode is the logic element and a transistor acts as an inverting amplifier ___
1591	A simple voltage-regulator whose output is the constant voltage drop developed across a zener diode conducting in the reverse breakdown region ___
1592	A light emitting diode (LED) is to be used in a circuit with a supply voltage of 5 V ___
1593	A chopper, employing an alternately biased diodes as the switching element ___
1594	A combination of several diodes in a single housing ___
1595	In a diode-capacitor voltage quadrupler, what is the voltage across the third stage capacitor?
1596	An improvement of a diode-capacitor half-wave voltage doubler is the full-wave doubler, this circuit uses how many capacitors?
1597	How many capacitors are used in a diode-capacitor half- wave voltage doubler?
1598	Which of the given circuit below must have a capacitor?
1599	Half-wave rectifier is a good example of ___
1600	A network with a diode and a capacitor that is used to shift the dc-level of the input signal ___
1601	What do you call a clipper circuit wherein the diode is shunted with the load?
1602	A clipper circuit wherein the diode is connected in series with the load ___
1603	Diode circuit that is used to cut a portion of the input signal ___
1604	What is the output voltage across a load resistor if it is paralleled with a forward biased silicon diode?
1605	A silicon diode is in parallel with a germanium diode and is connected to a load resistor having a value of 20 kΩ and a forward supply voltage of 10 V ___
1606	Two germanium diodes are connected in series and have a load resistance of 10 kΩ and a forward supply voltage of 5 V ___
1607	What is the drop across the diode when it is connected in series to a resistor of 1.8 kΩ and a supply voltage of 50 V ___
1608	A germanium diode is connected to a load resistance of 1.5 kΩ and is supplied with 12- V such that the diode will be forward biased ___
1609	Quiescent or Q-point position is dependent on ___
1610	What will happen to the magnitude of the load-line slope when the load resistance is decreased?
1611	Diode is said to be operating at a point where the characteristic curve and the load line intersect ___
1612	The line that is plotted in the diode characteristic curve which represents the load ___
1613	A curve showing the relationship between the voltage and the current of the diode at any given temperature ___
1614	The impedance presented by a junction operating in its zener breakdown region ___
1615	The appearance of RF current oscillations in a dc-biased slab of n-type gallium arsenide in a 3.3 kV electric field ___
1616	#VALUE!
1617	Is the combination of the inductance of the leads and electrodes, capacitance of the junction, and the resistance of the junction of a semiconductor diode ___
1618	A device containing more than one diode ___
1619	A type of Read diode that uses a heavily doped n-type material as its drift region ___
1620	A diode that is especially processed so that its high-current flow takes place when the junction is reverse-biased ___
1621	A four layer semiconductor diode whose characteristic at the first quadrant is similar to that of a silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR) ___
1622	When the p-n junction of a semiconductor diode is inserted with an intrinsic material, the diode becomes a ___
1623	What semiconductor diode that have a fine wire (called a cat-whisker) whose point is in permanent contact with the surface of a wafer of semiconductor material such as silicon, germanium or gallium arsenide?
1624	A diode whose negative resistance is dependent on the classical effects of phase shift introduced by the time lag between maximum field and maximum avalanche current, and by the transit time through the device ___
1625	Another name of a three-layer diode ___
1626	One of the electronic semiconductor devices known as diac, function as ___
1627	Diode whose negative resistance depends on a specific form of quantum-mechanical bond structure of the material ___
1628	A rectifying metal-semiconductor junction ___
1629	A negative resistance diode commonly used in microwave oscillators and detectors, it is sometimes used as amplifiers ___
1630	#VALUE!
1631	Refers to a special type of diode which is capable of both amplification and oscillation ___
1632	A semiconductor device especially fabricated to utilize the avalanche or zener breakdown region ___
1633	A certain diode has a maximum power dissipation of 500 mW at room temperature and a linear power derating factor of 5.0 mW/°C ___
1634	Diode parameter that will inform the user as to what factor does the power handling capability of the diode is reduced as the operating temperature is increased ___
1635	What will happen to the power handling capability of the diode if it is to be operated at a higher temperature?
1636	What is the most important specification for semiconductor diode?
1637	The maximum power the diode can handle ___
1638	The time taken by the diode to operate in the reverse condition from forward conduction ___
1639	The capacitance of a varactor will ___ when the forward bias voltage is increased
1640	A diode that is especially designed to operate as a voltage-variable capacitor ___
1641	What capacitance is significant when the diode is forward biased?
1642	In a semiconductor diode, the total capacitance, that is the capacitance between terminals and electrodes, and the internal voltage variable capacitance of the junction is called ___
1643	When a diode is reverse biased the depletion region widens, since it is in between positively charge holes and negatively charge electrons, it will have an effect of a capacitor, this capacitance is called what?
1644	What phenomenon in electronics does an avalanche breakdown primarily dependent?
1645	The primary use of Zener diode in electronic circuits ___
1646	At forward bias condition, what will happen to the diode resistance when the applied voltage is increased?
1647	When a diode is used in large ac voltages, the resistance that is to be considered is ___
1648	The resistance of the diode that is significant when operating with a small ac signal ___
1649	What do you call the resistance of the diode when operating at a steady state voltage?
1650	In every increase of 10°C in the operating temperature of a diode will cause its reverse saturation current to ___
1651	A silicon diode has a reverse saturation current of 50 nA at room temperature ___
1652	Calculate the new threshold voltage of a germanium diode when it operates at ___
1653	For a silicon diode, calculate the current at room temperature if the forward voltage VF = 0.3 V and the reverse saturation current IS = 100 nA ___
1654	Normally, diodes will not conduct when reverse-biased, but if the reverse voltage is increased further, a point will be reached where the diode gives up and allowing the current to surge ___
1655	The small value of direct current that flows when a semiconductor device has reverse bias ___
1656	As the operating temperature of a reverse-biased diode is increased, its leakage or reverse saturation current will ___
1657	The forward current in a conducting diode will ___ as the operating temperature increases
1658	What will happen to the threshold voltage of the diode when it operates at higher temperatures ___
1659	The minimum voltage required before a diode can totally conduct in a forward direction ___
1660	#VALUE!
1661	What do you call the very small amount of current that will flow in the diode when it is reverse biased?
1662	A junction diode is said to be forward-biased if ___
1663	Depletion region is an area in a semiconductor device where there are no charge carriers exist ___
1664	The area in the semiconductor diode where there are no charge carriers ___
1665	Cathode in a semiconductor junction diode is referred to the ___
1666	The p-type material in a semiconductor junction diode is technically termed as ___
1667	#VALUE!
1668	A device containing an anode and a cathode or a pn junction of a semiconductor as the principal elements and provides unidirectional conduction ___
1669	An external voltage applied to a junction reduces its barrier and aid current to flow through the junction ___
1670	The device that is formed when an n-type and p-type semiconductors are brought together ___
1671	What is formed when n-type and p-type semiconductors are brought together?
1672	Solar cell is a semiconductor electric-junction device, which absorbs the radiant energy of sunlight and converts it directly and efficiently into electrical energy ___
1673	In semiconductor materials, electrons have a higher value of mobility than holes, but which semiconductor material has the slowest electron-mobility?
1674	The ease with which a charge carrier (electron or hole) moves in a semiconductor material is known as mobility ___
1675	Which of the following semiconductors has the smallest energy gap?
1676	Before an electron can participate in the conduction of electricity, it must leave from the valence band and transfer to the conduction band ___
1677	How to have a better high-frequency response in designing semiconductor devices?
1678	In the design of high power semiconductor devices, it involves what factors?
1679	Typical range of power dissipation for a semiconductor to be considered as  “low power” or  “small signal” ___
1680	For an electroluminescent of green and red lights, which semiconductor is best?
1681	A semiconducting glass is known as ___
1682	Among the given semiconductors below, which has the highest mobility?
1683	What semiconductor that is good for high-temperature applications?
1684	Which semiconductor is mostly used to detect near infrared?
1685	When an electron at the conduction band falls back to the valence band it will recombine with the hole ___
1686	A silicon material has an intrinsic concentration ___
1687	The semiconductor that is used in xerography ___
1688	What is the basis in operation of semiconductor photoconductors?
1689	At room temperature, in a perfect silicon crystal, the equilibrium concentration of thermally generated electrons in the conduction band is about ___
1690	Is defined as the energy acquired by an electron moving through a potential of one volt ___
1691	The restriction of certain discrete energy levels in a semiconductor material can be predicted generally by using what model?
1692	How much impurity concentration is needed for a sample of silicon to change its electrical property from a poor conductor to a good conductor?
1693	For high-speed integrated circuit, which semiconductor material given below is best to be used?
1694	What semiconductor that is mostly used in devices requiring the emission or absorption of lights?
1695	Compound semiconductors are also known as ___
1696	Semiconductor that is very rare, it only occurs in minute quantities in many metal sulfides ___
1697	A semiconductor that is classified as a metalloid or semimetal ___
1698	Among the given elements, which is considered as nonmetal?
1699	The potential required to removed a valence electron ___
1700	The electrical resistance of a semiconductor material will ___ as the temperature increases
1701	In a semiconductor material, what will happen to the number of free electrons when the temperature rises?
1702	In energy band diagram of a doped semiconductor, the donor level ___
1703	Theoretically, where does the conduction of holes occur in a doped semiconductor?
1704	Conduction of electrons in a doped semiconductor happens at ___
1705	Typically, how much energy is required for a valence electron to move to the conduction band for a doped semiconductor?
1706	The movement of charge carriers in a semiconductor even without the application of electric potential ___
1707	Current flow in a semiconductor that is due to the applied electric field ___
1708	Silicon is widely used over germanium due to its several advantages, what do you think is its most significant advantage?
1709	Semiconductor whose electron and hole concentrations are equal ___
1710	The most extensively used semiconductor ___
1711	The resistance of a semiconductor is known as ___
1712	What do you call a semiconductor that is doped with both donor and acceptor impurities?
1713	Donor-doped semiconductor becomes a ___
1714	Example of trivalent impurities ___
1715	Commonly used as donor impurities ___
1716	If the substance used in doping has less than four valence electrons, it is known as ___
1717	Example of acceptor impurities ___
1718	Impurities with five valence electrons ___
1719	The process of adding impurities in a semiconductor material ___
1720	A semiconductor that is free from impurities ___
1721	Chemical bond that is significant in metals ___
1722	Typical range of the resistivity of a semiconductor ___
1723	The electron flow in a semiconductor material is ___
1724	At absolute zero temperature, semiconductor acts as ___
1725	In materials, what do you call the area that separates the valence band and the conduction band?
1726	What is the total charge at the nucleus of silicon atom?
1727	The atomic weight of a silicon atom is approximately 28 amu ___
1728	The chemical bond that is present in a crystal lattice of silicon atoms ___
1729	Germanium has an atomic number of 32 and an atomic weight of approximately 72 amu ___
1730	Which of the following is an example of a compound semiconductor?
1731	Elements that has four valence electrons are classified as ___
1732	The name of pure semiconductor material that has an equal number of electrons and holes ___
1733	Absolutely, when can we say that the circuit is at resonance?
1734	A parallel LC network with L = 100 mH and C = 25μF will resonate at what frequency?
1735	___ is a parallel LC circuit
1736	If an ac-series circuit is supplied with a source whose frequency is less than that of fr, the circuit becomes ___
1737	If the line frequency of a parallel ac-circuit is less than the resonant frequency, the circuit behaves as ___
1738	In a series ac-circuit, if the line frequency is more than the resonant frequency, the circuit behaves as ___
1739	What will happen to a parallel ac-circuit if its line frequency is more than the resonant frequency?
1740	A parallel circuit at resonance would mean, the circuit is ___
1741	Find the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit, which has a resonant frequency of 3.6 MHz and a Q of 218 ___
1742	What is the cause of a minimum Q on a single-tuned LC circuit?
1743	Characteristics of the current in a series R-L-C circuit at resonance ___
1744	A series circuit at resonance would mean, the circuit is ___
1745	What is the resonant frequency of a circuit when L of 25 microhenry and C of 10 picofarad are in parallel?
1746	What is the resonant frequency of a circuit when L of 3 microhenry and C of 40 picofarad are in series?
1747	If you need an LC circuit to be resonant at 2500 Hz and use a 150 mH coil, what should the capacitance value be?
1748	What is the resonant frequency of a circuit when L is 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads are in parallel?
1749	The circuit admittance Y = 0.2-j0.6, the circuit is ___
1750	If a circuit has an admittance of Y = 0.2 + j0.6, the circuit is ___
1751	What is the power factor of a circuit if the inductive susceptance and conductance have the same value?
1752	A parallel RL circuit with R = 60Ω, and ___
1753	What is the significance of connecting loads in parallel?
1754	What is the total impedance of a series circuit consisting of ___
1755	A network has a true power and a reactive power of 2400 W and 3200 W respectively ___
1756	A series RC circuit has an apparent power of 4000 W ___
1757	The apparent power of a series RC network is given to be 4000 W ___
1758	If the supply voltage is 200 V, what is the apparent power of the circuit?
1759	A series RL network is supplied with a 200-volt, 60-cycle source ___
1760	What will happen when the power factor of a circuit is increased?
1761	The power factor (pf) of a series LC circuit is ___
1762	How many electrical degrees a current will lead the voltage in a series RC load with R = 100 Ω and XC = 50 Ω?
1763	A 220-volt, 60-Hz source is driving a series RL circuit ___
1764	Ignoring any inductive effects, what is the impedance of RC series capacitor made up of a 56 kilo ohms resistor and a 0.33 μF capacitor at a signal frequency of 450 Hz?
1765	A series circuit consists of an 80 mH inductor and a 150μF capacitor ___
1766	The reactance of a 25 mH coil at 500 Hz is which of the following?
1767	A resistive and a capacitive load of equal magnitude is connected in series, determine the phase difference between the voltage and the current ___
1768	If the current and voltage in an ac-circuit has a phase difference, it would mean the load is ___
1769	In a purely inductive circuit the current ___
1770	If the current in an ac-circuit leads the voltage by 90°, the circuit is ___
1771	In an ac-circuit, if the voltage and current are in phase, the circuit is ___
1772	In AC circuit, resistors will dissipate what power?
1773	The power dissipated across the resistance in an AC circuit ___
1774	What do you mean by root-mean-squared (rms) value?
1775	Determine the effective voltage of v = 100sin120πt ___
1776	What is the average voltage of an alternating voltage, v = 100sin120πt?
1777	When comparing rms voltages and average voltages, which of the following statement is true, assuming sine waves?
1778	At what angle does an alternating voltage of cosine-waveform reaches its negative peak?
1779	What is the frequency of an alternating current, if it reaches 90° within 4.167 ms?
1780	If an alternating voltage has a magnitude of 10 V at 30°, what is its maximum voltage?
1781	An alternating voltage of sine-wave form has a maximum voltage of 311V ___
1782	The time taken by an alternating voltage, v = 100sin240πt to reach 50V for the first time ___
1783	Calculate the period of an alternating current having an equation of I = 20sin120πt ___
1784	When can an ac-voltage, v = 120sin120πt reach its first peak?
1785	An ac-voltage has an equation v = 240 sin120πt, its frequency is ___
1786	Advantage(s) of ac over dc ___
1787	Most ac-supplies are in the form of ___
1788	The description of two sine waves that are in step with each other going through their maximum and minimum points at the same time and in the same direction ___
1789	56. Three resistors, R1 = 60 Ω, R2 = 80 Ω and R3 = 100 are connected in delta. If the network is to be transformed into star, what would be the value of the resistor opposite of R2?
1790	Theorem used in simplifying circuit analysis by considering the effect of supply voltages one at a time ___
1791	Three 100Ω resistors are connected in a tee-form (T) network and is set up between a 100 V supply and a load resistor RL ___
1792	Nodal analysis is best used together with ___
1793	Mesh analysis is best used together with what circuit law?
1794	The return point in a circuit, where all voltage measurements are referred ___
1795	A common connection between circuit elements or conductors from different branches ___
1796	In a network, what do we call a reference point chosen such that more branches in a circuit met ___
1797	A set of circuit elements that forms a closed path in a network over which signal can circulate ___
1798	A chosen closed path of current flow in a network ___
1799	RN and IN of a Norton’s equivalent circuit are known to be 100Ω and 10A, respectively ___
1800	A certain Thevenin equivalent circuit has parameters ___
1801	Considered as the reverse of Thevenin’s theorem ___
1802	Theorem used to simplify complex circuits wherein, the simplified circuit contains an equivalent open circuit resistance and open circuit voltage ___
1803	The sum of all currents entering a junction is equal to the sum of currents leaving away from that junction ___
1804	In a mesh, the algebraic sum of all voltages and voltage drops is equal to zero ___
1805	What theorem we should use in solving electrical circuits with several voltage sources?
1806	Loop currents should be assumed to flow in which direction?
1807	How many nodes are needed to completely analyze a circuit according to kirchhoff’s current law?
1808	The power in a circuit consisting of two equal resistors in series is known to be 10 watts ___
1809	The power dissipated by a 10 Ω load resistor with a current rating of 5 amperes is ___ if supplied with a 20 volt dc potential
1810	An electrical device has a resistance of 10Ω and is supplied with a 5 ampere constant current source ___
1811	Find the current that flows through the filament of a 400 watts flat iron connected to a 220 Volt power line ___
1812	If 12 V are applied to a circuit that consumes 78 W, what is the current flow through the circuit?
1813	Calculate the voltage drop across ___
1814	A 6A current source drives a load consisting a parallel combination of ___
1815	30. Two resistors, R1=100Ω and R2=200Ω are connected in parallel ___
1816	Two resistors, R1=100Ω and R2=200Ω are connected in series, if the voltage across R2 is 20V, what is the voltage across R1?
1817	How many 1kΩ resistors to be connected in parallel are needed in order to get 100Ω?
1818	A shunt resistor is used to limit the load current to 0.5 A, if the load resistance is 100Ω and the original current is 1amp, what should be the value of the shunt resistance?
1819	Two resistors, 10Ω and 100Ω are connected in parallel, approximately, aht is the total resistance?
1820	A 50Ω resistor is connected in series with a 150C resistor and to a supply voltage of 20V ___
1821	An electronic device draws 300 watts from its 24-volt power source ___
1822	What utilizes electrical energy in electrical circuits?
1823	In electrical circuits, current is known as the flow of charged carriers, such as electrons ___
1824	With the same voltage applied, which of the following allows more current?
1825	A coil of wire wound, with or without a magnetic core designed to have a higher self- inductance than a straight wire ___
1826	Which of the following characterizes inductance?
1827	A 20 μF capacitor is charged by a 12-V battery. What is the stored energy at the capacitor?
1828	If two micro-farad capacitors are connected in series, what will be the total effective capacitance?
1829	Five picofarad is equivalent to ___
1830	A parallel plate capacitor has the following values: k=81; d=0.025 inches; A=6 square inches ___
1831	Which of the following describes the action of a capacitor?
1832	An electronic/electrical component/device used to store electrical energy ___
1833	Factors that determine the capacitance of a capacitor ___
1834	What factors determine the capacitance of a capacitor?
1835	____ is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field?
1836	Insulating elements or materials has a capability of ___
1837	If you need a 1.25 kΩ resistance and you only have resistors of 5 kΩ, how many of these available resistors you should connect in parallel to get a 1.25 kΩ value?
1838	A 33 kilo ohms resistor is connected in series with a parallel combination made up of a 56 kilo ohm resistor and a 7.8 kilo ohm resistor ___
1839	When resistors are connected in series, what happens?
1840	Smaller resistors usually have ___ resistance value
1841	Resistors with high value usually have lower wattage ratings because of ___
1842	Determine the value of a resistor with colors from left to right; Brown, Green, Gold, and Silver ___
1843	What is the value of a resistor with colors from left: Orange, Blue, Gold, and Silver?
1844	The total resistance of a two similar wire conductors connected in parallel is ___
1845	The natural magnet refers to ___
1846	___ is called the magnetic field
1847	The concept whereby a small voltage is generated by a conductor with current in an external magnetic field is known as ___
1848	The effect that describes the ability of a mechanically stressed ferromagnetic wire to recognize rapid switching of magnetization when subjected to a DC magnetic field ___
1849	The magnitude of electromotive force (emf) that is induced when a conductor cuts magnetic flux is directly proportional to its rate ___
1850	Electromotive force (emf) is induced whenever a conductor cuts magnetic flux ___
1851	In electromagnetism, what law that determines the amount of induced voltage?
1852	In electromagnetism, what law that determines the polarity of an induced voltage?
1853	In all cases of electromagnetic induction, the current set-up by an induced voltage tends to create flux whose direction opposes any change in the existing flux ___
1854	Which of the given below can produce the most induced voltage?
1855	The circuit element that is used represent the energy stored in a magnetic field ___
1856	If a magnetic flux occurs across 100 turns at a rate of 2 Wb/sec ___
1857	When current in a conductor increases, Lenz’ law states that the self-induced potential will ___
1858	What is meant by back EMF?
1859	The term of energy that is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field ___
1860	When a conductor is moved through a magnetic field a voltage is always induced ___
1861	If the magnetic flux through a coil changes, the induced EMF acts in such a direction as to ___
1862	If two coils are close enough together for their magnetic fields to interact, a change in current in one will induce a corresponding voltage in the other, This condition is known as ___
1863	The emf induced in a coil due to the change of its flux linked with it is called ___
1864	The physical motion resulting from the forces of magnetic fields ___
1865	What is the law whereby the force of attraction or repulsion between poles is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them?
1866	What law that describes the force of attraction or repulsion between two magnetic poles is directly proportional to their strengths?
1867	Is used to maintain strength of magnetic field ___
1868	Reversing the flow of current in a circuit ___
1869	If the electrical current carried by each of the two long parallel wire is doubled, and their separation is also doubled, the force between them ___
1870	In what direction is the magnetic field about a conductor when current is flowing?
1871	The magnetic flux around a straight, current carrying wire, is stronger ___
1872	Electromagnet whose core is in the form of a close magnetic ring ___
1873	An advantage of an electromagnet over a permanent magnet ___
1874	If a wire coil has 100 turns and carries 1.3 A of current, calculate the magnetomotive force in Gilbert ___
1875	The amount of magnetic field needed to remove residual magnetism from a transformer core during each half cycle is called the ___
1876	What do you call the loss of electrical energy in counter balancing the residual magnetism in each cycle?
1877	Is the quantity of magnetizing force needed to counter balance the residual magnetism of a magnetic material ___
1878	In a magnetic circuit, a flux that drifts away from its intended path is called ___
1879	What is residual magnetism ?When you demagnetize property by applying an AC field and then gradually reduced it to zero, it is called ___
1880	Determine the ampere-turns when a 10 V battery is connected across a solenoid having 100 turns and a resistance of 5 Ω ___
1881	The current needed for a coil of 200 turns to provide a 400 ampere turn magnetizing force is ___
1882	One Ampere-turn is equivalent to ___
1883	One Gilbert is equal to ___
1884	The cgs unit of magnetomotive force ___
1885	Magnetomotive force has a unit of ___
1886	It is the specific reluctance of a material ___
1887	The unit of reluctance ___
1888	The Oersted (Oe) is the same as ___
1889	It is easier to establish flux line in soft iron than it is to establish them in air, this is because iron has a lower ___
1890	Magnetic circuit property that permits flux ___
1891	Is the reciprocal of reluctance and implies the readiness of a material to develop magnetic flux ___
1892	The reciprocal of reluctance ___
1893	The property of a material which opposes the creation of magnetic flux ___
1894	Resistance in electrical circuits is analogous to ___ in magnetic circuits
1895	Electrical current is analogous to ___ in magnetic circuits
1896	Voltage in electrical circuits is analogous to in magnetic circuits ___
1897	What do you call the force that sets up or tends to set up magnetic flux in a magnetic circuit?
1898	The unit of flux density in mks ___
1899	A magnetic flux of 500,000,000 lines is equivalent to ___
1900	The equivalent of ___
1901	One Weber is equivalent to ___
1902	What is the unit of flux in cgs?
1903	Magnetic intensity is ___
1904	The unit of permittivity ___
1905	Unit of permeability ___
1906	A force of 20 N is acting on a 10 Wb magnetic pole, calculate the intensity of the magnetic field?
1907	If the distance between two magnetic poles is halve, the force between them ___
1908	The force between two magnetic poles is ___ permeability of the medium
1909	The typical saturation flux density for most magnetic materials ___
1910	The capacity of a substance to become magnetized ___
1911	What does a gaussmeter measure?
1912	Calculate the flux density in Gauss (G) having a flux of 12,000 Mx through a perpendicular area of 6cm ___
1913	A magnetic flux of 25,000 maxwell in an area of 5 sqcm. results in flux density of ___
1914	The unit of magnetic flux density in SI ___
1915	Magnetic lines of force are called ___
1916	The entire group of magnetic field lines flowing outward from the north pole of a magnet ___
1917	The direction of field lines outside a magnet is ___
1918	The number of lines per unit area in a plane perpendicular to the magnetic lines of force ___
1919	What do you call the total number of magnetic lines of force in a magnetic field?
1920	The imaginary lines representing the magnetic field ___
1921	The space outside a magnet where its poles has a force of attraction or repulsion on another magnetic pole ___
1922	Cores of magnetic equipment use magnetic material which has ___
1923	Nonmetallic materials that has ferromagnetic properties ___
1924	Permeability of a material means ___
1925	What is the relative permeability of paramagnetic substance?
1926	What do you call materials, which possess very high permeabilities?
1927	Materials with permeability slightly greater than that of free space ___
1928	Materials with permeability slightly less than that of free space ___
1929	What is the relative permeability of air?
1930	The ratio of material permeability to the permeability of air or vacuum ___
1931	The permeability of free space ___
1932	The ability to concentrate magnetic lines of force ___
1933	Ability of a material to conduct magnetic flux through it refers to ___
1934	Materials that can be easily magnetized in both directions ___
1935	A substance having high retentivity is best suited in making ___
1936	Is the property of magnetic materials, which retain magnetism after the withdrawal of magnetizing force ___
1937	What do you call the quantity of magnetism retained by a magnetic material after the withdrawal of a magnetizing force?
1938	A force which causes a substance to become a magnet ___
1939	The phenomenon in which a substance becomes a magnet when placed near a magnet ___
1940	In a magnet, the straight line passing through the two poles is called ___
1941	What do you call a pole that when place in air with a similar and equal pole will cause a force of ___
1942	Is believed to be the pole where the magnetic lines of force are originating ___
1943	Which of the following refers to a characteristic of a magnetic line of force?
1944	In a magnet, what do you call the point in which the magnetic lines of force is maximum?
1945	Group of magnetically aligned atoms ___
1946	A natural magnet ___
1947	The condition in which a substance attracts pieces of iron is known as ___
1948	What do you call the phenomenon whereby substance attracts pieces of iron?
1949	A charged body in free space produces 10-V potential at a distance 25cn away. What will be the potential at 50cm away?
1950	A 2nC point charge will produce what potential at 2m away?
1951	Determine the magnitude of the electric field inside a sphere that encloses a net charge of 2μC ___
1952	Calculate the electric field intensity 10cm from a charge ___
1953	The measure of electric field strength per unit length is known as electric field intensity or simply electric intensity ___
1954	The value of k in Coulomb’s electrostatic force equation ___
1955	What will happen when two opposite charges get closer?
1956	Determine the force in Newton between 4μC charges separated by 0.1 meter in air ___
1957	In 1784, who demonstrated that the force between charges is inversely related to the square of the distance between them?
1958	The force between two electrically charged body is ___
1959	The force between the two electrically charged body is called ___
1960	The basic law for interaction of charged bodies at rest ___
1961	Charge body at rest is said to exhibit electric field, which interacts with other bodies ___
1962	Most materials’ relative permittivity lies between ___
1963	Relative permittivity is also known as ___
1964	How does permittivity affect electric field intensity?
1965	What is the term used to express the amount of electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field?
1966	Calculate the permittivity of a material with relative permittivity of 5 ___
1967	The relative permittivity of air ___
1968	The absolute permittivity of air or free space ___
1969	The ability of the material to store electrical potential energy under the influence of an electric field ___
1970	The measure of density of the electric charge ___
1971	An electric charge produces a total electric field of 6 Coulombs, calculate the electric flux density in an area of one square meter ___
1972	Three charges of +5 C, -6 C, and +7 C are inside a sphere, what is the total electric flux passing through the surface of the sphere?
1973	Electric flux density is a/an ___ quantity
1974	Electric flux is a/an ___ quantity
1975	Electric field intensity is ___
1976	Electric field intensity is measured in terms of ___
1977	Find the dielectric constant of air ___
1978	Electric lines of force leave and enter the charge surface at what angle?
1979	The number of lines per unit area in a plane perpendicular to the electric lines of force ___
1980	What do you call the total number of electric lines of force in an electric field?
1981	What is true in visualizing electric field lines of force from a charge body?
1982	The imaginary lines representing the electric field ___
1983	Refers to a force of field that exists between ions where they either repel or attract each other ___
1984	The space outside or surrounding an electric charge where it has a force of attraction or repulsion ___
1985	A combination of two charges, with equal charge magnitude but opposite signs ___
1986	Three charges of +5 C, -6 C and +7 C are placed inside a sphere, what is the total charge of the sphere?
1987	Test charge has a charge of ___
1988	Is usually used to detect the presence of electric charge ___
1989	What is the law whereby the force of attraction and repulsion between poles is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them?
1990	What law that describes the force of attraction or repulsion between two charges is directly proportional to their strengths and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them?
1991	One electron volt (eV) is equivalent to ___
1992	Electron volt (eV) is a unit of ___
1993	Find the charge in coulombs of dielectric that has a positive charge of ___
1994	The ability of a material to resist current flow is called ___
1995	Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF current than for DC?
1996	___ is one factor that does not affect resistance
1997	Where does practically all of the RF current flow in a conductor?
1998	The temperature coefficient of resistance of a certain wire is known to be 0.004/°C at zero degrees Celsius
1999	A wire has a resistance of 5Ω at room temperature and a ___
2000	What happens in the resistance of copper wire when its temperature is raised?
2001	The science of physical phenomena at very low temperature, approaching absolute zero is called ___
2002	___ the reciprocal of resistance
2003	A 100m long wire with a cross-sectional area ___
2004	The area of a conductor whose diameter is 0.001 inch is equal to ___
2005	The amount of resistance that a wire has with regards to the flow of electric current ___
2006	If a conductor’s cross-sectional area is doubled and its length is halved, the value of its resistance will ___
2007	The longer the wire the ___ is the resistance
2008	The greater the diameter of a wire, the ___ is the resistance
2009	If in a material, current can hardly pass, it means ___
2010	The bigger the diameter of a wire, ___
2011	One ampere is equal to how many electrons per second?
2012	When one coulomb of electric charge continuously passes a given point every second, the electric current is said to ___
2013	The unit Ampere is equivalent to ___
2014	The unit of current ___
2015	The rate at which electrons pass a given point in the circuit gives the magnitude of ___
2016	The net movement of charged particles in one direction or another ___
2017	What is the charge magnitude, Q of a body if it lacks 5 electrons?
2018	An isolated body under normal condition is always ___
2019	Statcoulomb is also known as ___
2020	Coulomb is the SI unit of charge, how about in cgs?
2021	One Coulomb of charge has how many electrons?
2022	Gases with charged particles ___
2023	The process in which atoms are changed into ions ___
2024	Is a process by which an atom is constantly losing and then regaining electrons?
2025	What do you call a negatively charged ion?
2026	What do you call a positively charged ion?
2027	A positive ion has ___
2028	A negative ion results when an atom ___
2029	An atom or group of atoms that carries a net electric charge is called ___
2030	A charged atom is also known as ___
2031	When the charge of an atom becomes unbalanced, the atom is said to carry ___
2032	Ideally, all atoms have the same number of positively charged protons and negatively charged electrons, and is therefore considered as ___
2033	Given an atomic structure of a certain material, what data can you determine out from it?
2034	States that each electron in an atom must have a different set of quantum numbers ___
2035	A solid, which has no defined crystal structure ___
2036	A structure for solids in which the position of atoms are predetermined ___
2037	Isotope means, the same element but with different number of ___
2038	When all atoms of a molecule are the same, the substance is called ___
2039	Dielectric is another name for ___
2040	Refers to the lowest voltage across any insulator that can cause current flow ___
2041	An electrical insulator can be made a conductor by ___
2042	When an atom gains an additional ___, it results to a negative ion ___
2043	Ion is ___
2044	Copper atom has how many protons?
2045	A factor that does not affect the resistance of the material ___
2046	What do you call the potential required to remove a valence electron?
2047	In materials, what do you call the region that separates the valence and conduction bands?
2048	The energy gap of an insulator is in the order of ___
2049	The energy gap between the valence band and conduction band of a conductor is in the order of ___
2050	___ has a unit of electronvolt(eV)
2051	From the combined energy-gap diagram, which material has the smallest energy gap between valence band and the conduction band?
2052	From the combined energy-gap diagram, which material has the widest gap between valence band and the conduction band?
2053	A material that contains an abundance of free carrier is called ___
2054	Determine which statement is true?
2055	A law of nature makes certain materials tend to form combinations that will make them stable ___
2056	Materials that might have eight valence electrons ___
2057	A good conductor has how many valence electrons?
2058	What elements possess four valence electrons?
2059	Which material has the least number of valence electrons?
2060	Which material has more free electrons?
2061	Electrons at the outermost shell are called ___
2062	Electrons at the conduction band are called ___
2063	It is composed of a series of energy levels containing the valence electrons ___
2064	Suppose there is an atom containing eight protons and eight neutrons in the nucleus, and two neutron are added to the nucleus, the resulting atomic weight is about ___
2065	If an element has an atomic number of 12, there are how many protons and electrons?
2066	The atomic weight of an element is determined by the number of ___
2067	The atomic number of an element is determined by the number of ___
2068	In an atomic structure, what particle that has no charge and therefore has no effect on its atomic charge ___
2069	Electron is derived from the Greek name elektron which means ___
2070	Maximum number of orbiting electrons at the first or K shell ___
2071	The discrete amount of energy required to move an electron from a lower shell to a higher shell ___
2072	The maximum number of electrons (Ne) that can occupy a given shell (n) is determined by the formula ___
2073	Approximately, how many electrons that could equal to the mass of a single proton or neutron?
2074	The mass of a proton is approximately ___
2075	What is the charge of an electron?
2076	In electricity, positive electric charge refers to ___
2077	What particles that revolve around the positive nucleus?
2078	The nucleus of an atom is normally ___
2079	Is at the center of an atomic structure in a Bohr model ___
2080	A commonly used model in predicting the atomic structure of a material ___
2081	Approximate diameter of a Hydrogen atom ___
2082	Known as the simplest type of atom ___
2083	The lightest kind of atom or element ___
2084	To determine whether a material can support the flow of electricity or not, we need to examine its ___
2085	What composes all matter whether a liquid, solid, or gas?
2086	___ Of the following, which color of the fifth band on a resistor indicates the LEAST chance of failure?
2087	What are the allowable limits of ohmic value in a resistor color coded blue, green, yellow, gold?
2088	A carbon resistor is color-coded orange, orange, orange. What is the resistance value of this resistor?
2089	What is the total number of connections on a rheostat and (b) a potentiometer?
2090	Which of the following types of resistors will overcome the disadvantages of a carbon resistor?
2091	Carbon resistors have which of the following disadvantages?
2092	How is the ability of a resistor to dissipate heat indicated?
2093	Resistance bears which, if any, of the following relationships to conductance?
2094	Which of the following units is NOT a unit of conductance?
2095	A material whose resistance remains constant as the temperature increases has what temperature coefficient?
2096	A material whose resistance decreases as the temperature increases has what temperature coefficient?
2097	Resistance of a conductor will increase with which of the following changes to the cross-sectional area and length of the conductor?
2098	What material is MOST widely used as a conductor in electrical equipment?
2099	If low weight is the major factor, which of the following materials should be used as a conductor?
2100	What symbol is used to represent the ohm?
2101	Which of the following values is equal to 100mA?
2102	If the voltage in a circuit increases, what happens to the current?
2103	When directed drift takes place, at what speed does the effect take place?
2104	Current in an electric circuit is caused by which of the following actions?
2105	In addition to friction, magnetism, and chemical action, which of the following methods can be used to produce a voltage?
2106	What is the general term that describes a device which supplies a voltage?
2107	250 µV is equal to which of the following terms?
2108	Which of the following terms is equal to “2.1 kV ?”
2109	Which of the following term(s) apply(ies) to the difference of potential between two bodies?
2110	A book sitting on a shelf has what kind of energy?
2111	An object that is in motion has what type of energy?
2112	What is the term applied to the ability to do work?
2113	Bar magnets should be stored in which of the following manners?
2114	A magnetic shield or screen used to protect a delicate instrument should be made of which of the following materials?
2115	Which of the following is NOT a property of magnetic lines of force?
2116	If a glass plate is placed over a magnet and iron filings are sprinkled over the glass, a pattern will be visible. What does this pattern indicate?
2117	According to the domain theory, if an atom with 26 electrons has 20 electrons spinning counterclock-wise, the atom is considered to be charged ___
2118	Weber’s theory of magnetism assumes that magnetic material is composed of ___
2119	The north indicating pole of a compass needle is attracted to which of the following poles of the earth?
2120	The law of magnetic poles states which of the following relationships?
2121	The ability of a material to retain magnetism is called ___
2122	A material with low reluctance and high permeability such as iron or soft steel is used to make what type of magnet?
2123	Ferromagnetic materials have which of the following qualities?
2124	Magnetic materials have which of the following qualities?
2125	Which of the following devices use magnetism?
2126	Electrostatic lines of force are drawn in which of the following manners?
2127	What is/are the term(s) applied to the space between and around charged bodies in which their influence is felt?
2128	How do “like” and “unlike” charges react to one another?
2129	An atom that contains 6 protons and 5 electrons has what electrical charge?
2130	Which of following actions describes the easiest way to accumulate a static electric charge?
2131	A substance with an excess of electrons is considered to be in what electrical state?
2132	What is the main difference between conductors, semiconductors, and insulators?
2133	When an atom gains or loses an electron, which of the following terms applies?
2134	The number of electrons in the outermost shell of an atom determines which of the following characteristics of the atom?
2135	The electron will return to the condition it had before being acted upon by the light ___
2136	If light energy collides with an orbiting electron, what happens to the electron?
2137	When light is represented as a tiny packet of energy, what are these packets of energy called?
2138	What subatomic particle has no charge?
2139	What subatomic particle has a positive charge and a large mass?
2140	What subatomic particle has a negative charge and a small mass?
2141	An atom is the smallest possible particle that retains the characteristic of which of the following substances?
2142	A molecule is the smallest possible particle that retains the characteristic of which of the following substances?
2143	A substance that CANNOT be reduced to a simpler substance by chemical means is called a/an ___
2144	Matter can be found in which of the following forms?
2145	Which of the following is a universally mounted gyro?
2146	According to the right-hand rule for gyro precession, what does the thumb indicate?
2147	Which of the following factors determine(s) the direction a gyro will precess in response to a particular force?
2148	Which of the following factors determine(s) the amount of precession that will result from a given applied force?
2149	The forces that act through the center of gravity of a gyro and do NOT cause precession are referred to by what term?
2150	Of the following factors, which one does NOT affect rigidity?
2151	For a gyro to be universally mounted, it MUST have a total of how many gimbals, if any?
2152	What action takes place when an outside force attempts to tilt the spin axis of a gyro?
2153	A gyro will resist all forces that attempt to change its ___
2154	The ability of a gyro to maintain a fixed position in space is referred to by what term?
2155	Which of the following objects has gyroscopic properties?
2156	In a servo system that uses a modulator, what characteristic of the modulator output determines the direction of load movement?
2157	What is the function of a modulator in a servo system?
2158	A dc rate generator is used in which of the following loops of a velocity servo system?
2159	Which of the following devices are magnetic error detectors?
2160	A servo system is found to be “noisy” ___
2161	Under what condition would a servo system that is properly designed and operating correctly have an oscillating load?
2162	Error-rate damping is considered to be better than friction or friction- clutch damping because of which of the following characteristics of the error-rate damping system?
2163	When friction-clutch damping is used in a servo system, the first overshoot of the load may be characterized as ___
2164	For a servo system to operate smoothly and efficiently, it must have balance between which of the following factors?
2165	What device is usually used to provide feedback in a velocity servo loop?
2166	A velocity servo has which of the following characteristics?
2167	A position servo system exhibits a series of overtravels ___
2168	The sum point in a position servo system combines what two signals to produce an error signal?
2169	Which of the following is a basic difference between an open-loop control system and a closed-loop control system?
2170	Which of the following systems are control systems?
2171	Servo systems can be found in which of the following forms?
2172	A servo is normally designed to move (a) what type of load to (b) what type of positions?
2173	When a synchro tester is used in place of a synchro transmitter, which of the following precautions will help to keep the tester from being overloaded?
2174	Which of the following rotor positions should give a zero voltage reading?
2175	An ac voltmeter is connected between windings S1 and S3 of a synchro transmitter ___
2176	A synchro system with four receivers is malfunctioning ___
2177	What type of indicating device is usually installed in the stator circuit of a torque synchro system?
2178	Which of the following troubles is common in newly installed synchro systems?
2179	If you find that a synchro has bad bearings, which of the following actions should you take?
2180	A synchro is zeroed by the use of a synchro tester ___
2181	The electrical-lock method of zeroing a synchro requires accessible leads and which of the following conditions?
2182	What method of zeroing a synchro is the fastest but NOT the most accurate?
2183	When a tri-speed synchro system is being zeroed, which synchro should be zeroed first?
2184	The output voltage of a control transformer on electrical zero is which of the following relative values?
2185	After a control transformer has been zeroed and clamped down, what is the final step in the zeroing procedure?
2186	When a 115-volt source is used during the alignment of a differential synchro, what is the maximum time the circuit can be energized without causing damage to the synchro?
2187	When a 115-volt synchro transmitter is set on its coarse-zero position, approximately what voltage should be read on a voltmeter?
2188	If a synchro receiver is properly zeroed, when do the stator windings have electrical zero voltages?
2189	During synchro alignment, what is the purpose of the coarse setting?
2190	What is the most accurate method of aligning a synchro?
2191	What is the reference point for the alignment of all synchro units?
2192	The voltage used to prevent false synchronizations is known by what term?
2193	Which of the following is a disadvantage of a double receiver as compared to two single receivers?
2194	Which of the following synchro systems, if any, should be used to transmit very large quantities?
2195	What does the gear ratio between the two transmitters in a dual-speed synchro system determine?
2196	Multispeed synchro systems have which of the following advantages over single- speed synchro systems?
2197	Synchro systems that transmit data at two different speeds are referred to by which of the following terms?
2198	To maintain system accuracy, where are synchro capacitors physically placed in a synchro circuit?
2199	In what configuration are synchro capacitors connected in a synchro circuit?
2200	What type of current is eliminated by synchro capacitors?
2201	Which of the following synchro devices uses a synchro capacitor?
2202	Synchro capacitors are used to provide which of the following characteristics in a synchro system?
2203	If the output of a control transformer is zero, what is the relationship of the rotors of the control transformer and the control transmitters?
2204	Which of the following terms applies to the output of a control transformer?
2205	If a control transformer is held at electrical zero and the control transmitter is turned 90 degrees counterclockwise, what is (a) the amplitude of the induced voltage in the rotor of the control transformer, and ___
2206	Which of the following is not a characteristic of the rotor of a control transformer (CT) rotor?
2207	The CX and CDX differ from the TX and TDX because the CX and CDX have which of the following characteristics?
2208	What are the three types of control synchros?
2209	Which of the following types of synchros is used in a system requiring large amounts of power and high accuracy?
2210	If a TDR system is connected for addition and the TX rotor connected to the TDR rotor turns counterclockwise, in what direction will the TDR rotor field rotate?
2211	If a TDX system with standard synchro connections has the TX rotor at the 60- degree position and the TDX rotor at the 270-degree position, what is the position of the TR rotor?
2212	In a TDX system, for the TR rotor to follow the TX rotor exactly, in what position must the TDX rotor be kept?
2213	What determines whether a differential synchro device adds or subtracts its inputs?
2214	What types of synchro devices have (a) one electrical and one mechanical input and an electrical output; and (b) two electrical inputs and a mechanical outputs ___
2215	What are the two types of synchro devices that will accept two inputs?
2216	What type of synchro can accept two signals simultaneously and add or subtract?
2217	What term applies to the angle through which a synchro transmitter rotor is rotated mechanically?
2218	When a s ynchro transmitter, and receiver are in correspondence, what is the relative value of the (a) current through the stators and (b) receiver torque?
2219	What is the minimum number of synchro devices needed for a simple synchro transmission system?
2220	The primary purpose of damping is to reduce which of the following conditions in a synchro device?
2221	Damping is necessary for which of the following synchro devices?
2222	Which of the following factors does NOT affect the amplitude of the voltage induced in a stator winding of a synchro transmitter?
2223	Maximum voltage is induced in a stator winding of a synchro transmitter when the rotor and the stator winding have what angle between them?
2224	A synchro receiver has which of the following characteristics that is NOT found in an ordinary transformer?
2225	An overloaded synchro will probably exhibit which of the following conditions?
2226	Which of the following units should be used in measuring the amount of turning force of a synchro?
2227	Which of the following terms is defined as the amount of load a machine can turn?
2228	What part of a synchro provides a point for external connections?
2229	How does the stator of a TX receive voltage?
2230	What type of rotor can be composed of a single winding or three Y- connected windings?
2231	What are the two major components of a synchro?
2232	What does the arrow on a synchro schematic symbol indicate?
2233	A 3.5-inch diameter differential receiver will have what Navy prestandard designation code?
2234	A 115-volt, 400-Hz torque transmitter with a diameter of 2.36 inches will have what military standard designation code?
2235	Which of the following types of synchro devices provides a mechanical output?
2236	What is the difference in application between the two classifications of synchros?
2237	What are the two general classifications of synchro systems?
2238	Which of the following terms accurately describes a synchro?
2239	A robot can determine the steepness of a slope using a(n) ___
2240	A color vision system can use three gray-scale cameras, equipped with filters that allow which three colors of light to pass?
2241	A robot arm that moves along three independent axes, each of which is straight and perpendicular to the other two, employs ___
2242	The region throughout which a robot arm can accomplish tasks is called its ___
2243	The number of ways in which a robot arm can move is known as ___
2244	Spherical coordinates can uniquely define the position of a point in up to ___
2245	An asset of epipolar navigation is the fact that it ___
2246	Rodney Brooks is best known for his work with ___
2247	An absolute limit to the distance over which teleoperation is practical is imposed by ___
2248	A telechir is used in conjunction with ___
2249	Proximity sensing is most closely akin to ___
2250	An android is well suited for operation in ___
2251	A manipulator is also known as a ___
2252	A robot that has its own computer, and can work independently of other robot or computers, is called an ___
2253	A rule-based system is also known as ___
2254	An automotive robot might best keep itself traveling down a specific lane of traffic by using ___
2255	The extent to which a machine vision system can differentiate between two objects is called the ___
2256	Second-generation robots first were used around the year ___
2257	According to Asimov’s three laws, under what circumstances is it all right for a robot to injure a human being?
2258	An android takes the form of ___
2259	A thermal printer might be the best type of printer for ___
2260	For animated graphics involving fast motion, you should ideally use ___
2261	When computer data is sent over long-distance telephone circuits, the digital highs and lows are generally represented by :
2262	Which of the following is a serial-access medium?
2263	Which of the following types of mass storage provide the fastest access time?
2264	An asset of a dot-matrix printer is ___
2265	A telephone modem contains ___
2266	The abbreviation FTP stands for ___
2267	Cross-referencing among web pages is done with ___
2268	A motherboard contains ___
2269	A packet is ___
2270	Protocol ensures that ___
2271	A platter is a ___
2272	Bits per second (bps) is a unit of ___
2273	An example of a mass-storage device is a ___
2274	A cluster is a unit of ___
2275	Image resolution can be specified in terms of ___
2276	The Web would probably work fastest for a user in New York at ___
2277	One megabyte is the same amount of data as ___
2278	The GPS might be useful ___
2279	Infrared waves are ___
2280	An advantage of cellular over conventional hard- wired telephone is ___
2281	An advantage of conventional hard-wired telephone over cellular is ___
2282	In a cellular network, a base station is sometimes called a ___
2283	An electromagnetic wave can be considered to fall in the shortwave band if its free-space wavelength is ___
2284	Which of the following constitutes illegal use of ham radio?
2285	A LAN in which each user’s computer stores its own data is called ___
2286	The use of direction-finding equipment to determine the latitude and longitude of a radio transmitter is an example of ___
2287	A device consisting of a receiver and transmitter in the same box is called a ___
2288	In a spectrum analyzer, the horizontal axis shows ___
2289	In general, as the noise level in a wireless system increases ___
2290	The term shortwave, in reference to radio, refers to signals having wavelengths of approximately ___
2291	As the data speed increases in a wireless system, all other factors being equal ___
2292	Noise in a wireless receiver can be minimized by ___
2293	In the United States, a license is required for ___
2294	A noise blanker can improve the quality of ___
2295	Which of the following devices or systems is not generally considered wireless?
2296	Infrared and optical wireless links work best ___
2297	A network that employs one powerful central computer and several PCs is called ___
2298	Phase quadrature is sometimes used to ___
2299	Which of the following media or devices use digital-to-analog conversion?
2300	An audio mixer ___
2301	A microphone ___
2302	A tape recording head ___
2303	Suppose you have an amateur radio station and its transmitter causes EMI to your hi-fi system ___
2304	A woofer ___
2305	Which of the following frequencies cannot be received by an AM/FM tuner?
2306	If a 10-watt amplifier is used with speakers designed for a 100-watt amplifier ___
2307	If an amplifier introduces severe distortion in the waveforms of input signals, then that amplifier is ___
2308	Vinyl disks are ___
2309	In an acoustic sine wave ___
2310	The relative phase of two acoustic waves, as they arrive at your ears, can affect ___
2311	A sound wave that travels at 335 m per second has a frequency of ___
2312	A sound whose wavelength is 6 in in the air has a frequency of ___
2313	A sound volume change of _3 dB represents ___
2314	An indoor concert hall such that sound reaches every listener’s ears perfectly at all audio frequencies requires ___
2315	The midrange audio frequencies ___
2316	Electromagnetic interference to a hi-fi amplifier can be caused by ___
2317	Acoustics is important in the design of ___
2318	A frequency synthesizer makes use of ___
2319	The inputs of an R-S flip-flop are known as ___
2320	In positive-edge triggering, the change of state occurs when ___
2321	An advantage of a J-K over an R-S flip-flop is that ___
2322	If X _ 1 and Y _ 1, then X _ YZ is ___
2323	Data sent along a single line, one bit after another, is called ___
2324	A logic circuit has four inputs W, X, Y, and Z. How many possible input combinations are there?
2325	If X is high and Y is low, what is the state of X NOT Y?
2326	If X and Y are both high, what is the state of X NAND Y?
2327	If X is high, what is the state of X NOR Y?
2328	If X is low, what is the state of X AND Y?
2329	Which of the following voltages might normally represent a 1 in negative logic?
2330	Which of the following voltages could normally represent a 1 in positive logic?
2331	The largest possible decimal number that can be represented by six binary digits (bits) is ___
2332	The fifth digit from the right in a binary number carries a decimal value of ___
2333	The binary number 110001 represents the digital number ___
2334	The value of the decimal number 23 in binary form is ___
2335	In a multicavity klystron, the electrons ___
2336	A klystron is noted for its ___
2337	The paths of the electrons in a magnetron are spirals, rather than straight lines, because of ___
2338	In a magnetron, as the frequency is increased ___
2339	A vidicon camera tube is noted for its ___
2340	In a time-domain oscilloscope, the waveform to be analyzed is usually applied to the ___
2341	The horizontal displacement on an oscilloscope CRT screen is usually measured in ___
2342	The electron beam in an electrostatic CRT is bent by ___
2343	The electron gun in a CRT is another name for its ___
2344	A heptode tube has ___
2345	An advantage of a grounded-grid power amplifier is ___
2346	A tube type radio receiver ___
2347	A tube with three grids is called a ___
2348	A screen grid enhances tube operation by ___
2349	In a tube with a cold cathode ___
2350	In a tube with a directly heated cathode ___
2351	Which type of tube maintains constant voltage drop with changes in current?
2352	The intensity of the electron flow in a vacuum tube depends on all of the following except ___
2353	The control grid of a tube corresponds to the ___
2354	One difference between a triode and an N- channel FET is that ___
2355	A reason CDs don’t wear out with repeated playback is ___
2356	Compact disks (CDs) are not generally used for recording ___
2357	A typical audio recording tape thickness is ___
2358	An advantage of magnetic disks over magnetic tape is ____
2359	In magnetic video tape ___
2360	In magnetic audio tape ___
2361	A kilobyte is ___
2362	Which of the following IC types must be physically removed from the circuit to have its memory contents changed?
2363	In a RAM ___
2364	In a ROM ___
2365	An absolute limit on IC component density is ___
2366	Which of the following is not an advantage of CMOS?
2367	Which type of digital IC is least susceptible to noise?
2368	Which type of IC is used to determine whether voltage levels are the same or not?
2369	A channel carries several signals at once ___
2370	An op amp usually employs negative feedback to ___
2371	Which type of component is generally not practical for fabrication in an IC?
2372	In which of the following devices would you be least likely to find an integrated circuit as the main component?
2373	Which of the following is not an advantage of ICs over discrete components?
2374	Digital signal processing can be used to advantage with ___
2375	A low IF is not practical with a single-conversion receiver because ___
2376	Image rejection in a superhet receiver is enhanced by ___
2377	To receive UHF signals on a shortwave receiver, you would need ___
2378	A product detector would most often be used to receive ___
2379	Digital modulation is superior to analog modulation in the sense that ___
2380	A continuously variable signal is recovered from a signal having discrete states by ___
2381	Time-division multiplex is often done with ___
2382	An FM detector with built-in limiting is ___
2383	An AM receiver can be used to demodulate FM by means of ___
2384	A receiver that responds to a desired signal, but not to one very nearby in frequency, has good ___
2385	The ability of a receiver to perform in the presence of strong signals is a consequence of its ___
2386	The S_N/N ratio is a measure of ___
2387	A diode and capacitor can be used to detect ___
2388	Single-sideband can be demodulated by ___
2389	The highest layer of the ionosphere is ___
2390	The ionospheric layer that absorbs radio waves is ___
2391	The reflected wave ___
2392	The reflected wave in a radio signal ___
2393	An advantage of fiberoptics over cable communications is ___
2394	A coaxial cable ___
2395	What is the wavelength of a 21.3-MHz signal?
2396	The bandwidth of a fax signal is kept narrow by ___
2397	In an SSTV signal, the frame time is ___
2398	How many states are commonly used for the transmission of digitized voice signals?
2399	In which PM mode do pulses last for varying times?
2400	In which mode of PM does the pulse level vary?
2401	Wideband FM is preferable to narrowband FM for music transmission because ___
2402	The deviation for voice FM signals is usually ___
2403	A spectrum analyzer displays ___
2404	An SSB suppressed carrier is at 14.335 MHz ___
2405	An advantage of SSB over AM is ___
2406	Which of the following modulation methods is used to send teleprinter data over the phone lines?
2407	An AM transmitter using a class-C PA should employ ___
2408	If an AM signal is modulated with audio having frequencies up to 5 kHz, then the complete signal bandwidth will be ___
2409	The maximum AM percentage possible without distortion is ___
2410	An advantage of FSK over simple on-off keying for RTTY is ___
2411	Morse code is a form of ___
2412	A radio wave has a frequency of 1.55 MHz ___
2413	An IMPATT diode ___
2414	Acoustic feedback in a public-address system ___
2415	Emission of energy in an IRED is caused by ___
2416	The power from a solar panel depends on all of the following except ___
2417	You want a circuit to be stable with a variety of amplifier impedance conditions ___
2418	Coherent radiation is produced by a ___
2419	The most likely place you would find an LED would be ___
2420	A Gunnplexer can be used as a ___
2421	Which of these diode types might be found in the oscillator circuit of a microwave radio transmitter?
2422	The capacitance of a varactor varies with ___
2423	A diode audio limiter circuit ___
2424	The forward breakover voltage of a silicon diode is ___
2425	Zener voltage is also known as ___
2426	A time-domain display might be found in ___
2427	The two input frequencies of a mixer circuit are 3.522 MHz and 3.977 MHz ___
2428	If the output wave in a circuit has the same shape as the input wave, then ___
2429	A diode detector ___
2430	A crystal set ___
2431	If ac is applied to a diode, and the peak ac voltage never exceeds the avalanche voltage, then the output is ___
2432	When a diode is forward-biased, the anode ___
2433	An unimportant factor concerning the frequency at which a P-N junction will work effectively is ___
2434	Avalanche voltage is routinely exceeded when a P-N junction acts as a ___
2435	If the reverse bias exceeds the avalanche voltage in a P-N junction ___
2436	When a P-N junction is reverse-biased, the capacitance depends on all of the following except ___
2437	If an electron has a charge of _1 unit, a hole has ___
2438	Holes flow the opposite way from electrons because ___
2439	When a P-N junction does not conduct, it is ___
2440	Holes flow from ___
2441	In a P-type material, electrons are ___
2442	Which of the following does not result from adding an acceptor impurity?
2443	A semiconductor material is made into N type by ___
2444	The purpose of doping is to ___
2445	A CMOS integrated circuit ___
2446	Of the following, which material allows the lowest forward voltage drop in a diode?
2447	Selenium works especially well in ___
2448	A disadvantage of gallium-arsenide devices is that ___
2449	GaAs is a(n) ___
2450	The most common semiconductor among the following substances is ___
2451	Which of the following is not an advantage of semiconductor devices over vacuum tubes?
2452	The term  “semiconductor” arises from ___
2453	If there is reactance at the output of an impedance transformer ___
2454	A quarter-wave matching section has a characteristic impedance of 75.0 Ω
2455	A resistive input impedance of 50 Ω must be matched to a resistive output impedance of 450 Ω ___
2456	A transformer has a primary-to-secondary turns ratio of 2.00:1 ___
2457	An autotransformer ___
2458	In a transformer, a center tap would probably be found in ___
2459	In a household circuit, the 234-V power has ___
2460	High voltage is used in long-distance power transmission because ___
2461	An advantage of a toroid core over a solenoid core is ___
2462	The shell method of transformer winding ___
2463	A transformer has 117 V rms across its primary and 234 V rms across its secondary ___
2464	Eddy currents cause ___
2465	Which of the following is false, concerning air cores versus ferromagnetic cores?
2466	A transformer has a secondary-to-primary turns ratio of 0.167 ___
2467	A step-up transformer has a primary-to-secondary turns ratio of 1:5.00 ___
2468	A transformer steps a voltage down from 117 V to 6.00 V ___
2469	The capacitance between the primary and the secondary windings of a transformer can be minimized by ___
2470	In a step-up transformer ___
2471	How long is a 1/2-wave dipole for 3.60 MHz?
2472	The fourth harmonic of 800 kHz is ___
2473	A 1/4-wave line section is made for 21.1 MHz, using cable with a velocity factor of 0.800 ___
2474	A parallel-resonant circuit is to be made for 21.3 MHz ___
2475	A series-resonant circuit is to be made for 14.1 MHz ___
2476	A coil and capacitor are in parallel, with L _ 10.0 μH and C _ 10 pF ___
2477	A coil and capacitor are in series ___
2478	A problem that standing waves can cause is ___
2479	Which of the following does not increase the loss in a transmission line?
2480	Which of the following is the most important consideration in a transmission line?
2481	A wattmeter shows 57 watts of VA power in a circuit ___
2482	A wattmeter shows 220 watts of VA power in a circuit ___
2483	Phase angle is equal to ___
2484	A series circuit has R _ 53.5 Ω and X _ 75.5 Ω ___
2485	A series circuit has Z _ 88.4 Ω, with R _ 50.0 Ω ___
2486	A circuit has a resistance of 300 W and an inductance of 13.5 μH in series at 10.0 MHz ___
2487	Power factor is equal to ___
2488	The apparent power in a circuit is 100 watts, and the imaginary power is 40 watts ___
2489	Which of the following is not an example of true power?
2490	The power in a reactance is ___
2491	What is the current through the resistance in the above example?
2492	A parallel circuit has 10 ohms of resistance and 15 Ω of reactance ___
2493	What is the voltage across the reactance in the above example ___
2494	A series circuit has 99.0 Ω of resistance and 88.0 Ω of inductive reactance ___
2495	A resistor of 51.0 Ω, an inductor of 22.0 μH and a capacitor of 150 pF are in parallel ___
2496	A resistor of 100 Ω, a coil of 4.50 μH, and a capacitor of 220 pF are in parallel ___
2497	A resistor of 0.0044 siemens, a capacitor whose susceptance is 0.035 siemens, and a coil whose susceptance is _0.011 siemens are all connected in parallel ___
2498	A vector pointing  “southeast” in the GB plane would indicate the following ___
2499	A coil of 3.50 μH and a capacitor of 47.0 pF are in parallel ___
2500	A coil, resistor, and capacitor are in parallel ___
2501	What is the admittance vector, assuming that nothing is in series or parallel with these components?
2502	What will happen to the susceptance of a capacitor if the frequency is doubled, all other things being equal ___
2503	A coil has a reactance of 4.00 Ω ___
2504	A coil has an inductance of 3.00 μH and a resistance of 10.0 Ω in its winding ___
2505	A resistor of 330 Ω, a coil of 1.00 μH and a capacitor of 200 pF are in series ___
2506	A resistor of 150 Ω, a coil with reactance 100 Ω and a capacitor with reactance   -200 Ω are connected in series ___
2507	When R _ 0 in a series RLC circuit, but the net reactance is not zero, the impedance vector ___
2508	A coil of 25.0 μH and capacitor of 100 pF are connected in series ___
2509	A coil and capacitor are connected in series ___
2510	In general, the greater the absolute value of the impedance in a circuit ___
2511	Capacitive susceptance is ___
2512	Inductive susceptance is measured in ___
2513	Absolute-value impedance is equal to the square root of ___
2514	Susceptance and conductance add to form ___
2515	An inductor has a value of 44 mH at 60 Hz ___
2516	A capacitor has a value of 0.050 μF at 665 kHz ___
2517	If a device is said to have an impedance of Z _ 100 Ω, this would most often mean that ___
2518	If the center conductor of a coaxial cable is made to have smaller diameter, all other things being equal, what will happen to the Zo of the transmission line?
2519	What is the absolute-value impedance of 50 _ j 235?
2520	What is the absolute-value impedance of 3.0 _ j 6.0?
2521	The impedance vector 0 _ j22 represents ___
2522	The impedance vector 5 _ j0 represents ___
2523	What is (_ 5 _ j 7) _ (4 _ j 5)?
2524	What is the sum of 3 _ j 7 and _3 _ j 7?
2525	A complex number ___
2526	The square of an imaginary number ___
2527	An RC circuit has a capitance of 0.015 μF ___
2528	An RC circuit consists of a 150-pF capacitor and a 330 Ω resisitor in series ___
2529	If the ratio of *XC* / *R* is 1, the phase angle is ___
2530	In a purely resistive circuit, the phase angle is ___
2531	In an RC circuit, as the ratio of capacitive reactance to resistance, _ *XC* / *R* , gets closer to zero, the phase angle ___
2532	Each impedance R _ jXC ___
2533	If the resistance R increases in an RC circuit, but the capacitance and the frequency are nonzero and constant, then the vector in the RC plane will ___
2534	If R increases in an RC circuit, but XC is always zero, then the vector in the RC plane will ___
2535	Each point in the RC plane ___
2536	A capacitor has C _ 4700 μF and XC 33 Ω ___
2537	A capacitor has *C* _ 166 pF at *f* _ 400 kHz ___
2538	A capacitor has *XC* 8800 Ω at *f* _ 830 kHz ___
2539	A capacitor has a value of 47 μF ___
2540	A capacitor has a reactance of _4.50 Ω at 377 Hz ___
2541	A capacitor has a value of 330 pF ___
2542	XC for a capacitor ___
2543	As the size of the plates in a capacitor increases, all other things being equal ___
2544	An RL circuit has an inductance of 88 mH ___
2545	An RL circuit consists of a 100-μH inductor and a 100-Ω resistor ___
2546	If the inductive reactance is the same as the resistance in an RL circuit, the phase angle is ___
2547	In a purely reactive circuit, the phase angle is ___
2548	In an RL circuit, as the ratio of inductive reactance to resistance, *XL* / *R* decreases, the phase angle ___
2549	A vector is a quantity that has ___
2550	Each impedance R _ jXL ___
2551	If the resistance R and the inductive reactance XL both vary from zero to ___
2552	Each point in the RL plane ___
2553	An inductor has L _ 88 mH with XL _ 100 Ω ___
2554	A coil has L _ 689 μH at f _ 990 kHz ___
2555	An inductor has XL _ 555 Ω at f _ 132 kHz ___
2556	A coil has an inductance of 400 μH ___
2557	A coil shows an inductive reactance of 200 Ω at 500 Hz ___
2558	A coil has an inductance of 100 mH ___
2559	As the frequency of an ac wave gets lower, the value of *XL* for a particular coil ___
2560	As the number of turns in a coil increases, the reactance ___
2561	As the number of turns in a coil increases, the current in the coil will eventually ___
2562	If wave X leads wave Y by 45 degrees of phase, then ___
2563	A phase difference of 540 degrees would more often be spoken of as ___
2564	Shifting the phase of an ac sine wave by 90 degrees is the same thing as ___
2565	Two waves are in phase coincidence ___
2566	If a wave has a frequency of 440 Hz, how long does it take for 10 degrees of phase?
2567	A wave has a frequency of 300 kHz ___
2568	You can add or subtract a certain number of degrees of phase to or from a sine wave, and end up with an inverted (upside-down) representation of the original ___
2569	You can add or subtract a certain number of degrees of phase to or from a wave, and end up with exactly the same wave again ___
2570	A phase difference of 180 degrees in the circular model represents ___
2571	The derivative of a sine wave ___
2572	A sine wave ___
2573	Which of the following is not a general characteristic of an ac wave?
2574	A capacitor, rated at 330 pF, shows an actual value of 317 pF ___
2575	A capacitor is rated at 33 pF, plus or minus 10 percent ___
2576	If a capacitor has a negative temperature coefficient ___
2577	Which of the following types of capacitors is polarized?
2578	An air-variable capacitor might have a range of ___
2579	A paper capacitor might have a value of ___
2580	A disk ceramic capacitor might have a value of:
2581	Which of the following is not a characteristic of mica capacitors?
2582	Air works well as a dielectric mainly because it ___
2583	Three capacitors are in parallel ___
2584	Two capacitors are in parallel ___
2585	Two capacitors are in series ___
2586	If the same five capacitors are connected in series, the total capacitance will be ___
2587	Five 0.050-μF capacitors are connected in parallel ___
2588	A capacitance of 0.033 μF is the same as ___
2589	A capacitance of 100 pF is the same as ___
2590	A material with a high dielectric constant ___
2591	As capacitor plate area increases, all other things being equal ___
2592	Capacitance acts to store electrical energy as ___
2593	A transmission-line inductor made from coaxial cable, having velocity factor of 0.66, and working at 450 MHz, would be shorter than ___
2594	At a frequency of 95 MHz, the best form for an inductor would be ___
2595	At a frequency of 400 Hz, the most likely form for an inductor would be ___
2596	As an inductor core material, air ___
2597	A major feature of a pot-core winding is ___
2598	A significant advantage, in some situations, of a toroidal coil over a solenoid is ___
2599	With permeability tuning, moving the core further into a solenoidal coil ___
2600	If the fields in the previous situation oppose, the net inductance will be ___
2601	Two inductors, having values of 44 mH and 88 mH, are connected in series with a coefficient of coupling equal to 1.0 (maximum possible mutual inductance) ___
2602	If the coil fields oppose in the foregoing series- connected arrangement, the net inductance is ___
2603	Two inductors, each of 100 μH, are in series ___
2604	Suppose the three inductors mentioned above are connected in parallel without mutual inductance ___
2605	Three inductors are connected in series without mutual inductance ___
2606	If the same two inductors (33 mH and 55 mH) are connected in parallel without mutual inductance, the combination will have a value of ___
2607	Two inductors are connected in series, without mutual inductance ___
2608	Inductors in series, assuming there is no mutual inductance, combine ___
2609	A ferromagnetic core is placed in an inductor mainly to ___
2610	In a small inductance ___
2611	Which of the following does not affect the inductance of a coil?
2612	An inductor works by ___
2613	An advantage of ac over dc in utility applications is ___
2614	Which one of the following does not affect the power output available from a particular ac generator?
2615	In a perfect sine wave, the pk-pk value is ___
2616	In a 117-V utility circuit, the pk-pk voltage is ___
2617	In a 117-V utility circuit, the peak voltage is ___
2618	If two waves have the same frequency and the same phase, the composite wave ___
2619	If two waves have the same frequency and the same amplitude, but opposite phase, the composite wave is ___
2620	Three-phase ac ___
2621	A triangular wave ___
2622	Two waves have the same frequency but differ in phase by 1/20 cycle ___
2623	A degree of phase represents ___
2624	The sixth harmonic of an ac wave whose period is 0.001 second has a frequency of ___
2625	The period of an ac wave is ___
2626	On a spectrum analyzer, a pure ac signal, having just one frequency component,would look like ___
2627	A cycle of an ac wave is the ___
2628	Which of the following can vary with ac, but not with dc?
2629	A bubble memory is best suited for ___
2630	An advantage of a magnetic disk, as compared with magnetic tape, for data storage and retrieval is that ___
2631	A high tape-recorder motor speed is generally used for ___
2632	A device that reverses magnetic field polarity to keep a dc motor rotating is ___
2633	A relay is connected into a circuit so that a device gets a signal only when the relay coil carries current ___
2634	A substance with high retentivity is best suited for making ___
2635	An advantage of an electromagnet over a permanent magnet is that ___
2636	An ac electromagnet ___
2637	Which of the following is not generally possible in a geomagnetic storm?
2638	If a wire coil has 100 turns and carries 1.30 A of current, what is the magnetomotive force in gilberts?
2639	If a wire coil has 10 turns and carries 500 mA of current, what is the magnetomotive force in ampere-turns?
2640	A unit of overall magnetic field quantity is the ___
2641	The gauss is a unit of ___
2642	The magnetic flux around a straight, current- carrying wire ___
2643	Lines of magnetic flux are said to originate ___
2644	Magnetic flux can always be attributed to ___
2645	The force between a magnet and a piece of ferromagnetic metal that has not been magnetized ___
2646	A material that can be permanently magnetized is generally said to be ___
2647	Geomagnetic lines of flux ___
2648	The geomagnetic field ___
2649	One reason why it is impractical to make an extrememly high-voltage battery of cells is that ___
2650	An interactive solar power system ___
2651	The current from a solar panel is increased by ___
2652	Which kind of battery should never be used until it  “dies”?
2653	A disadvantage of mercury cells and batteries is that ___
2654	Where might you find a NICAD battery?
2655	A cell or battery that keeps up a constant current-delivering capability almost until it dies is said to have ___
2656	Where would you most likely find a lead-acid battery?
2657	In which of the following places would you most likely choose a lithium battery?
2658	In which of the following places would a transistor battery be the best power-source choice?
2659	In which of the following places would a  “lantern” battery most likely be found?
2660	The energy in a cell or battery depends mainly on ___
2661	Alkaline cells ___
2662	A 12-V auto battery is rated at 36 Ah ___
2663	A cell of 1.5 V supplies 100 mA for seven hours and twenty minutes, and then it is replaced ___
2664	A direct short-circuit of a battery can cause ___
2665	The voltage in a battery is ___
2666	A Weston cell is generally used ___
2667	A cell that cannot be recharged is ___
2668	The chemical energy in a battery or cell ___
2669	The actual resistance of the above unit can be expected to vary by how much above or below the specified value?
2670	Red, red, red, gold indicates a resistance of ___
2671	Suppose a 1-KΩ resistor will dissipate 1.05 W, and you have many 1-W resistors of all common values ___
2672	A resistor has a value of 680 Ω, and you expect it will have to draw 1 mA maximum continuous current ___
2673	A package of resistors is rated at 56 Ω, plus or minus 10 percent ___
2674	Suppose a resistor is rated at 3.3 KΩ, plus or minus 5 percent ___
2675	A resistor is specified as having a value of 68 Ω, but is measured with an ohmmeter as 63 Ω ___
2676	An advantage of a rheostat over a potentiometer is that ___
2677	The sound from a transistor radio is at a level of 50 dB ___
2678	If the original sound power is 1 W, what is the final sound power?
2679	If a sound triples in actual power level, approximately what is the decibel increase?
2680	A volume control in a stereo compact-disc player would probably be ___
2681	A metal-film resistor ___
2682	The best place to use a wirewound resistor is ___
2683	Carbon-composition resistors ___
2684	Bleeder resistors ___
2685	A transistor can be protected from needless overheating by ___
2686	Biasing in an amplifier circuit ___
2687	The maximum voltage output from a voltage divider ___
2688	In a voltage divider network, the total resistance ___
2689	Good engineering practice usually requires that a series-parallel resistive network be made ___
2690	You have an unlimited supply of 1-W, 1000-_ resistors, and you need to get a 3000-Ω, 5-W resistance ___
2691	You have an unlimited supply of 1-W, 1000-_ resistors, and you need a 500-_ resistance rated at 7 W or more ___
2692	Four resistors are connected in series, each with a value of 4.0 K ___
2693	The current through the potentiometer is 17 mA and its value is 1.22K ___
2694	The voltage is 250 V and the current is 8.0 mA ___
2695	A wiring diagram would most likely be found in ___
2696	Suppose you double the voltage in a simple dc circuit, and cut the resistance in half ___
2697	An oscilloscope cannot be used to indicate ___
2698	The meter movement in an illumination meter measures ___
2699	A VU meter is never used for measurement of ___
2700	A typical frequency counter ___
2701	A utility meter’s readout indicates ___
2702	A utility meter’s motor speed works directly from ___
2703	Which of the following will not cause a major error in an ohmmeter reading?
2704	To measure power-supply voltage being used by a circuit, a voltmeter ___
2705	Voltmeters should generally have ___
2706	An ammeter shunt is useful because ___
2707	One advantage of an electromagnet meter over a permanent-magnet meter is that ___
2708	A thermocouple ___
2709	One important advantage of an electrostatic meter is that ___
2710	Suppose a certain current in a galvanometer causes the needle to deflect 20 degrees, and then this current is doubled ___
2711	The change in the direction of a compass needle, when a current-carrying wire is brought near, is ___
2712	The force between two electrically charged objects is called ___
2713	A coil has 500 turns and carries 75 mA of current ___
2714	A ferromagnetic material ___
2715	Which of the following units can represent magnetic flux density?
2716	Which of these can represent magnetomotive force?
2717	A low voltage, such as 12 V ___
2718	In the output of a full-wave rectifier ___
2719	In the output of a half-wave rectifier ___
2720	Half-wave rectification means that ___
2721	The frequency of common household ac in the U.S. is ___
2722	Of the following energy units, the one most often used to define electrical energy is ___
2723	You are told that a certain air conditioner is rated at 500 Btu ___
2724	A circuit breaker is rated for 15 A at 117 V ___
2725	A 2-kW generator will deliver approximately how much current, reliably, at 117 V?
2726	A mile of wire has a conductance of 0.6 siemens ___
2727	A resistor has a value of 300 ohms ___
2728	A piece of wire has a conductance of 20 siemens ___
2729	A current of 25 A is most likely drawn by ___
2730	A potentially lethal electric current is on the order of ___
2731	An EMF of one volt ___
2732	A positive electric pole ___
2733	Light is converted into electricity ___
2734	A changing magnetic field ___
2735	In some batteries, chemical energy can be replenished by ___
2736	A backwards-working electric motor is best described as ___
2737	If an EMF of one volt is placed across a resistance of two ohms, then the current is ___
2738	The volt is the standard unit of ___
2739	A stroke of lightning ___
2740	A coulomb ___
2741	If a material has low resistance ___
2742	Movement of holes in a semiconductor ___
2743	Of the following substances, the best conductor is ___
2744	Of the following substances, the worst conductor is ___
2745	An electrical insulator can be made a conductor ___
2746	In a compound ___
2747	A molecule ___
2748	An isotope ___
2749	An ion ___
2750	Suppose there is an atom of oxygen, containing eight protons and eight neutrons in the nucleus, and two neutrons are added to the nucleus ___
2751	The atomic weight of an element is approximately determined by ___
2752	The atomic number of an element is determined by ___
2753	A trunk cable run a loss of -20 dBmV ____
2754	Which of the following statement is NOT true?
2755	For in-band descramblers, the decoding pulses are sent on the ___
2756	Frequency synthesis is used for ___
2757	A typical value for the IF signal, in megahertz, for up-down cable converter ___
2758	The upstream signal in two-way cable systems has the frequency of ___
2759	Which of the following statement is TRUE?
2760	The most popular plug for RG-590 coaxial cable is the ___
2761	A tap for the subcarrier drop line has a ___
2762	How many dBmV units correspond to a 1-mV signal level?
2763	The VSWR for a line terminated in its Zo is
2764	The cable converter output for the TV receiver is usually on channel ___
2765	Coaxial cable for distribution systems has an impedance of ___
2766	Which of the following is a midband cable TV channel?
2767	A crystal-ringer circuit is used for the ___
2768	Which of the following stages has bias from the ACC and color killer circuits?
2769	Which of the following stages must be on during horizontal flyback time?
2770	Which control varies the phase angle of the demodulated color video signal ___
2771	The best frequency between the 3.8 MHz color subcarrier and the 4.5 MHz sound signal is ___
2772	Drifting color bars in the picture indicate trouble in the ___
2773	The output of the color oscillator feeds the ___
2774	The output of the burst separator feeds the ___
2775	Which signal needs a 0.6-us time delay?
2776	The balance for Y video signals to the three guns in the picture tube is set by the ___
2777	The color oscillator does not operate ___
2778	The color level control is in the ___
2779	The contrast control is in the ___
2780	Which of the following is NOT tuned to 3.8 MHz?
2781	Which of the following applies for a monochrome picture?
2782	The maximum deviation of the FM sound signal, in kilohertz, is ___
2783	The difference between the sound carrier and color subcarrier frequencies is ___
2784	In channel 14 (470 to 76 MHz), the 3.58 MHz color signal is transmitted at ___
2785	Line-of-sight transmission is a characteristic of propagation for the ___
2786	The difference between the sound carrier frequencies in two adjacent channels is ___
2787	In all standard television broadcast channels, the difference between the picture and sound carrier frequencies is ___
2788	With a 0.5 MHz video signal modulating the picture carrier ___
2789	With a 2 MHz video signal modulating the picture carrier signal for channel 4 (66 to 72 MHz) which of the following frequencies are transmitted?
2790	Which of the following statements is true?
2791	The modulated picture carrier wave includes the composite video signal as the ___
2792	In the CED system, the disk capacitance varies with the ___
2793	Which system uses a laser light beam for playback?
2794	Tilting the viseo head gaps is necessary with the ___
2795	To make the tape speed the name in playback as in recording, the tape speed is regulated by the ___
2796	The part that rotates to meter out the tape at constant speed is the ___
2797	Servocontrol of speed and phase is used for the ___
2798	Switching for each field is required for the ___
2799	A comb filter is used to ___
2800	What oscillator frequency is needed to heterodyne 329 kHz up to 3.58 MHz?
2801	Which of the following applies to the color-under technique?
2802	A typical frequency for the FM luminance signal inVCR recording is ___
2803	The video heads rotate at high velocity to increase the ___
2804	How many TV fields are recorded on one slant track of tape?
2805	Which system can be used for both recording and playback?
2806	How many octaves is the frequency range 1 to 8MHz?
2807	If the 3.58-MHz C amplifier in the receiver does not operate, the result will be ___
2808	The second IF value for color in receivers, for any station, is ___
2809	The average voltage value of the 3.58 MHz modulated chrominance signal is ___
2810	What is the hue of a color 90 º leading sync burst phase?
2811	The color with the most luminance is ___
2812	Which of the following is false statement?
2813	Which signal has color information for 1.3 MHz bandwidth?
2814	The hue of color sync phase is ___
2815	The interfering beat frequency of 920 kHz is between the 3.58 MHz color subcarrier and the ___
2816	Greater p-p amplitude of the 3.58MHz chrominance signal indicates more ___
2817	The hue 180 º out of phase with red is ___
2818	Brightness variations of the picture information are in which signal?
2819	Picture tube has games which is ___
2820	The gamma effects the ___ of the picture tube
2821	In what condition does the picture tube reproduce black?
2822	The average dc level is close to the blanking level for a ___ scene?
2823	Give the maximum number of picture details for total picture area ___
2824	Give the maximum number of picture details for each horizontal line ___
2825	Which pulses in V blacking correspond to the 31,500 Hz?
2826	Which pulses in V blanking correspond to the 21H lines wide?
2827	Which pulses in V blacking correspond to the 3H lines wide?
2828	What are the approximate time periods for the width of H sync pulse?
2829	What are the approximate time periods for the visible H trace?
2830	What are the approximate time periods for the width of H blanking pulse in microseconds?
2831	In the IRE scale for composite video signal, list the number of IRE units used for sync, black setup, and the camera signal?
2832	In video signal analysis, what are the three parts of the composite video signal, for two horizontal lines in the picture?
2833	What are the frequencies of H scanning, H sync and H blanking?
2834	What are the frequencies of V scanning, V sync, and V blanking?
2835	How many H lines are there in each V retrace?
2836	How many H lines are there in each field?
2837	How many H lines are there in a complete frame?
2838	How many horizontal lines are in the odd or an even field?
2839	What does an interlaced scanning require for the number of the horizontal lines?
2840	Which of the following takes more time?
2841	Which of the following is faster in horizontal scanning?
2842	Which of the following frequencies is wrong?
2843	Sawtooth generator circuits produce the scanning raster, but the sync pulses are needed for ___
2844	The width of a vertical sync pulse with its narrations includes the time of ___
2845	Which of the following is NOT true?
2846	If the horizontal flyback is 10 percent, this time equals ___
2847	In the frame for which interlaced scanning is used, alternate lines are skipped during vertical scanning because ___
2848	The number of lines scanned per frame in the raster on the picture tube screen is ___
2849	One-half line spacing between the start position for scanning even and odd fields produces ___
2850	Given a 635 us vertical retrace time, the number of complete horizontal lines scanned during vertical flyback is ___
2851	In the sawtooth waveform for linear scanning ___
2852	The G2 master screen control of picture tubes vary the ___
2853	Background controls of many picture tubes are for the ___
2854	The R, G, and B video drive controls are set for ___ in the picture
2855	The R, G, and B screen grid adjustments are set for ___ in the picture
2856	For the picture tube, the brightness control varies the ___ bias signal drive
2857	Typical ac signal drive for a 19-in, picture tube ___
2858	The typical dc grid bias for a 19-in, picture tube ___
2859	The abbreviation TW is for ___ pincushion correction
2860	Pincushion magnets are used for ___ picture tubes
2861	Where the permanent magnets used?
2862	Static convergence is done for the ___ of the screen
2863	What does the color fringing on the edge of the picture shows?
2864	Where do the small, white dots in the picture used for?
2865	In color picture tube, what does a solid red raster checked for?
2866	When the receiver is first turned on, what current does the ADG circuit have?
2867	In color picture tube, degaussing is done with ___
2868	In color picture tube, degaussing should be done ___ color purity adjustments
2869	Neck shadow result when the deflection yoke is ___
2870	The coils above and below the electron beam of the picture tube are for ___
2871	Small magnets embedded in the yoke housing is correct for ___
2872	In which method in a G3 voltage of 200 V. used for?
2873	The crossover point for focusing is formed by the ___ lens
2874	Most of the electrons in the beam flow out of which terminal?
2875	Which is the most position element in the electron gun?
2876	Which of the following is the most negative (or least positive) electrode is the electron gun?
2877	What is the color of P1 screen phosphor?
2878	What are the phosphor numbers, respectively, for monochrome and color picture tubes?
2879	When the TV set was turned on, full power was applied to the heater and the picture appeared within a fraction of a second ___
2880	Typically, the anode capacitance for a 25-in tube is ___
2881	What is the typical anode voltage for a 25-in color picture tube?
2882	What is the usual heater voltage for picture tube?
2883	To what deflection angle does a maximum deflection angle of 45 deg either side center correspond?
2884	What is the diagonal screen size for the 19CP4 picture tube?
2885	To how many lax units is the illuminator of 3 fs, approximately equal?
2886	In gamma correction the ___ is stretched by the picture tube
2887	___ is more important for the gamma correction for the camera tube
2888	What is the gamma required for the camera tube?
2889	Which of the following produces the signal variations for G4 of the vidicon ___
2890	Which of the following is TRUE?
2891	Which of the following is FALSE?
2892	A lens has an 8-cm focal and 4-cm diameter ___
2893	A typically value of vidicon dark current is ___
2894	If the camera cannot be placed far away enough to include everything in the scene, change the lens to one with a ___
2895	The gamma of the picture tube is ___
2896	Special effects and production switching are done by the ___
2897	Beam alignment magnets for the camera tube are adjusted while rocking which control?
2898	Precise scanning size and linearity are most important in ___
2899	The part of the visible spectrum where camera pickup tubes have the greatest output is ___
2900	Which of the following camera tubes has minimum lag?
2901	A low-contrast picture in which white seems flat and lacking in detail suggest ___
2902	Camera signal output without sync is called ___
2903	Which of the following camera tube uses lead oxide (PbO) for the photoconductive target plate?
2904	In a buck regulator, the output voltage is filtered with a ___
2905	The dropout voltage of standard monolithic linear regulators is closest to ___
2906	If the load is shorted, the pass transistor has the least power dissipation when the regulator has ___
2907	The zener follower is an example of a ___
2908	A switching regulator is considered ___
2909	The efficiency of a voltage regulator is high when ___
2910	The regulator with the highest efficiency is the ___
2911	In a boost regulator, the output voltage is filtered with a ___
2912	The buck-boost regulator is also ___
2913	The input current to a shunt regulator is ___
2914	A zener-diode regulator is a ___
2915	A power supply with low output impedance has low ___
2916	An increase of line voltage into a power supply usually produces ___
2917	To get more output voltage from a buck switching regulator, you have to ___
2918	A series regulator is an example of a ___
2919	A phase splitter produces two output voltages that are ___
2920	To turn on a current booster, we can drive its base- emitter terminals with the voltage across ___
2921	A current booster is a transistor in ___
2922	If a linear three-terminal IC regulator is more than a few inches from the filter capacitor, you may get oscillations inside the IC unless you use ___
2923	Thermal shutdown occurs in an IC regulator if ___
2924	Compared to the ripple into a voltage regulator, the ripple out of a voltage regulator is ___
2925	The output impedance of a voltage regulator is ___
2926	A capacitor may be needed in a discrete voltage regulator to prevent ___
2927	With foldback current limiting, the load voltage approaches zero, and the load current approaches ___
2928	Simple current limiting produces too much heat in the ___
2929	A current-sensing resistor is usually ___
2930	Without current limiting, a shorted load will probably ___
2931	During regulation, the power dissipation of the pass transistor equals the collector-emitter voltage times the ___
2932	Voltage regulators normally use ___
2933	The bandwidth of the low-pass filter in a PLL determines the ___
2934	When a PLL is locked on the input frequency, the VCO frequency ___
2935	The quantity that remains constant in a pulse-position modulator is ___
2936	The quantity that remains constant in a pulse-width modulator is ___
2937	The output waveform of a 555 timer is ___
2938	The pulse width out of a one-shot multivibrator increases when the ___
2939	An astable 555 timer has the following number of stable states ___
2940	A monostable 555 timer has the following number of stable states ___
2941	The kind of oscillator found in an electronic wristwatch is the ___
2942	The series and parallel resonant frequencies of a crystal are ___
2943	Crystals have a very ___
2944	The material with the piezoelectric effect is ___
2945	Of the following, the one with the most stable frequency is the ___
2946	To vary the frequency of an LC oscillator, you can vary ___
2947	The Hartley oscillator uses ___
2948	Link coupling refers to ___
2949	When Q decreases in a Colpitts oscillator, the frequency of oscillation ___
2950	Heavy feedback in an LC oscillator ___
2951	The most widely used LC oscillator is the ___
2952	For oscillations to start in a circuit, the loop gain must be greater than 1 when the phase shift around the loop is ___
2953	The phase-shift oscillator usually has ___
2954	To vary the frequency of a Wien bridge, you can vary ___
2955	A Wien bridge is sometimes called a ___
2956	Initially, the loop gain of a Wien-bridge oscillator is ___
2957	A Wien-bridge oscillator uses ___
2958	A lead circuit has a phase angle that is ___
2959	A coupling circuit is a ___
2960	A lag circuit has a phase angle that is ___
2961	The Wien-bridge oscillator is useful ___
2962	The voltage that starts an oscillator is caused by ___
2963	An oscillator always needs an amplifier with ___
2964	A window comparator ___
2965	The positive clamper adds ___
2966	The output of an active positive clamper is ___
2967	If the reference voltage is zero, the output of an active positive limiter is ___
2968	In an active peak detector, the discharging time constant is ___
2969	An active half-wave rectifier has a knee voltage of ___
2970	In an op-amp integrator, the current through the input resistor flows into the ___
2971	The trip point of a comparator is the input voltage that causes ___
2972	The op-amp integrator uses ___
2973	A ramp of voltage ___
2974	A relaxation oscillator depends on the charging of a capacitor through a ___
2975	A Schmitt trigger ___
2976	A Schmitt trigger uses ___
2977	To work properly, many IC comparators need an external ___
2978	A comparator with a trip point of zero is sometimes called a ___
2979	If the reference level is 2 V, the output is ___
2980	If AOL = 200,000, the closed-loop knee voltage of a silicon diode is ___
2981	The output of a relaxation oscillator is a ___
2982	If pulse width decreases and the period stays the same, the duty cycle ___
2983	When a large sine wave drives a Schmitt trigger, the output is a ___
2984	If the input is a rectangular pulse, the output of an integrator is a ___
2985	Hysteresis prevents false triggering associated with ___
2986	The voltage out of a Schmitt trigger is ___
2987	To detect when the input is greater than a particular value, use a ___
2988	In a nonlinear op-amp circuit, the ___
2989	To correct for limited GBW, a designer may use ___
2990	If GBW is limited, the Q of the stage will ___
2991	The state-variable filter ___
2992	The biquadratic filter ___
2993	The all-pass filter is sometimes called a ___
2994	A second-order all-pass filter can vary the output phase from ___
2995	The all-pass filter is used when ___
2996	When Q is greater than 1, a bandpass filter should be built with ___
2997	If BW increases, the ___
2998	With Sallen-Key high-pass filters, the pole frequency must be ___
2999	The Q of a Sallen-Key second-order stage depends on the ___
3000	To get a Chebyshev response with a 12th-order filter, the stages need to have ___
3001	To get a Butterworth response with an 8th-order filter, the stages need to have ___
3002	To build a 10th-order filter, we should cascade ___
3003	Sallen-Key filters are also called ___
3004	A first-order stage cannot have a ___
3005	A first-order active-filter stage has ___
3006	The filter with the slowest rolloff rate is the ___
3007	Linear phase shift is equivalent to ___
3008	The elliptic approximation has a ___
3009	If n = 10, the approximation with the fastest rolloff in the transition region is ___
3010	If a Butterworth filter has 9 second-order stages, its rolloff rate is ___
3011	If a filter has six second-order stages and one first-order stage, the order is ___
3012	The approximation that distorts digital signals the least is the ___
3013	The approximation with a rippled passband is ___
3014	The approximation with a maximally-flat passband is ___
3015	The all-pass filter has ___
3016	A bandstop filter is sometimes called a ___
3017	The Q of a narrowband filter is always ___
3018	The center frequency of a bandpass filter is always equal to ___
3019	The region between the passband and the stopband is called the ___
3020	If an op amp has only a positive supply voltage, its output cannot ___
3021	When a JFET is used in an AGC circuit, it acts like a ___
3022	An op amp with a rail-to-rail output ___
3023	A D/A converter with four inputs has ___
3024	When we trim a resistor, we are ___
3025	A thermistor converts ___
3026	An input transducer converts ___
3027	The purpose of AGC is to ___
3028	The Howland current source produces a ___
3029	In a voltage-controlled current source, ___
3030	A D/A converter is an application of the ___
3031	In an averaging circuit, the input resistances are ___
3032	Guard driving reduces the ___
3033	In the classic three op-amp instrumentation amplifier, the differential voltage gain is usually produced by the ___
3034	The input signal for an instrumentation amplifier usually comes from ___
3035	In a differential amplifier, the CMRR is limited mostly by ___
3036	Given a voltage reference of +2.5 V, we can get a voltage reference of +15 V by using a ___
3037	A current booster on the output of an op amp will increase the short-circuit current by ___
3038	An instrumentation amplifier has a high ___
3039	In a controlled current source with op amps, the circuit acts like a ___
3040	To use an op amp, you need at least ___
3041	In an ac amplifier using an op amp with coupling and bypass capacitors, the output offset voltage is ___
3042	In a linear op-amp circuit, the ___
3043	The closed-loop input impedance in a VCVS amplifier is ___
3044	An ICIS amplifier is saturated ___
3045	A VCVS amplifier has no output voltage ___
3046	An ICVS amplifier is saturated ___
3047	Negative feedback does not improve ___
3048	For a given op amp, which of these is constant?
3049	The input impedance of a current-to-voltage converter is ___
3050	In a current-to-voltage converter, the input current flows ___
3051	Current cannot flow to ground through ___
3052	The transresistance of an amplifier is the ratio of its ___
3053	The voltage between the input terminals of a real op amp is ___
3054	A voltage follower has a voltage gain of ___
3055	Negative feedback reduces the ___
3056	With an ICVS amplifier, the circuit approximates an ideal ___
3057	The closed-loop input impedance with an ICVS amplifier is ___
3058	The loop gain AOLB ___
3059	The open-loop voltage gain equals the ___
3060	In a VCVS amplifier, any decrease in open-loop voltage gain produces an increase in ___
3061	An ICVS amplifier has no output voltage ___
3062	The feedback fraction B ___
3063	When an op amp is not saturated, the voltages at the noninverting and inverting inputs are ___
3064	The voltage between the input terminals of an ideal op amp is ___
3065	A VCVS amplifier approximates an ideal ___
3066	How many types of negative feedback are there?
3067	With negative feedback, the returning signal ___
3068	The voltage follower has a ___
3069	The noninverting amplifier has a ___
3070	The closed-loop voltage gain of an inverting amplifier equals ___
3071	A 741C has ___
3072	When slew-rate distortion of a sine wave occurs, the output ___
3073	The voltage gain of an op amp is unity at the ___
3074	Above the cutoff frequency, the voltage gain of a 741C decreases approximately ___
3075	A 741C has supply voltages of plus and minus 15 V. If the load resistance is large, the MPP value is ___
3076	An op amp has an open base resistor ___
3077	If the frequency is greater than the power bandwidth, ___
3078	The initial slope of a sine wave increases when ___
3079	The unity-gain frequency equals the product of closed- loop voltage gain and the ___
3080	The 741C has a unity-gain frequency of ___
3081	The open-loop cutoff frequency of a 741C is controlled by ___
3082	If the two supply voltages are plus and minus 15 V, the MPP value of an op amp is closest to ___
3083	An LF157A is a ___
3084	The input impedance of a BIFET op amp is ___
3085	A 741C cannot work without ___
3086	A 741C uses ___
3087	The power bandwidth increases when ___
3088	When the initial slope of a sine wave is greater than the slew rate, ___
3089	The initial slope of a sine wave is directly proportional to ___
3090	If the cutoff frequency is 15 Hz and the midband open- loop voltage gain is 1,000,000, the unity-gain frequency is ___
3091	The cutoff frequency of an op amp equals the unity-gain frequency divided by ___
3092	At the unity-gain frequency, the open-loop voltage gain is ___
3093	A compensating capacitor prevents ___
3094	What usually controls the open-loop cutoff frequency of an op amp?
3095	With both bases grounded, the only offset that produces an error is the ___
3096	The input offset current is usually ___
3097	The typical input stage of an op amp has a ___
3098	The common-mode rejection ratio is ___
3099	When the two bases are grounded in a diff amp, the voltage across each emitter diode is ___
3100	The common-mode voltage gain of a diff amp is equal to RC divided by ___
3101	The tail of a diff amp acts like a ___
3102	The input stage of an op amp is usually a ___
3103	The common-mode voltage gain is ___
3104	A common-mode signal is applied to ___
3105	One source of output error voltage is ___
3106	When the two input terminals of a diff amp are grounded, ___
3107	A dc signal has a frequency of ___
3108	The input impedance of a diff amp equals re’ times ___
3109	The voltage gain of a diff amp with a differential output is equal to RC divided by ___
3110	The tail current equals the ___
3111	The input offset current equals the ___
3112	The node voltage at the top of the tail resistor is closest to ___
3113	The tail current of a diff amp is ___
3114	Components are soldered together in ___
3115	The op amp can amplify ___
3116	The voltage gain of an amplifier decreases 20 dB per decade above 20 kHz ___
3117	If you want to improve the high-frequency response of an amplifier, which of these would you try?
3118	At the lower or upper cutoff frequency, the voltage gain is ___
3119	The stray-wiring capacitance has an effect on the ___
3120	At low frequencies, the coupling capacitors produce a decrease in ___
3121	Frequency response is a graph of voltage gain versus ___
3122	A latch is based on ___
3123	A four-layer diode is sometimes called a ___
3124	Exceeding the critical rate of rise produces ___
3125	Any thyristor can be turned off with ___
3126	The trigger voltage of an SCR is closest to ___
3127	A Shockley diode is the same as a ___
3128	Any thyristor can be turned on with ___
3129	The unijunction transistor acts as a ___
3130	The triac is equivalent to ___
3131	The diac is a ___
3132	The photo-SCR responds to ___
3133	When a crowbar is used with a power supply, the supply needs to have a fuse or ___
3134	An RC snubber protects an SCR against ___
3135	The usual way to protect a load from excessive supply voltage is with a ___
3136	SCRs are ___
3137	A SCR is usually turned on by ___
3138	A silicon controlled rectifier has ___
3139	The minimum anode current that keeps a thyristor turned on is called the ___
3140	The only way to stop a four-layer diode that is conducting is by ___
3141	The minimum input current that can turn on a thyristor is called the ___
3142	To turn on a four-layer diode, you need ___
3143	A latch always uses ___
3144	Positive feedback means the returning signal ___
3145	A thyristor can be used as ___
3146	The RDS(on) of a power FET
3147	The high output of a CMOS inverter is ___
3148	With CMOS, the upper MOSFET is ___
3149	An n-channel E-MOSFET conducts when it has ___
3150	Most power FETS are ___
3151	Most small-signal E-MOSFETs are found in ___
3152	When the internal temperature increases in a power FET, the ___
3153	Power FETs are ___
3154	The main advantage of CMOS is its ___
3155	CMOS devices use ___
3156	With active-load switching, the upper E-MOSFET is a ___
3157	VGS(on) is always ___
3158	CMOS stands for ___
3159	An E-MOSFET that operates at cutoff or in the ohmic region is an example of ___
3160	An E-MOSFET with its gate connected to its drain is an example of ___
3161	An ordinary resistor is an example of ___
3162	The VGS(on) of an n-channel E-MOSFET is
3163	Which of these may appear on the data sheet of an enhancement-mode MOSFET?
3164	The voltage that turns on an EMOS device is the ___
3165	Which of the following devices revolutionized the computer industry?
3166	Transconductance indicates how effectively the input voltage controls the
3167	Transconductance is measured in ___
3168	To get a negative gate-source voltage in a self-biased JFET circuit, you must have a ___
3169	Self-bias produces ___
3170	The easiest way to bias a JFET in the ohmic region is with ___
3171	If a JFET has IDSS = 10 mA and VP = 2 V, then RDS equals
3172	When the gate voltage becomes more negative in an n- channel JFET, the channel between the depletion layers ___
3173	When a JFET is cut off, the depletion layers are ___
3174	VHF stands for frequencies from ___
3175	A cascode amplifier has the advantage of ___
3176	The input signal used with a JFET analog switch should be ___
3177	When the input signal is large, a source follower has ___
3178	The transconductance increases when the drain current approaches ___
3179	The transconductance curve is ___
3180	RDS equals pinchoff voltage divided by the ___
3181	When the drain saturation current is less than IDSS, a JFET acts like a ___
3182	The pinchoff voltage has the same magnitude as the ___
3183	Compared to a bipolar transistor, the JFET has a much higher ___
3184	The gate-source diode of a JFET should be ___
3185	The gate controls ___
3186	The input impedance of a JFET ___
3187	A unipolar transistor uses ___
3188	A JFET ___
3189	The ac emitter resistance of an emitter follower ___
3190	For a class B push-pull emitter follower to work properly, the emitter diodes must ___
3191	The zener current in a zener follower is ___
3192	A small quiescent current is necessary with a class B push-pull amplifier to avoid ___
3193	The ac resistance of compensating diodes ___
3194	Thermal runaway is ___
3195	The transistors of a class B push-pull emitter follower are biased at or near ___
3196	If a CE stage is direct coupled to an emitter follower, how many coupling capacitors are there between the two stages?
3197	The distortion in an emitter follower is ___
3198	Usually, the distortion in an emitter follower is ___
3199	If R1 is open in an emitter follower, which of these is true?
3200	If the generator voltage is 5 mV in an emitter follower, the output voltage across the load is closest to ___
3201	The ac load line of the emitter follower is ___
3202	A Darlington transistor has ___
3203	A square wave out of an emitter follower implies ___
3204	If the load resistance of an emitter follower is very large, the external ac emitter resistance equals ___
3205	If the Q point is at the middle of the dc load line, clipping will first occur on the ___
3206	If the input voltage to an emitter follower is too large, the output voltage will be ___
3207	The ac load line of an emitter follower is usually ___
3208	The output voltage of an emitter follower is approximately ___
3209	The ac emitter current is closest to ___
3210	The input voltage to an emitter follower is usually ___
3211	The output voltage of an emitter follower is across the ___
3212	The ac base voltage of an emitter follower is across the ___
3213	The dc emitter current for class A emitter followers is ___
3214	The input impedance of the base of an emitter follower is usually ___
3215	The total ac emitter resistance of an emitter follower equals ___
3216	An emitter follower has a voltage gain that is ___
3217	If the load power is 3 mW and the dc power is 150 mW, the efficiency is ___
3218	When the ambient temperature increases, the maximum transistor power rating ___
3219	Heat sinks reduce the ___
3220	The power gain of an amplifier ___
3221	The current drain of an amplifier is the ___
3222	The instantaneous operating point swings-along the ___
3223	With class A, the output signal should be ___
3224	In a class A amplifier, the collector current flows for ___
3225	For a Q point near the center of the dc load line, clipping is more likely to occur on the ___
3226	The ac load line usually ___
3227	The quiescent collector current is the same as the ___
3228	The ac load line is the same as the dc load line when the ac collector resistance equals the ___
3229	The power rating of a transistor can be increased by ___
3230	The transistor dissipation in a class C amplifier decreases when the ___
3231	The bandwidth of a class C amplifier decreases when the ___
3232	The collector current of a class C amplifier ___
3233	The input signal of a class C amplifier ___
3234	Class C amplifiers are almost always ___
3235	One advantage of a class B push-pull amplifier is ___
3236	Push-pull is almost always used with ___
3237	When the Q point is at the center of the ac load line, the maximum peak-to-peak output voltage equals ___
3238	An amplifier has two load lines because ___
3239	For maximum peak-to-peak output voltage, the Q point should be ___
3240	The first stage of a preamp is ___
3241	A tuned RF amplifier is ___
3242	An audio amplifier operates in the frequency range of ___
3243	Transformer coupling is an example of ___
3244	For class B operation, the collector current flows ___
3245	If the emitter bypass capacitor is shorted, the ac input voltage will ___
3246	If the collector resistor is open, the ac input voltage will ___
3247	If the emitter resistor is open, the ac input voltage will ___
3248	If the output coupling capacitor is open, the ac input voltage will ___
3249	If the bypass capacitor is open, the ac input voltage will ___
3250	If the input coupling capacitor is open, the ac input voltage will ___
3251	If any capacitor is open, the ac output voltage will ___
3252	If the load resistance is open, the ac output voltage will ___
3253	If the collector resistor is shorted, the ac output voltage will ___
3254	If the emitter bypass capacitor opens, the ac output voltage will ___
3255	The ac collector resistance of the first stage includes the ___
3256	The feedback resistor ___
3257	In a swamped amplifier, the effects of the emitter diode become ___
3258	A swamped amplifier uses ___
3259	The emitter of a swamped amplifier ___
3260	To reduce the distortion of an amplified signal, you can increase the ___
3261	Compared to a CE stage, a swamped amplifier has an input impedance that is ___
3262	Voltage gain is directly proportional to ___
3263	The input impedance of the base increases when ___
3264	The voltage gain equals the output voltage divided by the ___
3265	The output voltage of a CE stage is usually ___
3266	The emitter is at ac ground in a ___
3267	The ac collector current equals the ac base current times the ___
3268	The ac emitter current times the ac emitter resistance equals the ___
3269	The ac collector current is approximately equal to the ___
3270	The voltage across the load resistor of a CE amplifier is ___
3271	The emitter of a CE amplifier has no ac voltage because of the ___
3272	The output voltage of a CE amplifier is ___
3273	A graph of ac emitter current versus ac base-emitter voltage applies to the ___
3274	To reduce the distortion in a CE amplifier, reduce the ___
3275	Ac emitter resistance equals 25 mV divided by the ___
3276	In a CE amplifier with a large input signal, the positive half cycle of the ac emitter current is ___
3277	When the ac base voltage is too large, the ac emitter current is ___
3278	The ac equivalent circuit is derived from the original circuit by shorting all ___
3279	Reducing all dc sources to zero is one of the steps in getting the ___
3280	The capacitors of a CE amplifier appear ___
3281	The capacitor that produces an ac ground is called a ___
3282	In a bypass circuit, the top of a capacitor is ___
3283	A coupling capacitor is ___
3284	The current in a coupling circuit for high frequencies is ___
3285	For dc, the current in a coupling circuit is ___
3286	With pnp voltage-divider bias, you must use ___
3287	The currents of a pnp transistor are ___
3288	Which is the largest current in a pnp transistor?
3289	The current gain of a pnp transistor is ___
3290	The majority carriers in the emitter of a pnp transistor are ___
3291	The Q point of TSEB does not depend on the ___
3292	In TSEB, the base current must be very ___
3293	If the emitter resistor opens with TSEB, the collector voltage will ___
3294	If the emitter resistance increases with TSEB, the collector voltage will ___
3295	If a splash of solder shorts the collector resistor of TSEB, the collector voltage will ___
3296	If the emitter resistance doubles with TSEB, the collector current will ___
3297	The base voltage of two-supply emitter bias (TSEB) is ___
3298	The Q point of a VDB circuit is ___
3299	If the collector resistance increases in a VDB circuit, the collector voltage will ___
3300	If the emitter resistance doubles in a VDB circuit, the collector current will ___
3301	Base bias is associated with ___
3302	If the emitter resistance increases in a VDB circuit, the collector voltage ___
3303	The collector voltage of a VDB circuit is not sensitive to changes in the ___
3304	VDB normally operates in the ___
3305	VDB needs ___
3306	VDB has a stable Q point like ___
3307	With VDB, an increase in emitter resistance will ___
3308	VDB is noted for its ___
3309	With voltage-divider bias, the base voltage is ___
3310	For emitter bias, the voltage across the emitter resistor is the same as the voltage between the emitter and the ___
3311	For emitter bias, the voltage at the emitter is 0.7 V less than the ___
3312	If the emitter resistance decreases, the ___
3313	If the emitter resistance decreases, the collector voltage ___
3314	When the current gain increases from 50 to 300 in an emitter-biased circuit, the collector current ___
3315	If the collector resistor is open, the collector voltage is ___
3316	If the emitter resistor is open, the collector voltage is ___
3317	If the current gain is unknown in an emitter-biased circuit, you cannot calculate the ___
3318	The first step in analyzing emitter-based circuits is to find the ___
3319	A circuit with a fixed emitter current is called ___
3320	When there is no base current in a transistor switch, the output voltage from the transistor is ___
3321	When the Q point moves along the load line, the voltage increases when the collector current ___
3322	The base current is 50 microamp ___
3323	If the collector resistor decreases to zero in a base-biased circuit, the load line will become ___
3324	If the base resistor is shorted, the transistor will probably be ___
3325	If the base supply voltage is disconnected, the collector- emitter voltage will equal ___
3326	Suppose the base resistor is open ___
3327	If the base supply voltage increases, the Q point moves ___
3328	If a transistor operates at the middle of the load line, an increase in the current gain will move the Q point ___
3329	If a transistor operates at the middle of the load line, an increase in the base resistance will move the Q point ___
3330	Three different Q points are shown on a load line ___
3331	Ignoring the bulk resistance of the collector diode, the collector-emitter saturation voltage is ___
3332	If the base resistor is very small, the transistor will operate in the ___
3333	When the base resistor decreases, the collector voltage will probably ___
3334	As the temperature increases, the current gain ___
3335	When the collector current increases, what does the current gain do?
3336	The graph of current gain versus collector-current indicates that the current gain ___
3337	The current gain of a transistor is defined as the ratio of the collector current to the ___
3338	If the base resistor is open, what is the collector current?
3339	The base-emitter voltage of the second approximation is ___
3340	In the active region, the collector current is not changed significantly by ___
3341	If you recalculate the collector-emitter voltage with the second approximation, the answer will usually be ___
3342	The base-emitter voltage of an ideal transistor is ___
3343	If the base current is 100 mA and the current gain is 30, the collector current is ___
3344	A transistor acts like a diode and a ___
3345	A small collector current with zero base current is caused by the leakage current of the ___
3346	The power dissipated by a transistor approximately equals the collector current times ___
3347	The collector-emitter voltage is usually ___
3348	The base-emitter voltage is usually ___
3349	If the current gain is 200 and the collector current is 100 mA, the base current is ___
3350	What is the most important fact about the collector current?
3351	When a free electron recombines with a hole in the base region, the free electron becomes ___
3352	In a normally biased npn transistor, the electrons in the emitter have enough energy to overcome the barrier potential of the ___
3353	The fact that only a few holes are in the base region means the base is ___
3354	Increasing the collector supply voltage will increase ___
3355	The current gain of a transistor is the ratio of the ___
3356	Most of the electrons that flow through the base will ___
3357	Most of the electrons in the base of an npn transistor do not recombine because they ___
3358	Most of the electrons in the base of an npn transistor flow ___
3359	The base of an npn transistor is thin and ___
3360	For normal operation of the transistor, the collector diode has to be ___
3361	The emitter diode is usually ___
3362	The barrier potential across each silicon depletion layer is ___
3363	In an npn transistor, the majority carriers in the base are ___
3364	Who invented the first junction transistor?
3365	What is one important thing transistors do?
3366	A transistor has how many doped regions?
3367	For typical operation, you need to use reverse bias with a ___
3368	The diode with a forward voltage drop of approximately 0.25 V is the ___
3369	To isolate an output circuit from an input circuit, which is the device to use?
3370	A blown-fuse indicator uses a ___
3371	Which of the following has a negative-resistance region?
3372	The device to use for rectifying a weak ac signal is a ___
3373	The varactor is usually ___
3374	When the reverse voltage increases, the capacitance ___
3375	If the depletion layer gets wider, the capacitance ___
3376	The device associated with voltage-controlled capacitance is a ___
3377	When the light increases, the reverse minority carrier current in a photodiode ___
3378	A photodiode is normally ___
3379	To display the digit 8 in a seven-segment indicator, ___
3380	Breakdown does not destroy a zener diode provided the zener current is less than the ___
3381	The capacitance of a varactor diode increases when the reverse voltage across it ___
3382	At high frequencies, ordinary diodes don’t work properly because of ___
3383	If the zener diode in a zener regulator is connected with the wrong polarity, the load voltage will be closest to ___
3384	When the source voltage increases in a zener regulator, which of these currents remains approximately constant?
3385	If the load resistance decreases in a zener regulator, the series current ___
3386	If the load resistance decreases in a zener regulator, the zener current ___
3387	In a loaded zener regulator, which is the largest current?
3388	The load voltage is approximately constant when a zener diode is ___
3389	In the second approximation, the total voltage across the zener diode is the sum of-the breakdown voltage and the voltage across the ___
3390	If the series resistance decreases in an unloaded zener regulator, the zener current ___
3391	The voltage across the zener resistance is usually ___
3392	A zener diode ___
3393	Which of these is the best description of a zener diode?
3394	What is true about the breakdown voltage in a zener diode?
3395	If the filter capacitance is increased, the ripple will ___
3396	If the secondary voltage increases in a bridge rectifier with a capacitor-input filter, the load voltage will ___
3397	The diodes in a bridge rectifier each have a maximum dc current rating of 2 A ___
3398	If the filtered load current is 10 mA, which of the following has a diode current of 10 mA?
3399	With the same secondary voltage and filter, which produces the least load voltage?
3400	With the same secondary voltage and filter, which has the most ripple?
3401	If line frequency is 60 Hz, the output frequency of a bridge rectifier is ___
3402	If line frequency is 60 Hz, the output frequency of a half-wave rectifier is ___
3403	With a full-wave rectified voltage across the load resistor, load current flows for what part of a cycle?
3404	The voltage out of a bridge rectifier is a ___
3405	Line voltage may be from 105 V rms to 125 rms in a half- wave rectifier ___
3406	With a half-wave rectified voltage across the load resistor, load current flows for what part of a cycle?
3407	What is the peak secondary voltage if 115 V rms is applied to the primary winding?
3408	In a step-down transformer, which is larger?
3409	If the resistor is ungrounded, the voltage measured with a DMM between the top of the resistor and ground is closest to ___
3410	The only time you have to use the third approximation is when ___
3411	The second approximation works well when ___
3412	The ideal diode is usually adequate when ___
3413	If the bulk resistance is zero, the graph above the knee becomes ___
3414	The bulk resistance of a 1N4001 is ___
3415	How much forward diode voltage is there with the ideal- diode approximation?
3416	How much current is there through the second approximation of a silicon diode when it is reverse biased?
3417	How much voltage is there across the second approximation of a silicon diode when it is forward biased?
3418	The reverse current consists of minority-carrier current and ___
3419	The knee voltage of a diode is approximately equal to the ___
3420	When the diode current is large, the bias is ___
3421	How is a nonconducting diode biased?
3422	What kind of a device is a diode?
3423	What kind of device is a resistor?
3424	When the graph of current versus voltage is a straight line, the device is referred to as ___
3425	When a diode is forward-biased, the recombination of free electrons and holes may produce ___
3426	When the reverse voltage increases from 5 to 10 V, the depletion layer ___
3427	Diffusion of free electrons across the junction of an unbiased diode produces ___
3428	The voltage where avalanche occurs is called the ___
3429	Surface-leakage current is part of the ___
3430	In a silicon diode the reverse current is usually ___
3431	To produce a large forward current in a silicon diode, the applied voltage must be greater than ___
3432	What is the barrier potential of a silicon diode at room temperature?
3433	What causes the depletion layer?
3434	Which of the following cannot move?
3435	Which of the following describes a p-type semiconductor?
3436	A p-type semiconductor contains holes and ___
3437	Which of the following describes an n-type semiconductor?
3438	Positive ions are atoms that have ___
3439	How many electrons are there in the valence orbit of a silicon atom within a crystal?
3440	Which of the following is approximately equal to room temperature?
3441	Which of the following doesn’t fit in the group?
3442	An external voltage source is applied to a p-type semiconductor ___
3443	Suppose an intrinsic semiconductor has 1 billion free electrons at room temperature ___
3444	Silver is the best conductor. How many valence electrons do you think it has?
3445	How many free electrons does a p-type semiconductor contain?
3446	Holes are the minority carriers in which type of semiconductor?
3447	If you wanted to produce a p-type semiconductor, which of these would you use?
3448	A donor atom has how many valence electrons?
3449	Holes act like ___
3450	The flow of valence electrons to the left means that holes are flowing to the ___
3451	The number of free electrons and holes in an intrinsic semiconductor increases when the temperature ___
3452	At room temperature an intrinsic semiconductor has ___
3453	At absolute zero temperature an intrinsic semiconductor has ___
3454	Absolute zero temperature equals ___
3455	In an intrinsic semiconductor, the number of free electrons ___
3456	A conductor has how many holes?
3457	When a voltage is applied to a semiconductor, holes will flow ___
3458	A conductor has how many types of flow?
3459	The valence electron of a conductor is also called a ___
3460	The amount of time between the creation of a hole and its disappearance is called ___
3461	At room temperature an intrinsic silicon crystal acts approximately like ___
3462	The merging of a free electron and a hole is called ___
3463	Each valence electron in an intrinsic semiconductor establishes a ___
3464	Silicon atoms combine into an orderly pattern called a ___
3465	How many protons does the nucleus of a silicon atom contain?
3466	Which is the most widely used semiconductor?
3467	How many valence electrons does a silicon atom have?
3468	The valence electron of a copper atom experiences what kind of attraction toward the nucleus?
3469	Assume the valence electron is removed from a copper atom ___
3470	The net charge of a neutral copper atom is ___
3471	The nucleus of a copper atom contains how many protons?
3472	Definitions are ___
3473	Laws are proved by ___
3474	Derivations are ___
3475	One way to short a device is ___
3476	Norton’s theorem replaces a complicated circuit facing a load by an ___
3477	Thevenin’s theorem replaces a complicated circuit facing a load by an ___
3478	The current out of an ideal current source ___
3479	The voltage out of an ideal voltage source ___
3480	Treating a connecting wire as a conductor with zero resistance is an example of the ___
3481	An ideal voltage source and an internal resistance is an example of the ___
3482	A shorted resistor has ___
3483	An open resistor has ___
3484	A cold-solder joint ___
3485	A solder bridge ___
3486	The Norton current is sometimes called the ___
3487	To get the Norton current, you have to ___
3488	To get the Thevenin voltage, you have to ___
3489	The Thevenin resistance is equal in value to the ___
3490	The Thevenin voltage is the same as the ___
3491	If a load resistance is 1 kohm, a stiff current source has a resistance of ___
3492	An ideal current source has ___
3493	If a load resistance is 1 kohm, a stiff voltage source has a resistance of ___
3494	A real voltage source has ___
3495	An ideal voltage source has ___
3496	An external pass transistor is used for ___
3497	The LM317 is an example of an IC ___
3498	In a switching regulator, the control transistor is conducting ___
3499	In a linear regulator, the control transistor is conducting ___
3500	The basic series regulator, ___
3501	All of the following are parts of a basic voltage regulator except ___
3502	In the case of line regulation, ___
3503	A PLL maintains lock by comparing ___
3504	If the control voltage to a VCO increases, the output frequency ___
3505	The output of the AM detector goes directly to the ___
3506	When a receiver is tuned from one RF frequency to another, the IF changes by an amount equal to the LO (local oscillator) frequency ___
3507	The IF in a receiver is the ___
3508	The frequency spectrum of a balanced modulator contains ___
3509	Amplitude modulation is basically a ___
3510	When the two inputs of a multiplier are connected together, the device operates as a ___
3511	The internal attenuation of a multiplier is called the ___
3512	In order to handle all combinations of input voltage polarities, a multiplier must have ___
3513	The detector or discriminator in an AM or an FM receiver ___
3514	An FM receiver has an IF frequency that is ___
3515	In an AM receiver, the local oscillator always produces a frequency that is above the incoming RF by ___
3516	In amplitude modulation, the pattern produced by the peaks of the carrier signal is called the ___
3517	Which of the following is not an input or output of the 555 timer?
3518	The operation of a relaxation oscillator is based on ___
3519	The main feature of a crystal oscillator is ___
3520	An oscillator whose frequency is charged by a variable dc voltage is known as ___
3521	Colpitts, Clapp, and Hartley are names refer to ___
3522	A phase-shift oscillator has ___
3523	The Wien-bridge oscillator’s positive feedback circuit is ___
3524	In a Wien-bridge oscillator, if the resistance in the positive ___
3525	For an oscillator to properly start, the gain around the feedback loop must initially be ___
3526	In a certain oscillator, AV = 50 ___
3527	A second condition for oscillation is ___
3528	One condition for oscillation is ___
3529	Wien-bridge oscillators are based on ___
3530	An oscillator differs from an amplifier because ___
3531	When the gain of a filter is minimum at its center frequency, it is ___
3532	A state-variable filter consist of ___
3533	When the low-pass and a high-pass filter are cascaded to get a band-pass filter, the critical frequency of the low- pass filter must be ___
3534	When filters are cascaded, the roll-off rate ___
3535	Sallen-Key filters are ___
3536	The number of poles in a filter affect the ___
3537	The damping factor of a filter is set by ___
3538	A maximally flat frequency response is known as ___
3539	The damping factor of an active filter determines ___
3540	The quality factor (Q) of a band-pass filter depends on ___
3541	A band-pass response has ___
3542	A single resistor and a single capacitor can be connected to form a filter with a roll-off rate of ___
3543	The term pole in filter terminology refers to ___
3544	If you subtract In y from In x, you get ___
3545	The logarithm of the product of two numbers is equal to the ___
3546	The operation of a logarithmic amplifier is based on ___
3547	An OTA is basically a ___
3548	The voltage gain of an OTA circuit is set by ___
3549	In an OTA, the transconductance is controlled by ___
3550	The term OTA means ___
3551	The stage of most isolation amplifiers are connected by ___
3552	The three parts of a basic isolation amplifier are ___
3553	Isolation amplifiers are used primarily in remote, isolated locations systems that isolate a single signal from many different signals ___
3554	Instrumentation amplifiers are used primarily in ___
3555	Typically, an instrumentation amplifier has an external resistor used for ___
3556	To make a basic instrumentation amplifier, it takes ___
3557	When you apply a triangular waveform to the input of a differentiator, the output is ___
3558	The output of a differentiator is proportional to ___
3559	In a differentiator, the feedback element is ___
3560	The rate of change of an integrator’s output voltage in response to a step input is set by ___
3561	For a step input, the output of an integrator is ___
3562	In an integrator, the feedback element is a ___
3563	In a scaling adder, the input resistors are ___
3564	An average amplifier has five inputs ___
3565	If the voltage gain for each input of a summing amplifier with a 4.7 kΩ feedback resistor is unity, the input resistor must have a value of ___
3566	A summing amplifier can have ___
3567	Using the output bounding in a comparator ___
3568	In a comparator with hysteresis ___
3569	A comparator with hysteresis ___
3570	The effect the noise can be reduced by ___
3571	Noise on the input of a comparator can cause the output to ___
3572	The zero-level detector is one application of a ___
3573	In a zero-level detector, the output changes state when the input ___
3574	If a certain op-amp has a closed-loop gain of 20 and an upper critical frequency of 10 MHz, the gain-bandwidth product is ___
3575	If a certain op-amp has a midrange open-loop gain of 200,000 and a unity gain frequency of 5 MHz, the gain- bandwidth product is ___
3576	When negative feedback is used, the gain-bandwidth product of an op-amp ___
3577	Each RC circuit in an op-amp ___
3578	Phase shift through an op-amp is caused by ___
3579	The frequency at which the open-loop gain is equal to 1 is called ___
3580	The midrange open-loop of an op amp ___
3581	The bandwidth of a dc amplifier having an upper critical frequency of 100 kHz is ___
3582	The bandwidth of an ac amplifier having a lower critical frequency of 1 kHz and an upper critical frequency of 10 kHz is ___
3583	A voltage follower ___
3584	The closed loop gain is ___
3585	A certain inverting amplifier has an Ri of 0.1 kΩ and an Rf of 100 kΩ ___
3586	Negative feedback ___
3587	The use of negative feedback ___
3588	For an op-amp with negative feedback, the output is ___
3589	The purpose of offset nulling is to ___
3590	The output of a particular op-amp increases 8 V in 12 μs. The slew rate is ___
3591	A certain op-amp has a bias current of 50μA and 49.3μA ___
3592	Of the valued listed, the most realistic value for open- loop gain of an op-amp is ___
3593	With zero volts on both inputs, an op-amp ideally should have an output equal to ___
3594	The CMRR is ___
3595	Common-mode gain is ___
3596	In the common mode, ___
3597	In the differential mode, ___
3598	When an op-amp is operated in the single-ended mode, the output is grounded ___
3599	A differential amplifier ___
3600	Which of the following characteristics does not necessarily apply to an op-amp?
3601	An integrated circuit (IC) op-amp has ___
3602	In a phototransistor, base current is ___
3603	The PUT is ___
3604	Which of the following is not a characteristic of the UJT ___
3605	The SCS can be turned off by ___
3606	The SCS can be turned on by ___
3607	The SCS differs from the SCR because ___
3608	The triac is ___
3609	The diac is ___
3610	The specified value of holding current for an SCR means that ___
3611	In the forward-blocking region, the SCR is ___
3612	An SCR can be turned off by ___
3613	An SCR differs from 4-layer diode because ___
3614	Once it conducting, a 4-layer diode can be turned off by ___
3615	A 4-layer didoe turns on when the anode to cathode voltage exceeds ___
3616	Common types of thyristors includes ___
3617	A thyristor has ___
3618	In the step response of a noninverting amplifier, a longer rise time means ___
3619	When the voltage gain of an amplifier is increased, the bandwidth ___
3620	The frequency at which an amplifier’s gain is 1 is called the ___
3621	Ideally, the midrange gain of an amplifier ___
3622	An amplifier has the following critical frequencies: 1.2 kHz, 950 Hz, 8 kHz, and 8.5 kHz. The bandwidth is ___
3623	The miller input capacitance of an amplifier is dependent, in part, on ___
3624	The gain of a certain amplifier decrease by 6 dB when the frequency is reduced from 1 kHz to 10 Hz. The roll-off is ___
3625	The bandwidth of an amplifier is determined by ___
3626	The high-frequency response of an amplifier is determined in part by ___
3627	The low-frequency response of an amplifier is determined in part by ___
3628	The transistor in a class C amplifier conducts for ___
3629	The efficiency of a class C amplifier is ___
3630	The power dissipation of a class C amplifier is normally ___
3631	The maximum efficiency of a class AB amplifier is ___
3632	If the load resistance is 50 Ω, the value of ___
3633	The maximum efficiency of a class B push-pull amplifier is ___
3634	A current mirror in a push-pull amplifier should give an
3635	A BJT class B push-pull amplifier with no transformer coupling uses ___
3636	Crossover distortion is a problem for ___
3637	The maximum efficiency of a class A power amplifier is ___
3638	The efficiency of a power amplifier is the ratio of the power delivered to the load to the ___
3639	For maximum output, a class A power amplifier must be maintain a value of quiescent current that is ___
3640	The peak current a class A power amplifier can deliver to a load depends on the ___
3641	A certain class A power amplifier delivers 5 W to a load with an input signal power of 100 mW. The power gain is ___
3642	If there is an internal open between the drain and source in a CS amplifier, the drain voltage is equal to ___
3643	The first stage has a voltage gain of 5 and the second stage has a voltage gain of 7 ___
3644	For small-signal operation, an n-channel JFET must be biased at ___
3645	If you are looking for both good voltage gain and high input resistance, you must use a ___
3646	The common-gate (CG) amplifier differs from both the CS and CD configuration in that it has a ___
3647	A certain common-drain (CD) amplifier with RS = 1.0 kΩ has a transconductance of 6000 μS ___
3648	A CS amplifier has a load resistance of ___
3649	A certain common-source amplifier has a voltage gain of 10 ___
3650	The value of the current source is dependent on the ___
3651	Ideally, the equivalent circuit of a FET contains ___
3652	If the source resistor is completely bypassed, the ___
3653	The voltage gain is ___
3654	In a common-source amplifier, the output voltage is 180Ëš out of phase with the input ___
3655	An n-channel D-MOSFET with positive VGS is operating in ___
3656	A MOSFET differs from a JFET mainly because ___
3657	The value of VGS for an approximately midpoint bias is ___
3658	For a certain JFET ___
3659	A certain JFET data sheet gives ___
3660	At cutoff, the JFET channel is ___
3661	If RD is decreased to 330 Ω, IDSS is ___
3662	Drain current in the constant-current area increases when ___
3663	IDSS is ___
3664	The constant-current area of a FET lies between ___
3665	For VGS = 0 V, the drain current becomes constant when VDS exceeds ___
3666	A JFET always operates with ___
3667	The channel of a JFET is between the ___
3668	The JFET is ___
3669	In a common-emitter amplifier with voltage-divider bias ___
3670	The input resistance of a common-base amplifier is ___
3671	In a certain emitter-follower circuit, the current gain is 50 ___
3672	Assuming the RE is completely bypassed at the operating frequency, the voltage gain is ___
3673	If a 10 mV signal is applied to the base of the emitter- follower circuit , the output signal is approximately ___
3674	For a common-collector amplifier ___
3675	A certain common-emitter amplifier has a voltage gain of ___
3676	If the dc emitter current in a certain transistor amplifier is 3 mA, the approximate value of ___
3677	The parameter hfe corresponds to ___
3678	A small-signal amplifier ___
3679	In a voltage-divider biased pnp transistor, there is no base current, but the base voltage is approximately correct ___
3680	In a voltage-divider biased npn transistor, if the lower voltage-divider resistor (the one connected to VCC) opens ___
3681	In a voltage-divider biased npn transistor, if the upper voltage-divider resistor ___
3682	Collector-feedback bias is ___
3683	In an emitter bias circuit, the emitter current ___
3684	Emitter bias is ___
3685	The disadvantage of base bias is that ___
3686	Voltage-divider bias ___
3687	In a certain voltage-divider biased npn transistor ___
3688	The input resistance at the base of a biased transistor depends mainly on ___
3689	If a sinusoidal voltage is applied to the base of a biased npn transistor and the resulting sinusoidal collector voltage is clipped near zero volts, the transistor is ___
3690	Ideally, a dc load line is s straight line drawn on the collector characteristics curves between ___
3691	If the base-emitter junction is open, the collector voltage is ___
3692	Once in saturation, a further increase in base current will ___
3693	To saturate a BJT, ___
3694	In saturation, is ___
3695	In cutoff is ___
3696	When operated in cutoff and saturation, the transistor acts like ___
3697	The bias condition for a transistor to be used as linear amplifier is called ___
3698	The approximate voltage across the forward-biased base emitter junction of a silicon BJT is ___
3699	If IC is 50 times larger than IB, then βDC is ___
3700	The βDC of a transistor is its ___
3701	The emitter current is always ___
3702	For operation as an amplifier, the base of a npn transistor must be ___
3703	In a pnp transistor, the p-region are ___
3704	The three terminals of a bipolar junction transistor are called ___
3705	An infrared LED is optically coupled to a photodiode ___
3706	A diode that has a negative resistance characteristics is the ___
3707	The internal resistance of a photodiode ___
3708	Compared to a visible red LED, an infrared LED ___
3709	An LED ___
3710	A varactor diode exhibits ___
3711	A no-load condition means that ___
3712	If a certain zener diode has a zener voltage of 3.6 V, it operates in ___
3713	The cathode of zener diode in a voltage regulator is normally ___
3714	If you are checking a 60 Hz full-wave bridge rectifier and observe that the output has a 60 Hz ripple ___
3715	If one of the diode in a bridge full-wave rectifier opens, the output is ___
3716	A 10 V peak-to-peak sinusoidal voltage is applied across a silicon diode and series resistor ___
3717	Load regulations is determined by ___
3718	Line regulation is determined by ___
3719	If the load resistance of a capacitor-filtered full-wave rectifier is reduced, the ripple voltage ___
3720	The ideal dc output voltage of a capacitor-input filter is equal to ___
3721	The total secondary voltage in a center-tapped full-wave rectifier is 125 rms ___
3722	When a 60 Hz sinusoidal voltage is applied to the input of a full-wave rectifier, the output frequency is ___
3723	When a 60 Hz sinusoidal voltage is applied to the input of a half-wave rectifier, the output frequency is ___
3724	If the anode is connected to the positive battery terminal, the cathode voltage with respect to the negative battery terminal is ___
3725	When a voltmeter is placed across a forward-biased diode, it will read a voltage approximately equal to ___
3726	When forward-biased, a diode ___
3727	For a silicon diode, the value of the forward-bias voltage typically ___
3728	Although current is blocked in reverse bias ___
3729	When diode is forward-biased ___
3730	To forward-bias a diode ___
3731	The term bias means ___
3732	The depletion region is consist of ___
3733	The depletion region is created by ___
3734	A pn junction is formed by ___
3735	Holes in an n-type semiconductor are ___
3736	The majority carriers in an n-type semiconductor are ___
3737	The purpose of a pentavalent impurity is to ___
3738	A trivalent impurity is added to silicon to create ___
3739	The process of adding an impurity to an intrinsic semiconductor is called ___
3740	The difference between an insulator and a semiconductor is ___
3741	In an intrinsic semiconductor ___
3742	The current in a semiconductor is produced by ___
3743	Each atom in a silicon crystal has ___
3744	In a semiconductor crystal, the atoms are held together by ___
3745	Recombination is when ___
3746	Electron-holes pairs are produced by ___
3747	The energy band in which free electrons exist is the ___
3748	The most widely used semiconductive material in electronic device is ___
3749	A positive ion is formed when ___
3750	Valence electrons are ___
3751	The valence shell in a silicon atom has the number designation of ___
3752	The atomic number of germanium is ___
3753	The atomic number of silicon is ___
3754	The nucleus of an atom is made up to ___
3755	An atom consist of ___
3756	Every known element has ___
3757	A preproduction model of a system built for testing and debugging ___
3758	This type of bus carries lines that control the operation of the memory from the microprocessor to the memory ___
3759	A table used by a PLD language, such as PALASM, to calculate the expected outputs for a set of inputs ___
3760	An input that disables multiplexers or demultiplexers when it is HIGH ___
3761	A circuit that goes through ___
3762	The time difference which results when a clock may not arrive at all flip-flops precisely at the same time ___
3763	How many flip-flops should be used to realize 32- count capacity?
3764	A state causing the flip- flop to change or reverse its state ___
3765	The state of a flip-flop when Q = 1 and Q’ = 0 ___
3766	The state of a flip-flop when Q = 0 and Q’ = 1 ___
3767	Duty cycle for repetitive waveform is defined as ___
3768	A diagram consisting of a set of circles, where each circle contains a number of state within it ___
3769	A multiplexer is described by its size through ___, where n = number of bits
3770	Asynchronous flip-flop line used to clear Q immediately to 0 ___
3771	A digital circuit that takes 4-bit BCD inputs and activates the required outputs to display the equivalent decimal digit on a 7-segment display ___
3772	Circuits made up of combination of logic gates, with no feedback from outputs to inputs ___
3773	A situation when a circuit’s output level for a given set of input conditions can be assigned as either a 1 or a 0 ___
3774	A bistate multivibrator has ___
3775	A decoder with 4 inputs can have a maximum of how many outputs?
3776	Data retrieval from a memory is termed as ___
3777	Class of mass memory devices that uses a laser beam to write and read onto a specified coated disk ___
3778	That part of a computer instruction that defines what type of operation the computer is to execute on a specified data ___
3779	A result which is obtained when a one is added to the least significant bit position of a binary number in the 1’s complement ___
3780	Which if the following is NOT an internal digital IC fault?
3781	How many neutrons does Uranium 238 have?
3782	Which of the following is the heaviest?
3783	What is the atomic number of copper?
3784	Which of the following constants is needed to calculate the wavelength of and electron when is treated as a wave?
3785	It is the energy of the highest energy electron of a metal at 0 degree Kelvin ___
3786	Amount of additional energy required for electronic emission of metals ___
3787	Find the charge in coulombs of the dielectric that has a positive charge of 14.5 x 10 to the 18th power protons
3788	Protons are about ___ heavier than electrons
3789	“When an atom gains an additional ___, it results to a negative ion”
3790	“In electricity, positive charge refers to ___”
3791	___ is the procedure by which an atom is given a net charge by adding or taking away electron
3792	A process of constant loses of free electrons and then regaining them is called ___
3793	Ion is ___?
3794	What will happen to an atom if an electron is either taken out or taken into the same atom?
3795	The definite discrete amount of energy required to move an electron from a lower shell to a higher shell ___
3796	Electric charge of neutron is the same as ___
3797	Which of the following is not a basic part of an atom?
3798	The lightest kind of atom of element ___
3799	What is the smallest element of a matter?
3800	“What composes all matter whether a liquid, solid or gas ?”
3801	What is the ratio of electron’s charge to its mass?
3802	A voltage regulator has a ripple rejection of -60 dB ___
3803	If the output of a voltage regulator varies from 20 to 19.8 V when the line voltage varies over its specified range, the source regulation is ___
3804	If the output of a voltage regulator varies from 15 to 14.7 V between the minimum and maximum load current, the load regulation is ___
3805	The discharging time constant of a peak detector is 10 ms ___
3806	The input voltage to a positive limiter is a triangular wave of 8 V pp and an average value of 0 ___
3807	The input to a peak detector is a triangular wave with a peak-to-peak value of 8 V and an average value of 0 ___
3808	If AOL = 200,000, the closed-loop knee voltage of a silicon diode is
3809	1 ppm is equivalent to ___
3810	An op amp has a voltage gain of 500,000 ___
3811	If funity is 10 MHz and midband open-loop voltage gain is 1,000,000, then the open-loop cutoff frequency of the op amp is ___
3812	If the unity-gain frequency is 5 MHz and the midband open-loop voltage gain is 200,000, the cutoff frequency is ___
3813	If the cutoff frequency is 15 Hz and the midband openloop voltage gain is 1,000,000, the unity-gain frequency is ___
3814	The voltage gain of an amplifier decreases 20 dB per decade above 20 kHz
3815	If f = 1 MHz, and f2 = 10 Hz, the ratio f/f2 represents how many decades?
3816	One frequency is 8 times another frequency ___
3817	Two stages have voltage gains of 100 and 200 ___
3818	Two stages have decibel voltage gains of 20 and 40 dB ___
3819	If the voltage gain is 2000, the decibel voltage gain is ___
3820	If the voltage gain is 100, the decibel voltage gain is ___
3821	If the voltage gain is 10, the decibel voltage gain is ___
3822	If the voltage gain doubles, the decibel voltage gain increases by ___
3823	If the power gain doubles, the decibel power gain increases by ___
3824	If a JFET has ___
3825	A Darlington transistor has a Beta of 8000 ___
3826	If an emitter follower has re’ = 10 ohm and re = 90 ohm, the voltage gain is approximately ___
3827	If an emitter follower has ___
3828	If Beta = 200 and re = 150 ohm, the input impedance of the base is approximately ___
3829	If RC = 3.6 kohm and RL = 10 kohm, the ac load resistance equals ___
3830	If the ac voltage across the emitter diode is 1 mV and the ac emitter current is 0.1 mA, the ac resistance of the emitter diode is ___
3831	If the current gain is 125, the collector current is closest in value to ___
3832	The collector current is 10 mA ___
3833	What is the PIV across each diode of a bridge rectifier with a secondary voltage of 20 V rms?
3834	If the load current is 5 mA and the filter capacitance is 1000uF, what is the peak-to-peak ripple out of a bridge rectifier?
3835	What is the peak load voltage out of a bridge rectifier for a secondary voltage of 15 V rms?
3836	We want a peak load voltage of 40 V out of a bridge rectifier ___
3837	What is the peak load voltage in a full-wave rectifier if the secondary voltage is 20 V rms?
3838	If the line voltage is 115 V rms, a turns ratio of 5: 1 means the rms secondary voltage is closest to ___
3839	Line voltage may be from 105 V rms to 125 rms in a halfwave rectifier ___
3840	A transformer has a turns ratio of 4: 1 ___
3841	If N1/N2 = 2, and the primary voltage is 120 V, what is the secondary voltage?
3842	Imagine a capacitor and resistor connected in series, such that the capacitive reactance is equal to  ˆ’200 Ω and the resistance is equal to 200 Ω at a frequency of 70 MHz ___
3843	Suppose a battery-powered circuit has 1.00 Ω of net resistance, and 15.0 A of current flows through it ___
3844	Suppose an audio amplifier produces 8.0 V rms output with 80 mV rms input ___
3845	What is the complex impedance of this circuit?
3846	The binary number 1001101 represents which decimal number?
3847	Suppose a coil and capacitor are connected in series, with jXL = j 40 and jXC =  ˆ’j70, and the coil has an internal resistance of 10 Ω ___
3848	Suppose you want to use a transformer to match the output of an audio amplifier to a speaker ___
3849	Imagine an inductor and resistor connected in series, such that the inductive reactance and the resistance are both equal to 400 Ω at a frequency of 100 MHz ___
3850	Imagine four 100-μH inductors connected in a 2 × 2 series-parallel combination ___
3851	Suppose an audio amplifier produces 100 W rms output when the input is 5.00 W rms ___
3852	What is the dc resistance of a component with a dc conductance of ___
3853	Suppose you want to use a transformer to obtain exactly 30 V rms ac from an electrical outlet that supplies exactly 120 V rms ac ___
3854	Imagine a circuit with 21 Ω of inductive reactance and 28 Ω of resistance ___
3855	Suppose a dc circuit has 10 kΩ of resistance, and a 12-V battery is connected to it ___
3856	What is the complex impedance of this combination?
3857	What is the frequency of a pure sine wave that has a period of 50 nanoseconds?
3858	Suppose an antenna has a radiation resistance of 35 Ω and a loss resistance of 15 Ω ___
3859	A resistor of 100 ohms carries 333 mA dc
3860	In a certain resistance-capacitance (RC) circuit, the current leads the voltage by 45 degrees ___
3861	A transformer has a primary-to-secondary turns ratio of 10:1 ___
3862	A coil has 20 mH of inductance ___
3863	A resistor has a positive temperature coefficient of 1.00 percent per degree C ___
3864	Three resistors, each of 30 ohms, are connected in parallel ___
3865	A circuit has a complex impedance of 9 + j12 ___
3866	Three resistances are in parallel, with values of 100, 200, and 300 ohms ___
3867	Two 400-μH inductors are connected in series ___
3868	A circuit has a battery of 3.0 V and a bulb with a resistance of 12.0 ohms ___
3869	A radio antenna receives 50 watts of RF power from a transmitter, and radiates 49 watts of that power into space ___
3870	An amplifier has an output signal voltage that is 35 times the input signal voltage ___
3871	An amplifier has a dc collector power input of 300 W, and is 75.0 percent efficient ___
3872	A power gain of 30 dB is equivalent to an amplification factor of ___
3873	An inductor shows 100 Ω of reactance at 30.0 MHz ___
3874	Three coils are connected in parallel ___
3875	A series circuit has a resistance of 600 Ω and a capacitance of 220 pF
3876	The period of a wave is ___
3877	A 200 Ω resistor is in series with a coil and capacitor; XL = 200 Ω and XC =  ˆ’100 Ω ___
3878	A series circuit has a resistance of 50 Ω and a capacitive reactance of  ˆ’37 Ω ___
3879	A capacitor of 470 pF is in parallel with an inductor of 4.44 μH ___
3880	A 50 Ω feed line needs to be matched to an antenna with a purely resistive impedance of 200 Ω A quarter-wave matching section should have ___
3881	Two inductors, having values of 140 μH and 1.50 mH, are connected in series ___
3882	Two complex impedances are in series ___
3883	A coil has an inductance of 750 μH ___
3884	Avcomplex impedance is represented by 34-j23 ___
3885	A transformer has a step-up turns ratio of 1:3.16 ___
3886	At a frequency of 2.55 MHz, a 330-pF capacitor has a reactance of ___
3887	How many degrees of phase change occur in a microsecond (a millionth of a second)?
3888	A transmission line carries 3.50 A of ac current and 150 V ac ___
3889	A transformer has a primary-to-secondary turns ratio of exactly 8.88:1 ___
3890	Four capacitors are connected in parallel ___
3891	A sine wave has a peak value of 30.0 V ___
3892	A 6.00-V battery is connected to a parallel combination of two resistors, whose values are 8.00 Ω 12.0 Ω ___
3893	A 100-W bulb burns for 100 hours ___
3894	Nine 90-ohm resistors are connected in a 3x- parallel network ___
3895	A 12-V battery is connected to a set of three resistors in series ___
3896	A 24-V battery is connected across a set of four resistors in parallel ___
3897	A battery delivers 12 V across a set of six 4- Ω voltage dividing combination ___
3898	A 6-V battery is connected across a series combination of resistors ___
3899	A battery supplies 6.0 V to a bulb rated at 12 W ___
3900	A resistor has a value of 680 ohms, and a tolerance of plus or minus 5 percent. Which of the following values indicates a reject ___
3901	A battery delivers 12 V to a bulb ___
3902	The attenuation of the feedback circuit must be ___
3903	If a certain op-amp has a closed-loop gain of 20 and an upper critical frequency of 10 MHz, the gain- bandwidth product is ___
3904	If a certain op-amp has a midrange open-loop gain of 200,000 and a unity gain frequency of 5 MHz, the gain-bandwidth product is ___
3905	A certain inverting amplifier has a closed-loop gain of 25 ___
3906	If the feedback resistor is open, the voltage gain is ___
3907	A certain inverting amplifier has an ___
3908	The output of a particular op-amp increases 8 V in 12 μs ___
3909	A certain op-amp has a bias current of 50μA and 49.3μA
3910	If Av(d) = 3500 and Acm = 0.35, the CMRR is
3911	At the upper critical frequency, the peak output voltage of a certain amplifier is 10 V ___
3912	In the midrange of an amplifier’s bandwidth, the peak output voltage is 6 V ___
3913	If the fr of the transistor used in a certain amplifier is 75 MHz and the bandwidth is 10 MHz, the voltage gain must be ___
3914	An amplifier has the following critical frequencies: 1.2 kHz, 950 Hz, 8 kHz, and 8.5 kHz ___
3915	The gain of a particular amplifier at a given frequency decreases by 6 dB when the frequency is doubled ___
3916	The gain of a certain amplifier decrease by 6 dB when the frequency is reduced from 1 kHz to 10 Hz ___
3917	The output of a certain two-supply class B push pull amplifier has a ___
3918	A certain class A power amplifier delivers 5 W to a load with an input signal power of 100 mW ___
3919	Two FET amplifier are cascaded ___
3920	A certain common-drain (CD) amplifier with ___
3921	If the load resistance is removed, the output voltage will ___
3922	A CS amplifier has a load resistance of 10 kΩ and ___
3923	If the source resistor is completely bypassed, the voltage gain is ___
3924	In a certain common-source (CS) amplifier ___
3925	For a certain p-channel JFET ___
3926	The input resistance is ___
3927	In a certain FET circuit ___
3928	The overall gain found can be expressed in decibels as ___
3929	A CE amplifier is driving a 10 kΩ load ___
3930	In a common-emitter amplifier with voltage- divider bias ___
3931	In a darlington pair configuration, each transistor has an ac beta of 125 ___
3932	For a common-emitter amplifier ___
3933	If a 10 mV signal is applied to the base of the emitter-follower circuit in, the output signal is approximately ___
3934	The ac input resistance at the base is ___
3935	If the dc emitter current in a certain transistor amplifier is 3 mA, the approximate value of r'<sub>e</sub> is
3936	In an emitter bias circuit ___
3937	In a certain voltage-divider biased npn transistor, VB is 2.95 V ___
3938	If the output of a transistor amplifier is 5 V rms and the input is 100 mV rms, the voltage gain is ___
3939	The data sheet for a particular zener gives ___
3940	For a certain 12 V zener diode, a 10 mA change in zener current produces a 0.1 V change in zener voltage ___
3941	If the input voltage to a voltage tripler has an rms value of 12 V, the dc output voltage is approximately ___
3942	A 60 V peak full-wave rectified voltage is applied to a capacitor-input filter ___
3943	A certain power supply filter produces an output with a ripple of 100 mV peak-to-peak and a dc value of 20 V ___
3944	When the rms output voltage of a bridge full wave rectifier is 20 V, the peak inverse voltage across the diodes is (neglecting the diode drop) ___
3945	When the peak output voltage is 100 V, the PIV for each diode in a center-tapped full-wave rectifier is (neglecting the diode drop) ___
3946	The average value of a full-wave rectified voltage with a peak value of 75 V is ___
3947	For the circuit in, the diode must be able to withstand a reverse voltage of ___
3948	The peak value of the input to a half-wave rectifier is 10 V ___
3949	The average value of a half-wave rectified voltage with a peak value of 200 V is ___
3950	A silicon diode is in series with 1.0 kΩ resistor and a 5 V battery ___
3951	A ___ is a program which converts instruction written in a source language into machine code which can be read and acted upon by the computer
3952	Digital ICs are mostly ___
3953	The arrow in the symbol of a transistor indicates the direction of ___
3954	Ionization current which is a positive-ion current produced by collision between electrons and residual gas molecules in an electron tube is also called ___
3955	For a conventional vacuum tube used in the UHF band ___
3956	A cold cathode diode is used as ___ tube
3957	Ionization of cold cathode diode takes place at ___ plate potential compared to hot cathode gas diode
3958	When the gas pressure in a gas-filled diode is increased, its PIV rating ___
3959	The ionization potential in a gas diode depends upon ___
3960	The internal resistance of a gas-filled tube is ___ that of a vacuum tube
3961	Vacuum tube rectifiers are ___ affected by the changes in temperatures
3962	The typical application of a cold cathode tube is as a ___
3963	What transformer secondary voltage is utilized in a center-tap circuit?
3964	A voltage amplifier is designed to have ___
3965	The load resistance R in a triode amplifier should be nearly ___ for good amplification
3966	What is one advantage of a pentode tube over a triode?
3967	What is provided by transformer coupling?
3968	In directly heated cathode, filament and cathode are ___
3969	What would cause the plate current to increase in a pentode tube?
3970	When a thyratron tube has fired one thing that will cause it to stop conducting is ___
3971	Which of the following is a desirable characteristic of an emitter?
3972	Which emitter is used in high voltage (>10 kV) applications?
3973	A tube tester is used to check a triode’s transconductance, which is the ratio of ___
3974	The screen grid is used to ___
3975	One advantage of a mercury vapor diode over the high rectifier is ___
3976	The internal resistance after ionization of a gas-filled tube is ___
3977	Which thermionic emitter has the highest opening temperature?
3978	A directly heated cathode has ___ warm-up time
3979	What is the work function of an oxide coated cathode?
3980	Which emission is most widely used in practice?
3981	Oxide coated emitters have electron emission of ___ per watt of heated power
3982	What is the amount of additional energy required to emit an electron from the surface of a metal?
3983	What is the typical operating temperature of an oxide coated cathode?
3984	The unit of work function of metals ___
3985	The electrons emitted by a thermionic emitter are called ___
3986	The transconductance of a pentode is ___ a triode
3987	The equation that defines the ac plate resistance of a vacuum tube?
3988	The filament voltage is a direct measure of ___
3989	A grid controlled vacuum tube acts as ___
3990	What is the phase difference of the output and input voltage of a grounded-cathode amplifier?
3991	The nose in a gas-filled tube is that of a vacuum tube ___
3992	What is the solid state equivalent of cold cathode diode?
3993	When the control grid of a triode is operated with positive potential with respect to cathode ___
3994	Plate saturation results when ___
3995	A vacuum tube is normally operated in the temperature saturation region ___
3996	Field emission is utilized in the mechanism of ___
3997	What is the real measure of valve’s amplification capability?
3998	Which emitter is most commonly used in the tubes of a radio receiver?
3999	What started the conduction in a cold cathode tube?
4000	The indirectly heated cathode of the diode is coated with ___
4001	Which can be used for proper high frequency amplification?
4002	A vacuum diode acts as a switch ___
4003	Valves in a radio receiver generally employ ___ heated cathodes
4004	Which of the following would have the most effect on decreasing the life of a vacuum tube?
4005	Which valve has the lowest amplification factor?
4006	For faithful amplification, the control grid should be ___ with respect to cathode
4007	The actual voltage gain of a triode amplifier is less than  µ due to ___
4008	A pentode is a ___ device
4009	A thyratron can be used as ___
4010	For the same plate voltage, a gas diode can conduct ___ the equivalent vacuum diode
4011	The anode-cathode potential of a gas-filled tube at which gas de-ionizes and stops conduction is called ___ potential
4012	Voltage amplifiers are operated as ___ amplifiers
4013	Which provides the best frequency response?
4014	What is the unit of transconductance?
4015	A vacuum tube is a ___ device
4016	The plate resistance of a tube is mainly due to ___
4017	The output stage of a practical amplifier always employs what coupling?
4018	The screen grid potential is kept ___ plate potential
4019	For the sample plate dissipation, the output power of a Class B push-pull circuit is nearly ___ that of Class A operation
4020	What is the typical plate efficiency of Class A amplifier?
4021	What operation results in severest distortion?
4022	A hard tube is defined as a tube with ___
4023	Directly heated cathode require ___ amount of heating
4024	A vacuum diode acts as a rectifier because of its ___ conduction
4025	Direct coupling is used for ___ amplification
4026	What is the typical value of ac plate resistance for a triode?
4027	The ___ voltage should be reduced to zero to stop conduction in a thyratron
4028	Once a thyratron is fired, its control grid over palate current ___
4029	A triode is normally operated with control grid at ___ potential with respect to cathode
4030	Which is the best tube for high frequency amplification?
4031	Which of the following defines the amplification factor of a vacuum tube?
4032	The voltage on the suppressor grid of a pentode is generally ___
4033	The equation that defines the dc plate resistance of a vacuum tube ___
4034	The peak inverse voltage of a diode is defined as the maximum allowable ___
4035	The grid to palate capacitance is least in ___ valve
4036	What is the solid state equivalent of thyratron?
4037	The cathode heating time of thermionic glass diode is ___ that of a vacuum diode
4038	What is the typical life span of an oxide coated emitter?
4039	When the temperature of an emitter is increased two times, the electron emission ___
4040	What emitter is used in X-ray tubes?
4041	The negative resistance characteristics of the tetrode is due to ___
4042	Before ionisation, a gas- filled tube has a ___ resistance
4043	Which tube generates the greatest noise?
4044	A vacuum tube will conduct only if its plate is ___ with respect to the cathode
4045	Which generates the least noise in operation?
4046	A vacuum diode can be used as ___
4047	For a given plate voltage, if negative potential on the control grid of triode is increased, the plate current ___
4048	What are the two principal electrodes in every tube?
4049	Monolithic ICs are ___
4050	In IC op-amps, one of the most important input characteristics is the ___ which is defined as the difference between the base currents
4051	When higher power ICs are needed, we can use ___
4052	The summing amplifier has two or more inputs, and its output voltage is proportional to the ___ of the algebraic sum of its input voltages
4053	The package suffix code for ceramic dual-in-line is ___
4054	What identifies the package style that houses the op amp chip?
4055	Which of the following is not part of the three temperature range codes of op amps for commercial, industrial and military applications?
4056	What is the letter prefix used by the Fairchild Semiconductor on their op-amp product?
4057	The letter prefix LM identifies which of the following manufacturers?
4058	The amplifier CMRR of  µA 741 op-amplifier is ___
4059	What is the absolute maximum rating for an op-amps differential input voltage?
4060	The absolute maximum rating for op-amps interval power dissipation is ___
4061	What provides a parameter specifying the maximum rate of change of the output when driven by a large step-input signal?
4062	A device that contains its own transistors, resistors and diodes ___
4063	A capacitor inside an op-amp that prevents oscillations ___
4064	The rate of gain reduction in operational amplifers ___
4065	The gain reduction in operational amplifier is known as ___
4066	What is the principal method used in the fabrication of semiconductor devices for hybrid and monolithic ICs?
4067	If the base 10 is called decimal number system, then the base 12 is called ___
4068	The unity gain frequency of an op-amp ___
4069	Which of the items below is equivalent to a relaxation oscillator?
4070	The typical dimension of a diode in a single IC chip is ___
4071	The typical dimension of a BJT in a single IC chip is ___
4072	The unwanted capacitance between connecting wires and ground ___
4073	The maximum rate that an output voltage of an op-amp can change ___
4074	The typical dimension of a MOSFET in a single IC ship is ___
4075	CMRR means ___
4076	In IC op-amps, the input bias current is defined as the ___
4077	The intel i486 32-bit microprocessor incorporates ___ transistors on a single chip
4078	A type of ground that appears at the inverting input of an op-amp that uses negative feedback
4079	The value of the input voltage that switches the output of a comparator or Schmitt trigger ___
4080	The charge-coupled device (CCD) is a unique and versatile semiconductor structure invented in 1969 by ___
4081	What is the most common method used for growth of single crystals for IC fabrication?
4082	What is the specific application of  µA741C op-amp ___
4083	Plastic dual-in-line for insertion into sockets has a package suffix code of ___
4084	Considered as the fundamental form of IC ___
4085	Microwave ICs cover the frequency range from ___
4086	In an op-amp integrator, the feedback path consist of ___
4087	In most modern IC op-amps, the 741 requires ___ power supplies
4088	To use a comparator for zero-level detection, the inverting input is connected to ___
4089	An oscillator is described by ___
4090	To convert a summing amplifier of an averaging amplifier ___
4091	An integrated circuit for both astable and monostable applications ___
4092	Most linear ICs are low-power devices with power dissipation ratings of ___
4093	A technique used to eliminate the need for inductive elements in monolithic integrated circuits ___
4094	The term monolithic is derived tom a combination of the Greek words monos and lithos which means ___
4095	The ___ of an op amp is its voltage gain when there is no negative feedback
4096	What is the typical input bias current of a 741 operational amplifier?
4097	What specification of an operational amplifier which tells how fast the output voltage can change?
4098	What is the slew rate of a 741 operational amplifier?
4099	In terms of circuit components, what does the term pole refer to?
4100	What is the summing point in op-amps?
4101	What is the highest undistorted frequency out of an op-amp for a given slew rate and peak voltage?
4102	MPP value in an op-amp is synonymous with ___
4103	A circuit whose components are soldered or otherwise connected mechanically ___
4104	What is the approximate short circuit current output of 741 op amp?
4105	What is the package suffix code for a plastic dual-in-line for surface mounting on PC board?
4106	The three most common package suffix codes are the following except one ___
4107	Most op-amps circuit use ___
4108	An op-amp circuit that has its output tied directly to the inverting input terminal is called a ___
4109	In the standard letter-number identification code of operational amplifiers, the letter prefix which normally consists of two or three letters identifies the ___
4110	What is the typical total power dissipated by the operational amplifier?
4111	What is the most popular IC used in timing circuits?
4112	Which of the item below is an advantage of a shunt regulator over a series type?
4113	What is the most commonly used type of linear IC?
4114	A base circuit that a designer can modify to get more advanced circuits ___
4115	A signal that is applied with equal strength to both inputs of a differential amplifier or an op-amp ___
4116	Which of the following IC processes analog signals?
4117	An IC op-amp that combines FETs and bipolar transistors ___
4118	For most commercial and industrial operations, ICs are tested in the temperature range of ___
4119	ICs for military and space applications are tested in the temperature range of ___
4120	Upon what principle does a relaxation oscillator operate?
4121	For a constant input voltage to an integrator, why is the voltage across the capacitor linear?
4122	After assembly, the ICs are tested and classified as either ___
4123	What is the typical input resistance of the op-amp amplifier when measured under open loop?
4124	Dual-in-line pick up (DIP) is the most popular IC package because ___
4125	ICs have advantages over discrete device circuits which is ___
4126	How is the output of a differentiator related to the input in an op-amp?
4127	The reason why integrated circuits are divided into digital linear categories is because ___
4128	What is VCO ___
4129	Integrated circuits having up to 9 gates is called ___
4130	Which integrated circuit is having 10 to 100 gates?
4131	The voltage gain of differential amplifier ___
4132	Which of the choices below are sources of output offset voltage?
4133	Which integrated circuit is having more that 100 gates?
4134	An integrator op-amp uses what element in the feedback path?
4135	What characteristic does not apply to an op-amp?
4136	Which integrated circuit is having more than 1000 gates?
4137	What process is used to produce IC semiconductor elements?
4138	What is a complete electronic circuit, containing transistors, diodes, resistors and capacitors processed on and contained entirely within a single chip of silicon?
4139	The op-amp comparator circuit uses ___
4140	What is the purpose of a comparator in op-amps?
4141	Which component cannot be fabricated into ICs?
4142	The integrated circuit was invented at Texas instrument in 1958 by ___
4143	Which dynamometer type has uniform scale?
4144	Transmit time is the time taken by the electrons on holes to pass from ___
4145	The ___ of a common collector configuration is unity
4146	Consider a zener diode with a slope resistance of 10 β in series with a 90 β resistor fed from a dc supply containing a ripple voltage of 20mV peak-to-peak ___
4147	The ratio output rms power in watts to the input dc power in watts in the different amplifier class is called ___
4148	The impedance of a load must match the impedance of the amplifier so that ___
4149	Minimum interference with frequency response can be given by ___
4150	The frequency response of the combined amplifier can be compared with ___
4151	The total decibel voltage gain of two cascaded voltage amplifier where individual voltage gains are 10 and 100 is ___
4152	The quiescent current of a FET amplifier is ___
4153	When negative current feedback is applied to an amplifier, its output impedance ___
4154	Transformer coupling can be used in ___ amplifiers
4155	The output transformer used in a power amplifier is a/an ___ transformer
4156	Power amplifiers generally use transformer coupling because transformer coupling provides ___
4157	A complementary-symmetry amplifier has ___
4158	The push-pull circuit must use ___ operation
4159	The driver stage usually employs ___ amplifier
4160	Comparatively, power amplifier has ___ β
4161	If the capacitor from emitter to ground in a common emitter amplifier is removed, the voltage gain ___
4162	Find the voltage drop developed across a D’ Arsonval meter movement having an internal resistance of 1 kfi and a full deflection current of 150uA
4163	Class C amplifiers are used as ___
4164	What is the maximum collector efficiency of a transformer coupled class A power amplifier?
4165	What is the maximum collector efficiency of a resistance loaded class A power amplifier?
4166	A class A power amplifier uses ___ transistor(s)
4167	In a common emitter amplifier, the capacitor from emitter to ground is called the ___
4168	When amplifiers are cascaded ___
4169	Which of the following is the other name of the output stage in an amplifier?
4170	CC configuration is used for impedance matching because its ___
4171	Which of the item below does not describe a common emitter amplifier?
4172	What is the most important characteristic of a common collector amplifier?
4173	For highest power gain, what configuration is used?
4174	The capacitors are considered in the ac equivalent circuit of a ___ transistor amplifier
4175	When a transistor amplifier feeds a load of low resistance, its voltage gain will be ___
4176	The output power of a transistor amplifier is more than the input power due to additional power supplied by ___
4177	What is the ideal maximum voltage gain of a common collector amplifier?
4178	Calculate the ripples of the filter output if a dc and ac voltmeter is used and measures the output signal from a filter circuit of ___
4179	The output signal of a common-collector amplifier is always ___
4180	A common emitter circuit is also called circuit ___
4181	What is the purpose of the emitter capacitor?
4182	The ac variations at the output side of power supply circuits are called ___
4183	What is the purpose of dc conditions in a transistor?
4184	An open fuse circuit has a resistance equal to ___
4185	An ideal differential amplifiers common mode rejection ratio is ___
4186	The current in any branch of a transistor amplifier that is operating is ___
4187	The current gain of an emitter follower is ___
4188	What is the gain of an amplifier with negative feedback if the feedback factor is 0.01?
4189	At zero signal condition, a transistor sees ___ load
4190	When a FET with a lower transconductance is substituted into a FET amplifier circuit, what happens?
4191	The common base (CB) amplifier has a compared to CE and CC ___ amplifier
4192	When the collector supply is 5V, then collector cut off voltage under dc condition is ___
4193	What is the device in a transistor oscillator?
4194	An oscillator converts ___
4195	What is the approximate gain of an amplifier with negative feedback?
4196	In an LC circuit, when the capacitor energy is maximum, the inductor energy is ___
4197	When a transistor is cut off ___
4198	What is the desired input impedance of a transistor?
4199	#VALUE!
4200	What is the phase difference between the output and the input voltage of a CE amplifier?
4201	An amplifier with efficiency of 85% is likely to be ___
4202	Which of the following is NOT an oscillator requirement?
4203	Series current negative feedback occurs when the feedback voltage is proportional to the output ___
4204	The number of transistor in a single stage amplifier is ___
4205	Which of the following is not a FET amplifier configuration?
4206	If you move towards an oscillating circuit, its frequency changes because of ___
4207	What oscillator circuit uses a tapped coil in the tuned circuit?
4208	The stability of a regulated power supply is equivalent to ___
4209	When shock-excited, a crystal will produce alternating emf longer than an LC circuit because ___
4210	The power input to a power amplifier is ___ quantity
4211	A class A power amplifier is otherwise known as ___
4212	In an LC oscillator, if the value of L is increased four times, then the frequency of oscillation is ___
4213	Cascaded amplifiers total decibel gain is equal to ___
4214	The frequency of the ripple voltage at the output of a full-wave rectifier at 60 cycles ___
4215	The approximate operating frequency of a phase shift oscillator is given by ___
4216	Which is a fixed-frequency oscillator ___
4217	Parasitic oscillations are caused by ___
4218	A buffer amplifier is used for ___
4219	The signal generator generally used in laboratories is oscillator ___
4220	Which of the following amplifier below is a choice when higher power gain is a requirement?
4221	Class A operation has a maximum possible efficiency of ___ percent
4222	In an LC oscillator, the frequency of oscillations is given by ___
4223	Low efficiency of a power amplifier results in ___
4224	Which operation gives the maximum distortion?
4225	The operating frequency of a Wien-bridge oscillator is given by ___
4226	Quartz crystal is most commonly used in crystal oscillators because ___
4227	Logic analyzer is used to ___
4228	One of the items below is a characteristic of cascaded amplifiers?
4229	Emitter follower is used for ___
4230	Feedback circuit usually employs ___ network
4231	In a phase shift oscillator, 180° phase-shift is obtained ___
4232	To sustain oscillations, the power gain of the amplifier may be ___
4233	What is the most stable sine-wave oscillator which uses piezo-electric quartz crystal?
4234	Class B operation has a maximum possible frequency of ___ percent
4235	When CE configuration is used for an oscillator, the voltage fed back must ___
4236	What is the phase difference between voltage across collector load and signal voltage in a common emitter amplifier?
4237	What is the purpose of capacitors in a transistor amplifier?
4238	The output signal of CE amplifier is always ___
4239	When the collector resistor in a common emitter amplifier is increased in value the voltage gain ___
4240	In a Colpitt’s oscillator, feedback is obtained ___
4241	When the gain versus frequency curve of a transistor amplifier is not flat, ___ distortion is present
4242	What is the most important consideration in power amplifiers?
4243	What application where one would most likely find a crystal oscillator?
4244	Emitter follower employs ___ negative feedback
4245	The term 1+ A β in the expression for gain with negative feedback is known as ___
4246	The bandwidth of an amplifier ___ when negative feedback is applied
4247	The crystal oscillator frequency is very stable due to ___ of the crystal
4248	An emitter follower is equivalent to ___
4249	What is the purpose of the bypass capacitor in a common-emitter amplifier?
4250	When crystal frequency increases with temperature, it has ___ temperature co- efficient
4251	Why is it that the size of a power transistor is made considerably large?
4252	What is usually employed at the output stage of an amplifier?
4253	The pad connects a 50 Ω generator to a 50 Ω load ___
4254	What is the axis that connects the corners of a crystal?
4255	What is the typical Q of a crystal?
4256	The input resistance of a common emitter amplifier is affected by ___
4257	What is the piezoelectric effect in a crystal?
4258	When the output of an amplifier is 10V and 100mV from the output is fed back to the input, feedback factor is ___
4259	What is the most costly coupling?
4260	Which of the items below is not a description of the two-stage amplifier?
4261	What type of feedback is used in Wien bridge oscillator?
4262	What capacitors are used in transistor amplifiers?
4263	The input impedance of which amplifier depends strongly on load resistance?
4264	When the gain is 20 without feedback and 12 with negative feedback, feedback factor is ___
4265	In phase-shift oscillator, what are the frequency determining elements?
4266	In a phase-shift oscillator, ___ RC sections are generally used
4267	What is the disadvantage of impedance matching?
4268	A pulsating dc applied to power amplifiers causes ___
4269	Transformer coupling introduces what type of distortion?
4270	The frequency stability of the oscillator output is maximum in ___ oscillator
4271	For a constant output frequency, the simplest sinusoidal oscillator is the ___
4272	What is the ratio of output to input impedance of a CE amplifier?
4273	A tuned amplifier is used in what application?
4274	Generally tuned amplifiers are operated in ___
4275	An oscillator oscillates due to ___
4276	Hartley oscillator is commonly used in which of the following?
4277	A transistor converts ___
4278	An LC oscillator cannot be used to produce ___ frequencies
4279	When negative voltage feedback is applied to an amplifier, its output impedance ___
4280	Transformer coupling provides high gain because ___
4281	What is the main consideration in the output stage of an amplifier?
4282	In practice, what is normally varied in order to change the frequency of oscillation?
4283	In a multistage amplifier, if the stages have R and C component only, ___ operation is apparent
4284	What is the typical value of the emitter bypass capacitor CE in a multistage amplifier?
4285	The gain of an amplifier is expressed in dB unit because ___
4286	Negative feedback is employed in ___
4287	The gain of an amplifier with feedback is known as ___ gain
4288	If Av is 50 Ai is 200, what is the power gain of a common emitter amplifier?
4289	The three amplifiers are connected in a multistage arrangement each with a voltage gain of 30 ___
4290	In the initial stages of a multistage amplifier, ___ coupling is used
4291	Which of the following is provided by a CB transistor amplifier?
4292	The simplest variable frequency sinusoidal oscillator is the ___
4293	The frequency response of transformer coupling is ___
4294	A pair of filter common on high fidelity system which separate audio frequency band signals into two separate groups, where one is fed to the tweeter and the other to the woofer is called ___
4295	Given three amplifiers with a gain of 10 and are connected in cascade ___
4296	What is the reason why RC coupling is not used to amplify extremely low frequencies?
4297	What electronic circuit converts AC to DC where the DC output peak value can be greater than the AC input peak value ___
4298	A cold-cathode glow-discharge diode having a copper anode and a large cathode of sodium or other material ___
4299	Avalanche breakdown in a semiconductor takes place ___
4300	At absolute zero temperature, a semiconductor behaves as a/an ___
4301	What is the typical operating current of an LED ___
4302	What device uses a material catwhisker as its anode and is classified as a hot-carrier diode ___
4303	The creation voltage in a conductor or semiconductor by illumination of one surface ___
4304	An effect that occurs within the entire bulk of a semiconductor material rather than in a localized region or junction ___
4305	What is also known as photodiffusion effect ___
4306	The property or ability of a material to support charge flow or electron flow ___
4307	A lightly doped semiconductor has ___
4308	Gallium arsenide, aluminum arsenide and gallium phosphide are classified as ___
4309	A heavily doped semiconductor has ___
4310	The time it takes to turn off a forward-biased diode is called the ___
4311	A class amplifier stage operates with a small forward bias of the transistor so that some collector current flows at all times ___
4312	A large signal amplifier which is biased so that current is non zero for less than one-half cycle ___
4313	A large signal amplifier which is biased so that collector current flow continuously during the complete electrical cycle of the signal as well as when no signal is present ___
4314	The temperature coefficient of resistance of a semiconductor is ___
4315	Defined as random motion of holes and free electrons due to thermal agitation ___
4316	Varistors are used for line filtering to eliminate spikes and dips and is also called ___
4317	What diode has no depletion layer ___
4318	The varactor diode is also called as ___
4319	Which of the choices below does not describe a clipper circuit ___
4320	The removal by electronic means of one extremity of an input waveform is called ___
4321	The resistance of a forward biased pn junction is in the order of ___
4322	Typical leakage current in a pn junction is in the order of ___
4323	The average dc voltage of a full wave rectifier circuit is ___ of the value of the peak input voltage
4324	The averaged dc voltage of a half wave rectifier circuit is ___ of the value of the peak input voltage
4325	For a full-wave rectifier, the output frequency ___
4326	The frequency of a half-wave signal is ___
4327	Which of the following has the highest input impedance ___
4328	Which of the following has the least noise level ___
4329	When doping increases, ___ of a semiconductor decreases
4330	A full-wave signal has a period of ___
4331	A half-wave signal has a period of ___
4332	Two pn silicon diodes are connected in series opposing ___
4333	When both emitter and collector junction are forward biased, the transistor is said to be at ___ region
4334	When the emitter junction is forward biased while the collector junction is reverse biased, the transistor is at ___ region
4335	Optocoupler is otherwise known as ___
4336	An LED and phototransistor is equivalent to a/an ___
4337	Atomic weight of silicon at 300 K is ___
4338	Approximately, the atomic weight of germanium is ___
4339	The time taken by the diode to operate in the reversed condition from forward conduction ___
4340	The reverse bias diode capacitance is termed as ___
4341	What is the typical bulk resistance of rectifier diodes ___
4342	The sum of the resistance of the p-region and the n-region is called ___
4343	A diode is a nonlinear device because ___
4344	The most important application of schottky diodes is in ___
4345	What is the other name of Esaki diode ___
4346	The maximum reverse voltage that can be applied before current surges is called ___
4347	One of the important diode parameters which gives the magnitude of current the diode candle without burning ___
4348	What is the input control parameter of a FET ___
4349	What temperature is inside the diode, right at the junction of the p and n-type materials ___
4350	Zener effect only depends on the ___
4351	The creation of free electrons through zener effect is also known as ___
4352	Avalanche effects occurs at ___
4353	When temperature increases, barrier potential ___
4354	Each pair of positive and negative ions at the junction is called a/an ___
4355	The barrier potential for a silicon diode at 25ËšC is approximately ___
4356	What is the barrier potential of germanium at 25ËšC ___
4357	___ in an n-type semiconductor, holes are called
4358	In an n-type semiconductor, free electrons are called ___
4359	Which is a donor atom ___
4360	An acceptor atom is also called ___
4361	What is another name for a pn crystal ___
4362	Silicon that has been doped with a pentavalent impurity is called a/an ___
4363	Silicon that has been doped with a trivalent impurity is called a/an ___
4364	The peak inverse voltage of a half wave rectifier circuit is approximately equal to the ___ of the input signal
4365	What is associated with random motion due to thermal agitation in the movement of holes and electrons in a silicon crystal ___
4366	An extrinsic semiconductor is a ___
4367	At room temperature, a silicon crystal acts approximately like a/an ___
4368	A silicon crystal is an intrinsic semiconductor ___
4369	Lifetime is the amount of time between the creation and disappearance of a/an ___
4370	Each atom in the silicon crystal has how many electrons in its valence orbit ___
4371	What is considered as the key electrical conductivity ___
4372	Diffusion or storage capacitance is the term used to refer to ___
4373	The peak inverse voltage of a full wave center tapped rectifier circuit is equal to ___ of the input signal
4374	Pure silicon crystal atoms contain how may valence electrons as a result of covalent bonding ___
4375	___ is a substance that contains atoms with several bands of electrons but with only one valence electron
4376	What orbit controls the electrical property of the atom ___
4377	A semiconductor is an element with a valence of ___
4378	There are two mechanisms by which holes and electrons move through a silicon crystal ___
4379	A diode modeling circuit which considers the threshold voltage, average resistance and switch as the diode’s equivalent circuit ___
4380	For either germanium or silicon diodes, the barrier potential decreases ___ for each Celsius degree rise
4381	K shell means ___
4382	Valence orbit is the other form for ___
4383	A semiconductor in its purest form is called ___
4384	A transistor configuration with the lowest current gain ___
4385	The electrons in the largest orbit travel ___ than the electrons in the smaller orbits
4386	The reason why electrons are not pulled into the nucleus of an atom ___
4387	Varactor diodes are commonly used ___
4388	The maximum permissible number of electrons in the third orbit is ___
4389	How many electrons are there in the fourth orbit of a copper atom ___
4390	About the Analog Electronics MCQ category